PMI-100Topic 1 Flashcards
Q: 1 Which document defines how a project is executed monitored and controlled and closed? A. Strategic plan B. Project charter C. Project management plan D. Service level agreement
A: C
Q: 2 Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses? A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases. B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases. D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
A: C
Q: 3 Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process? A. Document analysis B. Observations C. Product analysis D. Expert judgment
A: D
Q: 4 Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities? A. Independent estimates B. Market research C. Analytical techniques D. Bidder conferences
A: B
Q: 5 An input used in developing the communications management plan is: A. Communication models. B. Enterprise environmental factors. C. Organizational communications D. Organizational cultures and styles.
A: B
Q: 6 Regression analysis failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA) fault tree analysis (FTA) and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique? A. Expert judgment B. Forecasting methods C. Earned value management D. Analytical techniques
A: D
Q: 7 The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group? A. Executing B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Initiating D. Planning
A: A
Q: 8 Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process? A. Control Scope B. Define Scope C. Plan Scope Management D. Collect Requirements
A: C
Q: 9 Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives? A. Identify Risks B. Control Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Plan Risk Responses
A: D
Q: 10 The process of establishing the policies procedures and documentation for planning developing ? 4 managing executing and controlling the project schedule is known as: A. Plan Schedule Management. B. Develop Project Charter. C. Develop Schedule. D. Plan Scope Management.
A: A
Q: 11 Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project? A. Issue log B. Change log C. Expert judgment D. Change requests
A: B
Q: 12 An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is: A. The project charter. B. The stakeholder analysis. C. A communication management plan. D. A stakeholder register.
A: D
Q: 13 An input to the Plan Cost Management process is: A. Cost estimates. B. Resource calendars C. The project charter D. The risk register.
A: C
Q: 14 A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is: A. Product analysis. B. Variance analysis. C. Document analysis D. Decomposition.
A: B
Q: 15 The process of identifying and documenting project roles responsibilities required skills and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as: A. Develop Project Team. B. Manage Project Team. C. Acquire Project Team. D. Plan Human Resource Management.
A: D
Q: 16 Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?6 A. Mandatory B. Discretionary C. Internal D. External
A: A
Q: 17 During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives? A. Monitor and Control Project Work B. Perform Quality Assurance C. Close Project or Phase D. Control Scope
A: C
Q: 18 An input to the Manage Project Team process is: A. Work performance reports. B. Change requests. C. Activity resource requirements. D. Enterprise environmental factors.
A: A
Q: 19 Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals requirements and outcomes? A. Procurement statement of work7 B. Purchase order C. Source selection criteria D. Bidder conference
A: A
Q: 20 A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group? A. Executing B. Planning C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Closing
A: A
Q: 21 A project manager providing information to the right audience in the right format at the right time is an example of which type of communication? A. Efficient B. Effective C. Push D. Pull
A: B
Q: 22 Scope schedule and cost parameters are integrated in the: A. Performance measurement baseline.8 B. Analysis of project forecasts C. Summary of changes approved in a period D. Analysis of past performance.
A: A
Q: 23 A project in which the scope time and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is: A. Adaptive B. Predictive C. Incremental D. Iterative
A: B
Q: 24 What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100 the actual cost (AC) is $150 and the earned value (EV) is $50? A. 0.50 B. 0.67 C. 1.50 D. 2.00
A: A
Q: 25 Which item is an input to the Define Activities process? A. Schedule data9 B. Activity list C. Risk register D. Scope baseline
A: D
Q: 26 When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary which tool or technique should be utilized? A. Interactive communication B. Claims administration C. Conflict management D. Performance reporting
A: B
Q: 27 Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent?to?child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship? A. lnterrelationship digraphs B. Tree diagram C. Affinity diagram D. Network diagram
A: B
Q: 28 The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:10 A. Planning. B. Executing C. Monitoring and Controlling. D. Closing.
A: C
Q: 29 Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process? A. Manage Project Team B. Acquire Project Team C. Develop Project Team D. Plan Human Resource Management
A: D
Q: 30 Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process? A. Benchmarking expertjudgment and analytical techniques B. Statistical sampling benchmarking and meetings C. Negotiations pre?assignment and multi?criteria decision analysis D. Expertjudgment analytical techniques and meetings
A: D
Q: 31 A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure? A. Projectized B. Weak matrix C. Functional D. Balanced matrix
A: A
Q: 32 A project charter is an output of which Process Group? A. Executing B. Planning C. Initiating D. Closing
A: C
Q: 33 Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result? A. Inspection B. Variance analysis C. Decomposition D. Product analysis
A: D
Q: 34 An element of the project scope statement is: A. Acceptance criteria. B. stakeholder list. C. summary budget D. High?level risks.
A: A
Q: 35 Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment? A. Cost baseline B. Service level agreement C. Memorandum of understanding D. Business case
A: D
Q: 36 Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline? A. Estimate Costs B. Control Costs C. Determine Budget D. Plan Cost Management
A: B
Q: 37 Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing evaluating approving delaying or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions? A. Project team B. Focus group13 C. Change control board D. Project stakeholders
A: C
Q: 38 Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area? A. Project Scope Management B. Project Human Resource Management C. Project Integration Management D. Project Time Management
A: D
Q: 39 An output of the Validate Scope process is: A. Arequirements traceability matrix. B. The scope management plan. C. Work performance reports. D. Change requests.
A: D
Q: 40 The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Planning14
A: C
Q: 41 Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high?level risks? A. Project charter B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Stakeholder register D. Organizational process assets
A: A
Q: 42 Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management? A. Work performance data B. Project documents C. Scope baseline D. Requirements documentation
A: B
Q: 43 Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process? A. Control Quality B. Control Scope C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Perform Integrated Change Control
A: D15
Q: 44 The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as: A. Work performance information. B. Inspections and audits. C. Payment systems. D. Procurement performance reviews.
A: D
Q: 45 The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area? A. Project Communications Management B. Project Integration Management C. Project Risk Management D. Project Scope Management
A: B
Q: 46 Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process? A. Scope baseline B. Organizational process assets C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Risk register16
A: C
Q: 47 An output of the Develop Project Team process is: A. Organizational process assets. B. Enterprise environmental factors updates. C. Project staff assignments. D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
A: B
Q: 48 The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as: A. Plan Human Resource Management. B. Acquire Project Team. C. Manage Project Team. D. Develop Project Team.
A: B
Q: 49 Which item is an example of personnel assessment? A. Resource calendar B. Tight matrix C. Team?building activity D. Focus group
A: D17
Q: 50 The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group? A. Executing B. Initiating C. Planning D. Monitoring and Controlling
A: C
Q: 51 Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project? A. Feedback analysis B. Stakeholder analysis C. Communication management plan D. Stakeholder management plan
A: D
Q: 52 A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as: A. Benchmarking. B. Context diagrams. C. Brainstorming. D. Prototyping.
A: D18
Q: 53 Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project? A. Power/influence grid B. Power/interest grid C. Influence/impact grid D. Salience model
A: A
Q: 54 Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project? A. Facilitation techniques B. Expertjudgment C. Analytical techniques D. Variance analysis
A: C
Q: 55 Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects? A. Control charts B. Pareto diagrams C. lshikavva diagrams D. Checksheets19
A: D
Q: 56 The process of estimating the type and quantity of material human resources equipment or supplies required to perform each activity is known as: A. Collect Requirements. B. Conduct Procurements. C. Estimate Activity Durations. D. Estimate Activity Resources.
A: D
Q: 57 Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project? A. Procurement documents B. Communications plan C. Project charter D. Stakeholder register
A: C
Q: 58 The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group? A. Initiating B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning D. Executing20
A: A
Q: 59 An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an: A. Business case. B. Activity list. C. Project management plan. D. Cost forecast.
A: A
Q: 60 Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document deliverable or baseline? A. Change request B. Requirements documentation C. Scope baseline D. Risk urgency assessment
A: A
Q: 61 Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics? A. Control Risks B. Plan Risk Management C. Plan Risk Responses D. Identify Risks
A: D21
Q: 62 An example of a group decision?ma king technique is: A. Nominal group technique. B. Majority. C. Affinity diagram. D. Multi?criteria decision analysis.
A: B
Q: 63 A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat together with ownership of the response to a third party is called: A. mitigate B. accept C. transfer D. avoid
A: C
Q: 64 An output of the Plan Quality Management process is: A. Aprocess improvement plan B. Quality control measurements. C. Work performance information D. The project management plan.
A: A22
Q: 65 A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the: A. Changecontrol plan B. Stakeholder register C. Risk log D. Communications management plan
A: D
Q: 66 Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique? A. Estimate Activity Resources B. Sequence Activities C. Estimate Activity Durations D. Develop Schedule
A: C
Q: 67 Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized? A. Enhance B. Share C. Exploit D. Accept
A: C23
Q: 68 Payback period return on investment internal rate of return discounted cash flow and net present value are all examples of: A. Expertjudgment. B. Analytical techniques. C. Earned value management. D. Group decision?making techniques.
A: B
Q: 69 The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component? A. Timing B. Methodology C. Risk categories D. Budgeting
A: A
Q: 70 When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation this causes which type of total float? A. Negative B. Zero C. Positive D. Free
A: C24
Q: 71 A reward can only be effective if it is: A. Given immediately after the project is completed. B. Something that is tangible. C. Formally given during project performance appraisals. D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
A: D
Q: 72 Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis? A. Nominal group technique B. Idea/mind mapping C. Affinity diagram D. Brainstorming
A: C
Q: 73 Using values such as scope cost budget and duration or measures of scale such as size weight and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating? A. Bottom?up B. Parametric C. Analogous D. Three?point25
A: C
Q: 74 Sending letters memos reports emails and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication? A. Direct B. Interactive C. Pull D. Push
A: D
Q: 75 Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric? A. Cost variance (CV) B. Cost performance index (CPI) C. Budget at completion (BAC) D. Variance at completion (VAC)
A: B
Q: 76 Which process involves defining preparing and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Plan Quality Management26 D. Monitor and Control Project Work
A: B
Q: 77 Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include: A. Organizational process assets and the project charter B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools. C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams. D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
A: A
Q: 78 A strengths weaknesses opportunities and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process? A. Identify Risks B. Control Risks C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A: A
Q: 79 Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people groups or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project? A. Project Risk Management B. Project Human Resource Management C. Project Scope Management27 D. Project Stakeholder Management
A: D
Q: 80 Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements? A. Stakeholder register B. Scope management plan C. Stakeholder management plan D. Project charter
A: A
Q: 81 Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products services or results outside of the organization? A. Plan Procurement Management B. Control Procurements C. Collect Requirements D. Plan Cost Management
A: A
Q: 82 Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions? A. Change control tools B. Expertjudgment C. Delphi technique28 D. Change log
A: A
Q: 83 The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as: A. Work packages. B. Accepted deliverables. C. The WBS dictionary. D. The scope baseline.
A: A
Q: 84 In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed? A. Project Cost Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Time Management D. Project Integration Management
A: D
Q: 85 The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project? A. Early B. Middle C. Late D. Completion29
A: A
Q: 86 Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities? A. Estimate Costs B. Control Costs C. Determine Budget D. Plan Cost Management
A: A
Q: 87 Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process? A. Pareto diagram B. Performance reporting C. SWOT analysis D. Expertjudgment
A: D
Q: 88 Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group? A. Planning B. Executing C. Closing D. Initiating
A: C30
Q: 89 When should quality planning be performed? A. While developing the project charter B. In parallel with the other planning processes C. As part of a detailed risk analysis D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
A: B
Q: 90 A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables: A. The best use of communication methods. B. An efficient and effective communication flow. C. Project costs to be reduced. D. The best use of communication technology.
A: B
Q: 91 The ways in which the roles and responsibilities reporting relationships and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the: A. Human resource management plan. B. Activity resource requirements. C. Personnel assessment tools D. Multi?criteria decision analysis.
A: A31
Q: 92 The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as: A. Control Schedule. B. Sequence Activities. C. Define Activities. D. Develop Schedule.
A: B
Q: 93 Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence direct or constrain a project are called: A. Enterprise environmental factors B. Work performance reports C. Organizational process assets D. Context diagrams
A: A
Q: 94 The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk: A. Responses B. Appetite C. Tolerance D. Attitude
A: A32
Q: 95 An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is: A. change requests B. enterprise environmental factors C. thestakeholder management plan D. the change log
A: A
Q: 96 Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives? A. Plan Risk Management B. Plan Risk Responses C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A: C
Q: 97 An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is: A. Source selection criteria. B. Market research. C. Astakeholder register. D. Arecords management system.
A: C33
Q: 98 Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process? A. Plan Risk Management B. Plan Risk Responses C. Identify Risks D. Control Risks
A: D
Q: 99 Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files deliverable acceptances and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process? A. Close Project or Phase B. Conduct Procurements C. Control Procurements D. Close Procurements
A: D
Q: 100 Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process? A. Plan Risk Responses B. Plan Risk Management C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
A: C
Q: 10134 A regression line is used to estimate: A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance. B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable. C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart. D. The central tendency dispersion and shape of a statistical distribution.
A: B
Q: 102 An input to Conduct Procurements is: A. Independent estimates. B. Selected sellers. C. Seller proposals. D. Resource calendars.
A: C
Q: 103 What are the Project Procurement Management processes? A. Conduct Procurements Control Procurements Integrate Procurements and Close Procurements B. Estimate Procurements Integrate Procurements Control Procurements and Validate Procurements C. Plan Procurement Management Conduct Procurements Control Procurements and Close Procurements D. Plan Procurement Management Perform Procurements Control Procurements and Validate Procurements
A: C35
Q: 104 Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan? A. Ground rules B. Expertjudgment C. Team?building activities D. Interpersonal skills
A: B
Q: 105 Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle? A. Only once at the beginning B. At the beginning and the end C. Once during each phase D. Repeatedly
A: D
Q: 106 The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by: A. Arisk urgency assessment. B. The scope baseline. C. Work performance information. D. Procurement audits.
A: C36
Q: 107 Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them? A. Requirements documentation B. Requirements traceability matrix C. Project management plan updates D. Project documents updates
A: B
Q: 108 Units of measure level of precision level of accuracy control thresholds and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the: A. Cost management plan. B. Work performance information. C. Quality management plan. D. Work breakdown structure.
A: A
Q: 109 Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired even though there may be other acceptable sequences? A. External B. Internal C. Mandatory D. Discretionary
A: D37
Q: 110 Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an: A. Decision tree diagram. B. Tornado diagram. C. Pareto diagram. D. lshikawa diagram.
A: B
Q: 111 The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that: A. Establish the scope objectives and course of action of a project B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project. C. Track review and regulate the progress and performance of a project. D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
A: C
Q: 112 Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram? A. Matrix diagram B. Affinity diagram C. Tree diagram D. Activity network diagram
A: D38
Q: 113 A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique? A. Listening B. Facilitation C. Meeting management D. Presentation
A: B
Q: 114 When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary? A. Before the Define Activities process B. During the Define Activities process C. Before the Sequence Activities process D. During the Sequence Activities process
A: D
Q: 115 Typical outcomes of a project include: A. Products services and improvements. B. Products programs and services. C. Improvements portfolios and services. D. Improvements processes and products.
A: A39
Q: 116 Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages? A. Work breakdown structure (WBS) B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) C. Project assignment chart D. Personnel assignment matrix
A: B
Q: 117 The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as: A. Continuous improvement. B. Predictive planning. C. Progressive elaboration. D. Quality assurance.
A: C
Q: 118 An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is: A. smooth/accommodate. B. force/direct C. collaborate/problem solve D. compromise/reconcile.
A: C40
Q: 119 A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a: A. Project B. Plan C. Program D. Portfolio
A: A
Q: 120 Status of deliverables implementation status for change requests and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of: A. Earned value management. B. Enterprise environmental factors. C. Organizational process assets. D. Work performance information.
A: D
Q: 121 Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance? A. Organizational process updates B. Quality metrics C. Change requests D. Quality control measurements
A: B
Q: 12241 A project manager managing a cross?cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor? A. Urgent information need B. Sensitivity of information C. Project environment D. Ease of use
A: C
Q: 123 The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is: A. 10. B. 12. C. 20. D. 24.
A: A
Q: 124 The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as: A. Plan Risk Management. B. Plan Risk Responses. C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
A: C
Q: 125 Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?42 A. Facilitated workshops B. Interviews C. Inspection D. Meetings
A: C
Q: 126 An input to Close Project or Phase is: A. Accepted deliverables B. Final products or services C. Document updates D. Work performance information.
A: A
Q: 127 An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is: A. Deliverables. B. Activity lists. C. Awork breakdown structure. D. Ascope statement.
A: A
Q: 128 External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called: A. Customers.43 B. Business partners. C. Sellers. D. Functional managers.
A: B
Q: 129 Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller more manageable portions? A. Develop Schedule B. Create VVBS C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Define Scope
A: B
Q: 130 In a project total float measures the: A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project. B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date. C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule. D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
A: B
Q: 131 Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group? A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management44 C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
A: D
Q: 132 Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project: A. Benefit B. Initiative C. Objective D. Process
A: C
Q: 133 Which cost is associated with nonconformance? A. Liabilities B. Inspections C. Training D. Equipment
A: A
Q: 134 Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle? A. Historical relationships B. Dependency determination C. Bottom?up estimating45 D. Rolling wave planning
A: D
Q: 135 An output of the Create WBS process is: A. Scope baseline. B. Change requests. C. Accepted deliverables. D. Variance analysis.
A: A
Q: 136 A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is: A. Expertjudgment. B. Performance reporting. C. Bidder conferences. D. Reserve analysis.
A: B
Q: 137 Configuration identification configuration status accounting and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process? A. Perform Quality Assurance B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Perform Integrated Change Control46
A: D
Q: 138 Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process? A. Acquisition B. Earned value management C. Vendor bid analysis D. Forecasting
A: C
Q: 139 Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates best practices and training to project teams? A. Supportive B. Directive C. Controlling D. lnstructive
A: A
Q: 140 Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity? A. Project document updates B. Activity list C. Activity attributes D. Project calendars47
A: C
Q: 141 An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is: A. The project management plan. B. The stakeholder register. C. Procurement documents. D. Stakeholder analysis.
A: C
Q: 142 Identify Risks is part ofwhich Process Group? A. Planning B. Executing C. Closing D. Initiating
A: A
Q: 143 Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict? A. Force/direct B. Withdraw/avoid C. Compromise/reconcile D. Collaborate/problem solve
A: C48
Q: 144 Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process? A. Decomposition B. Modeling techniques C. Resource optimization D. Meetings
A: D
Q: 145 A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as: A. Start?to?start (SS). B. Start?to?finish (SF). C. Finish?to?start (FS). D. Finish?to-finish (FF).
A: C
Q: 146 Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives? A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF) D. Time and Material (T&M)
A: B49
Q: 147 What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100 the actual cost (AC) is $50 and the earned value (EV) is $25? A. $50 B. $100 C. $125 D. $175
A: C
Q: 148 The business needs assumptions and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high?level requirements are documented in the: A. Project management plan. B. Project charter. C. Work breakdown structure. D. Stakeholder register.
A: B
Q: 149 Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process? A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management
A: C50
Q: 150 In the Plan Stakeholder Management process expertjudgment is used to: A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders. B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders. C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement. D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
A: D Topic 2 Volume B
