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PMI-100 CAPM > PMI-100Topic 4 > Flashcards

PMI-100Topic 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Q: 450 A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements? A. Plan contracting B. Requesting seller responses C. Selecting seller’s D. Planning purchase and acquisition

A

A: C

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2
Q

Q: 451 Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps? A. Control B. Bar C. Flow D. Pareto

A

A: C156

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3
Q

Q: 452 What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100000 PV = $50000 AC = $80000 EV = $40000 A. 1 B. 0.4 C. 0.5 D. 0.8

A

A: D

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4
Q

Q: 453 Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements? A. Teaming agreements B. Expertjudgment C. Bidder conferences D. Contract types

A

A: C

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5
Q

Q: 454 What provides information regarding the ways people teams and organizational units behave? A. Organizational chart B. Organizational theory C. Organizational structure D. Organizational behavior

A

A: B157

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6
Q

Q: 455 What is a deliverable?oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables? A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS) B. Work performance information C. Work package D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

A

A: D

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7
Q

Q: 456 What causes replanning of the project scope? A. Project document updates B. Project scope statement changes C. Variance analysis D. Change requests

A

A: D

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8
Q

Q: 457 Which of the following is an output of the Manage Communications process? A. Project calendar B. Communications management plan C. Organizational process assets updates D. Project document updates

A

A: C158

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9
Q

Q: 458 In the Develop Project Team process which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project’s success? A. Team meetings B. Subcontracting teams C. Virtual teams D. Teamwork

A

A: D

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10
Q

Q: 459 The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process? A. Sequence Activities B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Develop Schedule D. Control Schedule

A

A: C

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11
Q

Q: 460 Which process determines the risks that might affect the project? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Identify Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

A

A: B159

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12
Q

Q: 461 Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. Approved change requests B. Approved contract documentation C. Work performance information D. Rejected change requests

A

A: A

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13
Q

Q: 462 Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project? A. Cost of changes B. Stakeholder influences C. Risk D. Uncertainty

A

A: A

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14
Q

Q: 463 In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information? A. Project Scope Management B. Project Time Management C. Project Communications Management D. Project Quality Management

A

A: D160

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15
Q

Q: 464 Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of: A. Conduct Procurements. B. Close Procurements. C. Control Procurements D. Plan ProcurementManagement.

A

A: C

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16
Q

Q: 465 In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Monitor and Control Risk C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Plan Risk Responses

A

A: B

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17
Q

Q: 466 A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract? A. Cost?reimbursable B. Time and material C. Fixed price or lump?sum D. Cost?plus?fixed?fee

A

A: C161

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18
Q

Q: 467 What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives? A. Expertjudgment B. Risk registry C. Risk response planning D. Interviewing

A

A: D

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19
Q

Q: 468 Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable?oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work? A. WBS directory B. Activity list C. WBS D. Project schedule

A

A: C

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20
Q

Q: 469 Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group? A. Control Costs B. Plan Quality Management C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Determine Budget

A

A: A

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21
Q

Q: 470 Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used? A. Control Quality B. Quality Metrics C. Perform Quality Assurance D. Plan Quality Management

A

A: C

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22
Q

Q: 471 How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique? A. EV less AC B. AC less PV C. EV less PV D. AC less EV

A

A: C

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23
Q

Q: 472 Which Control Quality tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate? A. Control chart B. Flowchart C. Run chart D. Pareto chart

A

A: B

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24
Q

Q: 473 Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurement Management process? A. Risk assessment analysis B. Make or buy analysis C. Contract value analysis D. Cost impact analysis

A

A: B

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25
Q

Q: 474 Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Validate Scope process? A. Inspection B. Variance analysis C. Expert
judgment D. Decomposition

A

A: A

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26
Q

Q: 475 Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area? A. Project Time Management B. Project Cost Management C. Project Scope Management D. Project Human Resource Management

A

A: A

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27
Q

Q: 476 Which is a communication method used in the Control Communications process? A. Expert judgment B. Project management methodology C. Stakeholder analysis D. Status review meetings

A

A: D

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28
Q

Q: 477 Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process? A. Monitor and Control Risks B. Plan Risk Management C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

A

A: C

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29
Q

Q: 478 In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities? A. Acquire Project Team B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Manage Project Execution D. Develop Project Charter

A

A: D

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30
Q

Q: 479165 Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action? A. Probability and impact matrix B. Contingency analysis report C. Risk urgency assessment D. Rolling wave plan

A

A: C

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31
Q

Q: 480 Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct? A. Configuration Identification B. Configuration Status Accounting C. Configuration Verification and Audit D. Configuration Quality Assurance

A

A: C

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32
Q

Q: 481 Change requests project management plan updates project document updates and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process? A. Plan Risk Responses B. Manage Stakeholders Engagement C. Define Scope D. Control Communications

A

A: B

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33
Q

Q: 482 Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities? A. Develop Schedule B. Sequence Activities C. Create WBS D. Applying leads and lags

A

A: B

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34
Q

Q: 483 Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed?price contract? A. Purchase requisition B. Purchase order C. Verbal agreement D. Request for quote

A

A: B

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35
Q

Q: 484 Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project? A. Cost risk simulation analysis B. Expected monetary value analysis C. Modeling and simulation D. Sensitivity analysis

A

A: D

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36
Q

Q: 485 Labor materials equipment and supplies are examples of:167 A. Resource attributes. B. Resource types. C. Resource categories. D. Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

A

A: C

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37
Q

Q: 486 Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques? A. Expertjudgment B. Project management software C. Vendor bid analysis D. Reserve analysis

A

A: A

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38
Q

Q: 487 A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly: A. state the guiding principles of the organization. B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches. C. state what is out of scope. D. outline the results of the Delphi technique.

A

A: C

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39
Q

Q: 488 Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation? A. Project168 B. Functional C. Program D. Portfolio

A

A: D

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40
Q

Q: 489 One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is: A. organization charts. B. ground rules. C. organizational theory D. conflict management.

A

A: D

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41
Q

Q: 490 The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is: A. Control Schedule. B. Quality Control. C. Perform Integrated Change Control. D. Develop Schedule.

A

A: A

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42
Q

Q: 491 Changes to formally controlled document, plans etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as: A. updates. B. defect repairs. C. preventive actions. D. corrective actions.

A

A: A

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43
Q

Q: 492 Which provides the basic framework for managing a project? A. Project life cycle B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Project initiation

A

A: A

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44
Q

Q: 493 A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is: A. risk data quality assessment. B. variance and trend analysis. C. data gathering and representation techniques. D. risk audits.

A

A: A

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45
Q

Q: 494 In the Estimate Activity Durations process productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the: A. enterprise environmental factors. B. organizational process assets.170 C. project management plan D. project funding requirements.

A

A: A

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46
Q

Q: 495 The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group? A. Define Activities B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities

A

A: D

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47
Q

Q: 496 Quality metrics are an output of which process? A. Plan Quality Management B. Control Quality C. Perform Quality Assurance D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

A

A: A

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48
Q

Q: 497 The purpose of inspection in Control Quality is to keep errors: A. in line with a measured degree of conformity. B. out of the hands of the customer. C. in a specified range of acceptable results. D. out of the process.171

A

A: B

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49
Q

Q: 498 An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the: A. quality management plan. B. project management plan. C. communications management plan. D. schedule management plan.

A

A: D

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50
Q

Q: 499 When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects all of the Process Groups would normally be: A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects. B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects. C. linked to specific phases or subprojects. D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

A

A: B

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51
Q

Q: 500 A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date US$10000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date? A. US$SOOO B. US$9500 C. US$10000 D. US$12500172

A

A: D

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52
Q

Q: 501 Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure? A. Little or no project manager authority little or no resource availability and the functional manager controls the project budget B. Limited project manager authority limited resource availability and a part?time project manager’s role C. Low to moderate project manager authority low to moderate resource availability and a full? time project manager’s role D. High to almost total project manager authority high to almost total resource availability and full- time project management administrative staff

A

A: A

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53
Q

Q: 502 The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager’s disposal? A. Resource leveling and fast tracking B. Fast tracking and crashing C. Crashing and applying leads and lags D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

A

A: A

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54
Q

Q: 503 Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?173 A. Monitor and Control Project Work B. Control Quality C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Monitor and Control Risks

A

A: C

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55
Q

Q: 504 Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary? A. Responsible organization B. Change requests C. Validated deliverables D. Organizational process assets

A

A: A

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56
Q

Q: 505 When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of: A. training testing and warranty work. B. equipment rework and scrap. C. training document processes and inspections. D. inspections rework and warranty work.

A

A: C

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57
Q

Q: 506 Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process? A. Rolling wave planning174 B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) C. Alternatives analysis D. Parametric estimating

A

A: A

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58
Q

Q: 507 Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product result or service? A. Portfolio B. Process C. Project D. Program

A

A: B

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59
Q

Q: 508 Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure? A. Limited B. Low to moderate C. Moderate to high D. High to almost total

A

A: C

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60
Q

Q: 509 Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks? A. Influence diagrams175 B. Brainstorming C. Assumption analysis D. SWOT analysis

A

A: B

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61
Q

Q: 510 An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is known as : A. corrective action. B. preventive action. C. non?conformance report D. defect repair.

A

A: D

62
Q

Q: 511 Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract? A. Product scope description B. Procurement statement of work C. Project schedule D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

A

A: B

63
Q

Q: 512 Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization? A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution176 B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need) C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request D. Market demand and/or legal requirements

A

A: D

64
Q

Q: 513 In which Process Group are lessons learned documented? A. Planning B. Closing C. Executing D. Initiating

A

A: B

65
Q

Q: 514 Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications Management include the communication: A. communication requirements analysis communication technology communication models and communication methods. B. methods stakeholder register communication technology and communication models. C. requirements communication technology communication requirements analysis and communication methods. D. management plan communication technology communication models and communication requirements analysis.

A

A: A

66
Q

Q: 515 In Project Cost Management which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process? ? 177 A. Scope baseline B. Organizational process assets C. Project schedule D. Resource calendars

A

A: D

67
Q

Q: 516 Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference? A. Compromising B. Collaborating C. Smoothing D. Problem Solving

A

A: C

68
Q

Q: 517 A tool or technique in Control Quality that a project manager would use is: A. quality audits. B. process analysis. C. benchmarking. D. inspection.

A

A: D

69
Q

Q: 518 The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as: A. Arrow Diagram.178 B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM). C. Activity?On-Node (AON). D. schedule network diagram.

A

A: C

70
Q

Q: 519 Change request status updates are an output of which process? A. Perform Integrated Change Control B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Close Project or Phase D. Monitor and Control Project Work

A

A: A

71
Q

Q: 520 As the project progresses which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities? A. Communication management activities B. Change requests C. Configuration verification and audit D. Work performance information

A

A: D

72
Q

Q: 521 Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing179 D. Closing

A

A: A

73
Q

Q: 522 The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company development of a specific part of the system is under high risk so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response? A. Transfer B. Share C. Avoid D. Accept

A

A: A

74
Q

Q: 523 Which type of agreement is legal contractual and between two or more entities to form a partnership joint venture or some other arrangement as defined by the parties? A. Teaming B. Collective bargaining C. Sharing D. Working

A

A: A

75
Q

Q: 524 The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is: A. Determine Budget.180 B. Baseline Budget. C. Control Costs. D. Estimate Costs.

A

A: A

76
Q

Q: 525 To please the customer a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes: A. scope creep. B. a change request. C. work performance information. D. deliverables.

A

A: A

77
Q

Q: 526 The definition of operations is a/an: A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service. B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product service or result. C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area. D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

A

A: D

78
Q

Q: 527 How many Project Management Process Groups are there?181 A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

A

A: C

79
Q

Q: 528 Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity’s duration? A. Analogous B. Parametric C. Three?point D. What?if scenario analysis

A

A: C

80
Q

Q: 529 The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is: A. Executing. B. Initiating C. Monitoring and Controlling. D. Planning.

A

A: C

81
Q

Q: 530 Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team? A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates182 B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

A

A: D

82
Q

Q: 531 Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholders Engagement? A. Stakeholder management strategy B. Communication methods C. Issue log D. Change requests

A

A: B

83
Q

Q: 532 Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process? A. Three-point estimates B. Resource optimization techniques C. Precedence diagramming method D. Bottom?up estimating

A

A: B

84
Q

Q: 533 The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the: A. stakeholder management strategy. B. communications management plan183 C. stakeholder register D. performance report.

A

A: A

85
Q

Q: 534 Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process? A. Vendor risk assessment diagram B. Risk register C. Requirements traceability matrix D. Area of responsibility summary

A

A: C

86
Q

Q: 535 The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called: A. expert judgment. B. rolling wave planning. C. work performance information. D. specification.

A

A: B

87
Q

Q: 536 What is the responsibility ofthe project manager and the functional manager respectively? A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.184

A

A: B

88
Q

Q: 537 Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers? A. Procurement statement of work B. Resource calendars C. Procurement document D. Independent estimates

A

A: C

89
Q

Q: 538 In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed? A. Monitoring and Controlling B. Executing C. Initiating D. Planning

A

A: C

90
Q

Q: 539 Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance? A. Matrix diagram B. Histogram C. Control chart D. Flowchart

A

A: C185

91
Q

Q: 540 When sequencing activities what does the common acronym FF stand for? A. Fixed Fee B. Free Float C. Fixed Finish D. Finish?to?Finish

A

A: D

92
Q

Q: 541 Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three?point estimating? A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4 B. Ce = (600 + Cm + Cp)/4 C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6 D. Ce = (C0 + C + 4Cp) / 6

A

A: C

93
Q

Q: 542 Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique? A. Probability B. Quantitative C. Qualitative D. Sensitivity

A

A: B186

94
Q

Q: 543 When addressing roles and responsibilitieswhich item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities? A. Authority B. Role C. Competency D. Responsibility

A

A: C

95
Q

Q: 544 Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events? A. Preventive action B. Risk management C. Corrective action D. Defect repair

A

A: A

96
Q

Q: 545 The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the: A. Enterprise environmental factors. B. Historical information C. Organizational process assets. D. Corporate knowledge base.

A

A: C

97
Q

Q: 546 Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input? A. Manage Stakeholders Engagement B. Control Communications C. Manage Communications D. Plan Communications Management

A

A: C

98
Q

Q: 547 Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty? A. Vendor bid analysis B. Three?point estimates C. Parametric estimating D. Reserve analysis

A

A: D

99
Q

Q: 548 Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process? A. Project document updates B. Organizational process assets updates C. Change requests D. Deliverables

A

A: A

100
Q

Q: 549 Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?188 A. Project schedule B. Organizational process assets updates C. Project document updates D. Work performance information

A

A: D

101
Q

Q: 550 Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups? A. Planning B. Executing C. Closing D. Initiating

A

A: C

102
Q

Q: 551 The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to: A. establish and manage project communication channels both external and internal to the project team. B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented. C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline. D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

A

A: D

103
Q

Q: 552189 Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date? A. Project Plan B. Responsibility Matrix C. Issue Log D. Scope Document

A

A: C

104
Q

Q: 553 Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan? A. Project sponsor B. Project manager C. Person responsible for project scheduling D. Person who is most familiar with the task

A

A: D

105
Q

Q: 554 Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process? A. Risk management plan B. Risk register C. Change requests D. Risk response plan

A

A: B

106
Q

Q: 555190 Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves? A. Cyclic B. Progressive C. Repetitive D. Iterative

A

A: B

107
Q

Q: 556 Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary C. Requirements management plan D. Requirements documentation

A

A: A

108
Q

Q: 557 Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met? A. Cost?reimbursable contracts B. Time and Material contracts (T&M) C. Fixed?price contracts D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

A

A: C

109
Q

Q: 558191 Types of internal failure costs include: A. inspections. B. equipment and training. C. lost business. D. reworking and scrapping.

A

A: D

110
Q

Q: 559 In a weak matrix the project managers role is: A. part?time B. full?time C. occasional D. unlimited

A

A: A

111
Q

Q: 560 Which of the following is an example of schedule compression? A. Activity sequencing B. Resource leveling C. Lead and lag adjusting D. Crashing

A

A: D

112
Q

Q: 561 Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?192 A. Legal B. Discretionary C. Internal D. Resource

A

A: B

113
Q

Q: 562 Control charts, flowcharts, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process? A. Control Quality B. Perform Quality Assurance C. Plan Quality Management D. Control Communications

A

A: A

114
Q

Q: 563 Co-location is a tool and technique of: A. Plan Human Resource Management. B. Manage Project Team. C. Develop Project Team. D. Acquire Project Team.

A

A: C

115
Q

Q: 564 During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?193 A. Control Quality B. Validate Scope C. Control Scope D. Develop Schedule

A

A: B

116
Q

Q: 565 The PV is $1000 EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI? A. 1.33 B. 2 C. 0.75 D. 0.5

A

A: A

117
Q

Q: 566 A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best?case scenario the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst?case scenario the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates what is the expected duration of the activity? A. Three weeks B. Four weeks C. Five weeks D. Six weeks

A

A: C

118
Q

Q: 567 What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?194 A. Quality metrics B. Less rework C. Quality control measurements D. Benchmarking

A

A: B

119
Q

Q: 568 What is a tool to improve team performance? A. Staffing plan B. External feedback C. Performance reports D. Co?location

A

A: D

120
Q

Q: 569 Which tool within the Control Quality process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance? A. Cause and effect diagram B. Control charts C. Pareto chart D. Histogram

A

A: B

121
Q

Q: 570 Based on the following metrics: EV= $20000 AC= $22000 and PV= $28000 what is the project CV?195 A. ?8000 B. ?2000 C. 2000 D. 8000

A

A: B

122
Q

Q: 571 Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events? A. lshikawa B. Milestone C. Influence D. Decision tree

A

A: C

123
Q

Q: 572 In a construction project schedule what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete? A. Start?to?start (SS) B. Start?to?finish (SF) C. Rnish?to?finish (FF) D. Finish?to?start (FS)

A

A: D

124
Q

Q: 573 A required input for Create WBS is a project: A. quality plan.196 B. schedule network. C. management document update. D. scope statement.

A

A: D

125
Q

Q: 574 Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles? A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles. B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle. C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle. D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

A

A: A

126
Q

Q: 575 Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements? A. Contract plan B. Procurement plan C. Closure process D. Procurement audits

A

A: D

127
Q

Q: 576 Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Work? A. Project management plan B. Change request status updates C. Organizational process assets updates D. Work performance information

A

A: D

128
Q

Q: 577 Which of the following is an input to Plan Human Resource Management? A. Team performance assessment B. Roles and responsibilities C. Staffing management plan D. Enterprise environmental factors

A

A: D

129
Q

Q: 578 Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV) schedule performance index (SPI) or any performance status to stakeholders? A. Performance organizations B. Schedule baselines C. Work performance measurements D. Change requests

A

A: C

130
Q

Q: 579 Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality? A. Internal failure costs B. Prevention costs C. Appraisal costs198 D. External failure costs

A

A: C

131
Q

Q: 580 Another name for an lshikawa diagram is: A. cause and effect diagram. B. control chart. C. flowchart. D. histogram.

A

A: A

132
Q

Q: 581 Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management? A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide B. The Standard for Program Management C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$) D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK?)

A

A: D

133
Q

Q: 582 Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives? A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance199 D. Transfer

A

A: D

134
Q

Q: 583 Which of the following correctly explains the term “progressive elaboration’? A. Changing project specifications continuously B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

A

A: D

135
Q

Q: 584 A project has an EV of 100 workdays an AC of 120 workdays and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern? A. There is a cost underrun. B. There is a cost overrun. C. The project may not meet the deadline. D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.

A

A: B

136
Q

Q: 585 Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common? A. Performed by systems B. Constrained by limited resources C. Repetitiveness D. Uniqueness200

A

A: B

137
Q

Q: 586 What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate? A. Cost right at the estimated value B. Cost under the estimated value C. Cost right at the actual value D. Cost over the estimated value

A

A: B

138
Q

Q: 587 Which of the following is an output from Control Scope? A. Change requests B. Variance analysis C. Accepted deliverables D. Requirements documentation

A

A: A

139
Q

Q: 588 Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process? A. Conduct Procurements B. Plan Procurement Management C. Control Procurements D. Close Procurements

A

A: C201

140
Q

Q: 589 Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process? A. Brainstorming B. Strategies for opportunities C. Decision tree analysis D. Risk data quality assessment

A

A: C

141
Q

Q: 590 In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty? A. Functional B. Projectized C. Matrix D. Balanced

A

A: A

142
Q

Q: 591 Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process? A. Risk register B. Risk data quality assessment C. Risk categorization D. Risk urgency

A

A: A202

143
Q

Q: 592 Which of the following Process Groups covers all ten Project Management Knowledge Areas? A. Executing B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning D. Initiating

A

A: B

144
Q

Q: 593 The process of identifying the stakeholders’ information needs is completed during: A. Plan Communications Management. B. Manage Stakeholders Engagment. C. Stakeholder Analysis. D. Identify Stakeholders.

A

A: A

145
Q

Q: 594 What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)? A. In the Initiation phase the estimate is in the range of +/? 50%. B. In the Planning phase the estimate is in the range of +/? 50%. C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase the estimate is in the range of +/? 15%. D. In the Closing phase the estimate is in the range of +/? 15%.

A

A: A203

146
Q

Q: 595 Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories? A. Fixed?price cost reimbursable time and materials B. Make?or?buy margin analysis fixed?price C. Time and materials fixed?price margin analysis D. Make?or?buy lump?sum cost?plus?incentive

A

A: A

147
Q

Q: 596 Which of the following events would result in a baseline update? A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion. B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay. D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

A

A: B

148
Q

Q: 597 Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical? A. Applying calendars B. Resource leveling C. Resource planning D. Resource conflict management

A

A: B204

149
Q

Q: 598 “Tailoring” is defined as the: A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor. B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service. C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications. D. adjustment of the respective influences of time cost and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

A

A: A

150
Q

Q: 599 Which is an input to the Validate Scope process? A. Performance report B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) C. Requested changes D. Project management plan

A

A: D

151
Q

Q: 600 Which is an output from Manage Communications? A. Earned value analysis B. Trend analysis C. Project records D. Performance reviews

A

A: C

PMI-100 CAPM (5 decks)

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