PMI-100Topic 3 Flashcards
Q: 301 The stakeholder register is an output of: A. Identify Stakeholders. B. Plan Stakeholder Management. C. Control Stakeholder Engagement. D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
A: A
Q: 302 An output of the Develop Project Team process is: A. change requests B. team performance assessments C. project staff assignments D. project documents updates
A: B
Q: 303 Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management? A. Portfolio B. Project C. Program D. Operations
A: D107
Q: 304 Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives? A. Program B. Functional C. Project D. Portfolio
A: C
Q: 305 The approaches tools and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the: A. Methodology B. Risk category C. Risk attitude D. Assumption analysis
A: A
Q: 306 An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is: A. Make?or?buy decisions. B. Activity cost estimates. C. Seller proposals. D. Procurement documents.
A: B108
Q: 307 Outputs of the Control Communications process include: A. expertjudgment and change requests B. work performanceinformation and change requests C. project management plan updates and work performance information D. issue logs and organizational process assets updates
A: B
Q: 308 Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process? A. Procurement audit B. Lessons learned C. Performance reporting D. Payment requests
A: B
Q: 309 The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the: A. sponsor B. customer C. business partners D. functional managers
A: A109
Q: 310 A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the: A. budget at completion (BAC) B. earned value management (EVM) C. to?complete performance index D. cost performance index
A: C
Q: 311 A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a: A. plan B. process C. program D. portfolio
A: D
Q: 312 Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of: A. quality audits B. process analysis C. statistical sampling D. benchmarking
A: A110
Q: 313 Which Process Group’s purpose is to track review and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes? A. Monitoring and Controlling B. Initiating C. Planning D. Executing
A: A
Q: 314 The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry or professional environment is known as: A. negotiation B. organizational theory C. meeting D. networking
A: D
Q: 315 Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? A. Manage Project Team B. Collect Requirements C. Sequence Activities D. Direct and Manage Project Work
A: D111
Q: 316 The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as: A. Define Activities. B. Sequence Activities. C. Define Scope. D. Control Schedule.
A: A
Q: 317 Which document includes the project scope major deliverables assumptions and constraints? A. Project charter B. Project scope statement C. Scope management plan D. Project document updates
A: B
Q: 318 When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating? A. Bottom?up B. Parametric C. Analogous D. Three?point
A: A112
Q: 319 Definitions of probability and impact revised stakeholder tolerances and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan? A. Cost management plan B. Quality management plan C. Communications management plan D. Risk management plan
A: D
Q: 320 Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements historical information and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process? A. Organizational process assets B. A work breakdown structure C. The project management plan D. Enterprise environmental factors
A: A
Q: 321 The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as: A. Supportive B. Leading C. Neutral D. Resistant
A: B113
Q: 322 Which of the following is a narrative description of products services or results to be delivered by a project? A. Project statement of work B. Business case C. Accepted deliverable D. Work performance information
A: A
Q: 323 A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate: A. Historical information and the lessons?learned database. B. Historical information and the stakeholder register. C. Organizational process assets and the lessons?learned database. D. Project documents and historical information.
A: A
Q: 324 Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the: A. Product performance. B. Budget process. C. Collective capabilities. D. Organizational strategy.
A: D114
Q: 325 What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)? A. 0.45 B. 0.56 C. 0.70 D. 1.36
A: C
Q: 326 Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects? A. Histograms B. Scatter diagrams C. Flowcharts D. Checksheets
A: D
Q: 327 The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is: A. start?to?start (SS) B. start?to?finish (SF) C. finish?to?start (FS) D. finish?to-finish (FF)
A: C115
Q: 328 Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process? A. Estimate Costs B. Plan Cost Management C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs
A: D
Q: 329 Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible? A. Coaching B. Avoidance C. Consensus D. Influencing
A: B
Q: 330 The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as: A. Plan Procurement Management. B. Control Procurements. C. Close Procurements. D. Conduct Procurements.
A: C116
Q: 331 The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often: A. Intuitive B. Iterative C. Measured D. Monitored
A: B
Q: 332 The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specifed: A. objectives B. schedule C. product D. approach
A: C
Q: 333 The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication? A. Push B. Pull C. Interactive D. Iterative
A: B117
Q: 334 Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed? A. Resource breakdown structure B. Staffing management plan C. Project organizational chart D. Scope management plan
A: B
Q: 335 The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as: A. Validate Scope. B. Close Project or Phase. C. Control Quality. D. Verify Scope.
A: A
Q: 336 An output of Control Schedule is: A. Aproject schedule network diagram B. Aschedule managementplan C. Schedule data D. Schedule forecasts
A: D118
Q: 337 What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production? A. Failure modes and effects analysis B. Design of experiments C. Quality checklist D. Risk analysis
A: B
Q: 338 Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project? A. Build vs. buy B. Expertjudgment C. Alternatives identification D. Product analysis
A: C
Q: 339 Most experienced project managers know that: A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK? Guide. B. there is no single way to manage a project. C. project management techniques are risk free. D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully.
A: B119
Q: 340 What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process? A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness B. Ground rules for interaction C. Enhanced resource availability D. Functional managers becoming more involved
A: A
Q: 341 The product scope description is used to: A. Gain stakeholders’ support for the project. B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product service or result. C. Describe the project in great detail. D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product service or result.
A: B
Q: 342 Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis? A. Sensitivity analysis B. Probability and impact matrix C. Risk data quality assessment D. Risk categorization
A: A120
Q: 343 Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members? A. Work breakdown structure (WBS) B. Network diagrams C. Staffing management plan D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
A: D
Q: 344 Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team? A. Negotiation B. Roles and responsibilities C. Recognition and rewards D. Prizing and promoting
A: C
Q: 345 Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Work? A. Requested changes B. Approved change requests C. Work performance information D. Implemented defect repair
A: B
Q: 346121 Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles? A. Staffing level is highest at the start. B. The stakeholders’ influence is highest at the start. C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start. D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.
A: B
Q: 347 An input required in Define Scope is an organizational: A. structure. B. process asset. C. matrix. D. breakdown structure.
A: B
Q: 348 What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance? A. Cost aggregation B. Trend analysis C. Forecasting D. Variance analysis
A: D
Q: 349 What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different ? 122 technical characteristics? A. Scope B. Quality C. Specification D. Grade
A: D
Q: 350 When is a Salience Model used? A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS) B. During quality assurance C. In stakeholder analysis D. During quality control (QC)
A: C
Q: 351 Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan? A. An organizational chart B. Glossary of common terminology C. Organizational process assets D. Enterprise environmental factors
A: B
Q: 352 Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations? ? 123 A. Parametric estimating B. Monte Carlo analysis C. Alternatives analysis D. Bottom?up estimating
A: A
Q: 353 Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively what are these phases known as? A. Complete project phase B. Project life C. The project life cycle D. Project cycle
A: C
Q: 354 Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources? A. Human resource planning B. Fast tracking C. Critical chain method D. Rolling wave planning
A: C
Q: 355 Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?124 A. Change requests B. Performance reports C. Organizational process assets D. Project management plan
A: A
Q: 356 Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication? A. It includes letters memos reports emails and faxes. B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion. C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants. D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.
A: B
Q: 357 When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model? A. Before constraints have been identified B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
A: C
Q: 358 Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation collection distribution storage retrieval and ultimate disposition of project information?125 A. Project Integration Management B. Project Communications Management C. Project Information Management System (PIMS) D. Project Scope Management
A: B
Q: 359 Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations? A. Critical path method B. Rolling wave planning C. Precedence diagramming method D. Parametric estimating
A: D
Q: 360 Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what? A. Project management information system B. Work performance information C. Work breakdown structure D. Variance analysis
A: B
Q: 361 What is the number of stakeholders if the project has 28 potential communication channels? A. 7126 B. 8 C. 14 D. 16
A: B
Q: 362 Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party? A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Share D. Avoid
A: C
Q: 363 Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process? A. Organizational process assets B. Resource availability C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Team performance assessment
A: A
Q: 364 Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur? A. Risk register B. Risk audits127 C. Risk urgency assessment D. Risk probability and impact assessment
A: D
Q: 365 What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category? A. Risk register B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS) C. Risk management plan D. Risk category
A: B
Q: 366 Which tool or technique of Plan Quality Management involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance? A. Histogram B. Quality audits C. Benchmarking D. Performance measurement analysis
A: C
Q: 367 Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what? A. Transference128 B. Avoidance C. Exploring D. Mitigation
A: A
Q: 368 During which process group is the quality policy determined? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Planning D. Controlling
A: C
Q: 369 Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project? A. Analogous B. Parametric C. Bottom?up D. Top?down
A: A
Q: 370 What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain? A. Scope changes B. Resource limitations129 C. Risk analysis D. Quality audits
A: B
Q: 371 Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process? A. Organizational standard processes B. Marketplace conditions C. Historical information D. Templates
A: B
Q: 372 The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing
A: B
Q: 373 Organizations perceive risks as: A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives. B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives. C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives. ? 130 D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.
A: B
Q: 374 In an organization with a projectized organizational structure who controls the project budget? A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Program manager D. Project management office
A: B
Q: 375 Who along with the project manager is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project? A. The customer and functional managers B. The risk owners and stakeholders C. The sponsors and stakeholders D. The project management team
A: D
Q: 376 Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs? A. Market conditions and published commercial information B. Company structure and market conditions C. Commercial information and company structure131 D. Existing human resources and market conditions
A: A
Q: 377 Who selects the appropriate processes for a project? A. Project stakeholders B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder C. Project manager and project team D. Project manager and project sponsor
A: C
Q: 378 The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document? A. Schedule management plan B. Project management plan C. Quality management plan D. Resource management plan
A: B
Q: 379 Which is an example of Control Procurements? A. Negotiating the contract B. Authorizing contractor work C. Developing the statement of work D. Establishing evaluation criteria132
A: B
Q: 380 An input to the Create WBS process is a: A. project charter. B. stakeholder register. C. project scope statement. D. requirements traceability matrix.
A: C
Q: 381 An input of the Control Schedule process is the: A. resource calendar. B. activity list. C. risk management plan. D. organizational process assets.
A: D
Q: 382 The Validate Scope process is primarily concerned with: A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. B. accuracy of the work deliverables. C. formalizing approval of the scope statement. D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).
A: A133
Q: 383 What is the total float of the critical path? A. Can be any number B. Zero or positive C. Zero or negative D. Depends on the calendar
A: C
Q: 384 Portfolio Management is management of: A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub?projects. B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning organizing staffing executing and controlling. C. all projects undertaken by a company. D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.
A: D
Q: 385 Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current? A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews. B. Identify quality project standards. C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards. D. Complete the quality control checklist.
A: A134
Q: 386 While implementing an approved change a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this s?ua?on? A. Utilize the change control process. B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect. C. Leave the defect in and work around it. D. Fast?track the remaining development.
A: A
Q: 387 Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies processes and procedures? A. Scope audits B. Scope reviews C. Quality audits D. Control chart
A: C
Q: 388 Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality Management process? A. Schedule B. Checklist C. Assumption D. Cost?Benefit
A: D135
Q: 389 The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups? A. Planning B. Executing C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Project Management
A: C
Q: 390 Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope? A. Templates forms and standards B. Change requests C. Product analysis D. Project assumptions
A: C
Q: 391 Identifying major deliverables deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following? A. Work breakdown structure B. Organizational breakdown structure C. Resource breakdown structure D. Bill of materials
A: A136
Q: 392 What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)? A. To focus on the coordinated planning prioritization and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client’s overall business objectives. B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization’s business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly. C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues. D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope schedule cost and quality of the work packages.
A: A
Q: 393 Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project? A. Product B. Cost?benefit C. Stakeholder D. Research
A: C
Q: 394 Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process? A. Activity list B. Project plan C. Activity duration estimates137 D. Project schedule
A: A
Q: 395 When is a project finished? A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure C. When the project objectives have been met D. After resources have been released
A: C
Q: 396 Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product service or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements? A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Develop Project Charter C. Direct and Manage Project Work D. Collect Requirements
A: B
Q: 397 Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project’s budget? A. Monitoring and Controlling B. Executing C. Planning D. Initiating138
A: B
Q: 398 Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner? A. Plan Communications Management B. Performance reporting C. Project status reports D. Manage Communications
A: D
Q: 399 Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks? A. Identify Risks B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Plan Risk Management D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
A: B
Q: 400 What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management? A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives. B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place. C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events. D. Removal of project risk.139
A: C
Q: 401 Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define prepare integrate and coordinate all subsidiary plans? A. Collect Requirements B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Develop Project Management Plan
A: D
Q: 402 Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements Define Activities Sequence Activities Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis? A. Initiating B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning D. Closing
A: C
Q: 403 A work package has been scheduled to cost $1000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today the actual expenditure is $1200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance? A. ?700 B. ?200 C. 200140 D. 500
A: A
Q: 404 Which type of managers do composite organizations involve? A. Functional managers and manager of project managers B. Functional managers only C. Project managers only D. Technical managers and project managers
A: A
Q: 405 Assigned risk ratings are based upon: A. Root cause analysis. B. Risk probability and impact assessment. C. Expertjudgment. D. Revised stakeholders’ tolerances.
A: B
Q: 406 Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan? A. Expertjudgment B. Project management methodology C. Project management information system (PMIS) D. Project selection methods141
A: A
Q: 407 What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships? A. Role dependencies chart B. Reporting flow diagram C. Project organization chart D. Project team structure diagram
A: C
Q: 408 Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary? A. Scope plan B. Product scope C. Scope management plan D. Scope baseline
A: D
Q: 409 What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness? A. Sole?sum B. Win?lose C. Lose?win D. Partial?sum
A: B142
Q: 410 What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail while work in the future is planned at a higher level? A. Finish?to?start planning B. Rolling wave planning C. Short term planning D. Dependency determination
A: B
Q: 411 Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date? A. Critical path method B. Variance analysis C. Schedule compression D. Schedule comparison bar charts
A: A
Q: 412 Control Quality is accomplished by: A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them. B. Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes. C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.143 D. Applying Monte Carlo sampling Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.
A: B
Q: 413 Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model? A. Bottom?up B. Three?point C. Parametric D. Analogous
A: C
Q: 414 Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process? A. Control Schedule B. Define Activities C. Develop Schedule D. Estimate Activity Resources
A: D
Q: 415 Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances? A. The influence of the stakeholders increases the cost of changes increases.144 B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases the cost of changes increases. C. The influence of the stakeholders increases the cost of changes decreases. D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases the cost of changes decreases.
A: B
Q: 416 Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Plan Risk Management D. Plan Risk Responses
A: A
Q: 417 A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes: A. To the project management plan. B. To the risk register. C. In the scope verification processes. D. And their impact to the project in terms of time cost and risk.
A: D
Q: 418 A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan? A. Resource plan145 B. Project management plan C. Cost control plan D. Expected monetary value plan
A: B
Q: 419 An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster cheaper and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned? A. Customer request B. Market demand C. Technological advance D. Strategic opportunity
A: C
Q: 420 Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? A. Develop Project Management Plan Collect Requirements Create WBS B. Develop Project Management Plan Control Scope Develop Schedule C. Develop Project Charter Define Scope Estimate Costs D. Develop Project Charter Direct and Manage Project Work Close Project or Phase
A: D
Q: 421 What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?146 A. Decomposition B. Benchmarking C. Inspection D. Checklist analysis
A: C
Q: 422 To which process is work performance information an input? A. Control Procurements B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Create WBS D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A: A
Q: 423 Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired? A. Procurement management plan B. Evaluation criteria C. Work breakdown structure D. Procurement statement of work
A: D
Q: 424 Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes? A. Control Costs B. Determine Budget147 C. Estimate Costs D. Estimate Activity Resources
A: B
Q: 425 Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering? A. The Delphi technique B. Nominal group technique C. Affinity diagram D. Brainstorming
A: A
Q: 426 At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest? A. Final phase of the project B. Start of the project C. End of the project D. Midpoint of the project
A: B
Q: 427 What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type? A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS) B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS) C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)148 D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)
A: B
Q: 428 When can pre?assignment of project team members occur? A. When the project uses capital expenditures B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal
A: D
Q: 429 An output of the Create WBS process is: A. Scope baseline. B. Project scope statement. C. Organizational process assets. D. Requirements traceability matrix.
A: A
Q: 430 Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Close Project D. Develop Project Charter
A: A
Q: 431 Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages? A. Estimate Costs B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Control Costs D. Determine Budget
A: B
Q: 432 Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to: A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders. B. Conduct risk management activities for a project. C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project. D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.
A: B
Q: 433 If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks the best?case duration is two weeks and the worst?case duration is 14 weeks how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity? A. One B. Five C. Six D. Seven150
A: C
Q: 434 The CPI is .92 and the EV is US$172500.What is the actual cost of the project? A. US$158700 B. US$172500 C. US$187500 D. US$245600
A: C
Q: 435 Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating? A. Control chart B. Earned value C. Variance D. Trend
A: D
Q: 436 Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities? A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update C. Project schedule network diagram D. Mandatory dependencies list
A: C151
Q: 437 The Human Resource Management processes are: A. Plan Human Resource Management Acquire Project Team Develop Project Team and Manage Project Team. B. Acquire Project Team Manage Project Team Manage Stakeholders Engagement and Develop Project Team. C. Acquire Project Team Plan Human Resource Management Conflict Management and Manage Project Team. D. Develop Project Team Manage Project Team Estimate Activity Resources and Acquire Project Team.
A: A
Q: 438 What are the formal and informal policies procedures and guidelines that could impact how the project’s scope is managed? A. Organizational process assets B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Project management processes D. Project scope management plan
A: A
Q: 439 Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk funding and an organizations: A. Budget plan B. Resource plan152 C. Scope plan D. Strategic plan
A: D
Q: 440 When does Monitor and Control Risks occur? A. At project initiation B. During work performance analysis C. Throughout the life of the project D. At project milestones
A: C
Q: 441 Conflict should be best addressed in which manner? A. Early in private using a direct collaborative approach B. Early in public using an indirect collaborative approach C. Early in private using an indirect cooperative approach D. As late as possible in public using a direct confrontational approach
A: A
Q: 442 The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide? should: A. always be applied uniformly. B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor. C. be selected as appropriate by the project team. D. be applied based on ISO guidelines.153
A: C
Q: 443 Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes? A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP?EPA) B. Cost?Reimbursable Contract (CR) C. Firm?Fixed ?Price Contract (FFP) D. Fixed?Price?lncentive?Fee Contract (FPIF)
A: C
Q: 444 Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially? A. Crashing B. Fast tracking C. Leads and lags adjustment D. Parallel task development
A: B
Q: 445 What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Work? A. Integrating all planned activities B. Performing the activities included in the plan C. Developing and maintaining the plan D. Execution of deliverables
A: B
Q: 446 What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan?Do?Check?Act cycle? A. Pareto B. lshikawa C. Shewhart?Deming D. Delphi
A: C
Q: 447 A project management office manages a number of aspects including the: A. Project scope schedule cost and quality of the products of the work packages. B. Central coordination of communication management across projects. C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives. D. Overall risk overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.
A: D
Q: 448 Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope? A. Cost?benefit analysis B. Variance analysis C. Reserve analysis D. Stakeholder analysis
A: B155
Q: 449 As part of a mid?project evaluation the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast? A. BAC B. EAC C. ETC D. WBS
A: B
