PME Cardiopulmo Flashcards

1
Q

A patient has an episode of syncope. The therapist attempts to rule out orthostatic hypotension as the cause of the fainting. What is the BEST test protocol to use?
A. Palpate the carotid arteries and take resting HR and BP in the supine position.
B. Take resting HR and BP in supine, then in sitting, then in standing after 1 minute.
C. Take resting HR and BP in supine after 5 minutes, then in semi-Fowler position.
D. Take resting HR and BP in sitting and after 3 and 5 minutes of cycle ergometry exercise.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which is typical early clinical manifestation of cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A. Increase in secretions of the endocrine system.
B. Frequent recurrent urinary tract infections.
C. Excessive appetite and weight loss.
D. Increased FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 sec) during pulmonary function testing

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A patient is admitted to a coronary care unit with a mild myocardial infarction (MI). after 2 days, the patient is referred to therapy for inpatient cardiac rehabilitation. During an initial exercise session on the unit, the patient reports chest pain, appears anxious and wants to go back to bed to rest. What is the therapist’s BEST initial course of action?
A. Assist the patient back to bed and contact the charge nurse on the floor.
B. Sit the patient and monitor vital signs carefully during the rest period.
C. Assign the PTA to assist the patient back to bed and monitor vital signs carefully
D. Terminate the exercise and contact the attending physician immediately

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient recovering from surgery for triple coronary artery bypass grafts is scheduled to begin a phase III cardiac rehabilitation program. During the resistance training portion of the circuit training program, the therapist instructs the patient to avoid the Valsalva maneuver. What are the expected adverse effects of the Valsalva maneuver?
A. Slowing of pulse and increased venous pressure are possible.
B. The decreased return of blood to the heart can lead to pitting edema.
C. Heart rate (HR) and blood pressure are likely to be elevated.
D. A cholinergic or vagal response can occur.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient experiences color changes in the skin during position changes of the foot. During elevation, pallor develops. When the limb is then positioned in the seated hanging position, hyperemia develops. What do these changes indicate?
A. Lymphedema
B. Arterial insufficiency
C. Deep vein thrombophlebitis
D. Chronic venous insufficiency

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 72-year-old patient is walking on a treadmill while vital signs and pulse oximetry are being monitored. It is noted that the patient’s arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) drops from 95% to 92%. What is the therapist’s BEST response to this change?
A. Place a 40% O2face mask on the patient for the remainder of the exercise session.
B. Not use supplemental O2
C. Place 2 L of O2 by nasal cannula on the patient for the remainder of the exercise session
D. Place a 100% O2 face mask on the patient for the remainder of the exercise session.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The PT is supervising a phase II cardiac rehabilitation class of 10 patients. One of the patients, who is being monitored with radiotelemetry, is having difficulty. Which change would be a criterion for terminating this exercise session?
A. An increase in systolic BP to 150 and diastolic BP to 90
B. 1-mm ST segment depression, upsloping.
C. A second-degree atrioventricular (AV) heart block
D. An increase in HR 20 beats/minute above resting

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A patient presents with severe claudication that is evident when walking distances greater than 200 feet. The patient also exhibits muscle fatigue and cramping of both calf muscles. Upon examination, the PT finds the skin is pale and shiny with some trophic nail changes. What is the BEST choice for this patient’s initial exercise program?
A. Avoid any exercise stress until the patient has been on calcium channel blockers for at least 2 weeks.
B. Begin with an interval walking program, exercising just to the point of pain.
C. Utilize non-weight-bearing exercises such as cycle ergometry.
D. Utilize a walking program of moderate intensity, instructing the patient that some pain is expected and to be tolerated.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A patient who is participating in a cardiac
rehabilitation program suddenly collapses and falls to the floor. The therapist checks for a response and
finds the patient unresponsive. After activating the emergency response system (phone 911), what is the
BEST action for the therapist to take?
A. Use the automated external defibrillator (AED) to shock the patient after 3 minutes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
B. Begin CPR and attach and use the AED as soon as possible
C. Give 100 chest compressions per minute.
D. Give two rescue breaths followed by 15 chest compressions, repeating the cycle for at least 2 minutes.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient with a significant history of coronary artery disease is currently taking atropine. Based on knowledge of this medication, what are the expected effects?
A. Increased HR and contractility at rest.
B. Increased myocardial ischemia.
C. Palpitations at rest and with exercise.
D. Orthostatic hypotension.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An elderly patient has been hospitalized and on complete bed rest for 10 days. The referral requests mobilization out of bed and ambulation. The patient complains of aching in the right calf. The therapist’s examination reveals calf tenderness with slight swelling and warmth. What is the BEST course of
action for the therapist?
A. Begin with ankle pump exercises in bed and then ambulate.
B. Postpone ambulation and report the findings immediately.
C. Ambulate the patient with support stockings on.
D. Use only AROM exercises with the patient sitting at the edge of the bed.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient with a recent history of rib fractures suddenly becomes short of breath during a bout of coughing. The patient looks panicked and complains
of sharp pain in the left chest. A quick screen shows a deviated trachea to the right, among other signs and symptoms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis based
on these symptoms?
A. Pulmonary emboli
B. Pneumothorax
C. Angina
D. Mucous plugging of an airway

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An apparently healthy individual has several risk factors for coronary artery disease. The client is interested in improving overall fitness and cardiac
health. After a graded exercise test, which was asymptomatic, the client is referred for an exercise class. Which is the BEST measure of exercise intensity in a newly tested and exercising individual?
A. Heart rate (HR)
B. Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)
C. MET level
D. Respiratory rate

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A young patient presents with primary lymphedema of the right lower extremity. What is the BEST choice for initial exercise?
A. Treadmill walking
B. Treadmill jogging
C. Exercising on a stair climbing machine
D. Step aerobics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A patient has a 10-year history of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affecting the right lower extremity.
During auscultation of the popliteal artery, what would the therapist expect to find?
A. A positive Homan’s sign
B. Intense pain and cramping
C. A bruit
D. 4+ pulses

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A patient presents with tachypnea, cor pulmonale, hypoxemia, rales on inspiration, and decreased diffusing capacity. What is the probable cause?
A. Restrictive lung dysfunction
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Neither of the above
D. A and B

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A 63-year-old man was diagnosed with sciatica. The MRI report is negative for lumbar disc involvement. During the evaluation the therapist cannot reproduce the symptoms of radiculopathy with any test. Lower
extremity strength is equal bilaterally and is not weak in any particular pattern. The patient informs the therapist that the pain is bilateral, located in the gastrocnemius area, and increases with prolonged ambulation. The pain stops soon after resting in a seated position. What is the most likely source of this
patient’s pain?
A. Impingement of the L5 dorsal root
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Compartment syndrome
D. Intermittent claudication

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following are tests for peripheral arterial involvement in a patient with complaints of calf musculature pain?
A. Percussion test
B. Claudication time
C. Homan’s sign
D. None of the above

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A therapist is treating a patient with cystic fibrosis who has just walked 75 feet before experiencing significant breathing difficulties. In an effort to assist the patient in regaining her normal breathing rate, the therapist gives a set of instructions. Which of the following set of instructions is appropriate?
A. “Take a slow deep breath through pursed lips and exhale slowly through your nose only”
B. “Take small breaths through your nose only and exhale quickly through pursed lips”
C. “Breath in through your nose and exhale slowly through pursed lips”
D. “Breath in through pursed lips and breath out slowly through pursed lips”

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A therapist is treating a patient who is participating in cardiac rehabilitation. Because the patient complains of chest pain, the therapist attempts to assess heart sounds with a stethoscope. Which of the following is true about the second sound during auscultation of the heart?
A. The closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves
B. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
C. The beginning of ventricular systole
D. B and C

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 53-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease reports to an outpatient cardiopulmonary rehabilitation facility. Pulmonary testing reveals that forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and vital capacity (VC) are within 60% of predicted values.
What is the appropriate exercise prescription?
A. Exercise at 75-80% of the target heart rate 3 times/week.
B. Begin exercise with level of 1.5 METs and increase slowly 3 times/week
C. Exercise at 75-80% of the target heart rate 7 times/week
D. Begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METs and increase slowly 7 times/week.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The use of compression stockings on the feet and ankles is contraindicated in which patient population?
A. Chronic venous disease
B. Chronic arterial disease
C. Recent total knee replacement
D. Burn patients

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A therapist is evaluating a wound in a patient with the following signs: painless ulceration of medial malleolus with edema. The patient has what type of
ulcer?
A. Decubitus ulcer
B. Trophic ulcer
C. Venous insufficiency ulcer
D. Arterial insufficiency ulcer

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A therapist is asked to evaluate a patient in the intensive care unit. The patient is comatose but breathing independently. During the assessment of range of motion in the right upper extremity the
therapist notices that the patient is breathing unusually. The involves deep gasping with no period of dyspnea. The therapist should notify the appropriate personnel that the patient is exhibiting
which of the following patterns?
A. Biot’s
B. Cheyne-Stokes
C. Kussmaul’s
D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

At a team meeting, the respiratory therapist informs the rest of the team that the patient, just admitted to
the subacute floor, experienced breathing difficulty in the acute care department. The respiratory therapist describes the breathing problem as a pause before exhaling after a full inspiration. Which of the following is the therapist describing?
A. Apnea
B. Orthopnea
C. Eupnea
D. Apneusis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A 50-year-old man has a persistent cough, purulent sputum, abnormal dilation of bronchi, more frequent
involvement of the left lower lobe than the right, hemoptysis, and reduced forced vital capacity. What is the most likely pulmonary dysfunction?
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Emphysema
C. Asthma
D. Bronchiectasis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A patient presents to a clinic with decreased tidal volume (TV). What is the most likely cause of this change in normal pulmonary function?
A. Chronic pulmonary disease
B. Restrictive lung dysfunction
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A 3-month-old infant has a heart condition known as tetralogy of Fallot. This condition presents with which
of the following signs?
A. Atrial septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, aorta abnormally located to the right, and right ventricular hypertrophy.
B. Atrial septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, aorta abnormally located to the left, and right ventricular hypertrophy
C. Ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, aorta abnormally located to the right, and left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, aorta abnormally located to the right, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is not a realist goal of a phase II cardiac rehabilitation program?
A. to increase exercise capacity and endurance
B. to teach the patient self monitoring
techniques
C. to assess cardiovascular responses to work
D. all of the above are realistic goals

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A therapist studies a normal resting
electrocardiogram for one cardiac cycle. What wave or change in shape of the electrocardiogram results from atrial depolarization?
A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. ST segment
D. T wave

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The therapist’s primary emphasis when treating a child with ______ is aggressive bronchial drainage, chest vibration and percussion?
A. cystic fibrosis
B. chronic asthma
C. respiratory muscle weakness
D. pneumothorax

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which illness is characterized by bronchial hyperirritability that is triggered by a number of stimuli, resulting in narrowing of the air passages?
A. asthma
B. pneumonia
C. bronchitis
D. pleurisy

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Therapeutic objectives of diaphragmatic breathing include all of the following EXCEPT
A. alleviate dyspnea
B. increase respiratory rate
C. increase tidal volume
D. reduce the incidence of postoperative
pulmonary complication

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pulse pressure is the difference between:
A. CO and SV
B. SBP and TPR
C. EDV and ESV
D. SBP and DBP

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A patient develops a pulmonary embolism postoperatively. The patient is hemodynamically stable and began anticoagulant therapy yesterday. All
of the following would be appropriate treatment techniques, EXCEPT:
A. deep and segmental breathing
B. extended expiration
C. postural drainage
D. percussion and vibration

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which treatment would be indicated for a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A. bronchodilators
B. smoking cessation
C. oxygen therapy to prevent cor pulmonale
D. all of these

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A therapist positions a patient in the Trendelenburg position in preparation for postural drainage. Which of the following is not a relative precaution for the use of the Trendelenburg position?
A. nausea
B. obesity
C. pulmonary edema
D. secretion retention

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Secretion removal techniques are often a necessary component of a pulmonary rehabilitation program. Secretion retention can occur for a multitude of
reasons, however, it is usually associated with a pulmonary disease. Which pulmonary disease is usually associated with a change in the composition of the secretions?
A. asthma
B. bronchiectasis
C. chronic bronchitis
D. cystic fibrosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Certain types of drugs such as nitroglycerin can be metabolized and destroyed by the liver. What route of
administration would best allow nitroglycerin to reach the systemic circulation?
A. oral
B. rectal
C. nasal
D. sublingual

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A therapist evaluates the breathing pattern of a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The therapist identifies cycles of increased rate and depth or respiration with apneic pauses between cycles. This type of breathing pattern is best described as
A. Biot’s
B. Cheyne-Stokes
C. eupnea
D. Kussmaul’s

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Therapists often elevate the foot of a treatment table to maximize the effectiveness of specific postural
drainage techniques. Standard postural drainage positioning of the _____ would not require elevation of the treatment table.
A. anterior segments of the upper lobes
B. lateral basal segments of the lower lobes
C. posterior basal segments of the lower lobes
D. right middle lobe

A
42
Q

A patient in a pulmonary rehabilitation program is positioned in supine with a pillow under their knees. The therapist claps between the clavicle and nipple on
each side. This technique would most effectively be utilized for postural drainage of the
A. anterior segments of the upper lobes
B. anterior basal segments of the lower lobes
C. superior segments of the lower lobes
D. posterior basal segments of the lower lobes

A
43
Q

A therapist examines an electrocardiogram of a
patient during exercise. What change in the electrocardiogram would be the most predictive of myocardial ischemia?
A. P wave changes
B. PR interval changes
C. QRS changes
D. ST segment changes

A
44
Q

A physician orders the nursing staff to administer digitalis to a patient diagnosed with congestive heart
failure. The physician’s primary goal using this medication is to
A. increase cardiac pumping ability
B. increase cellular metabolism
C. regulate fluid and electrolyte levels
D. regulate glucose metabolism

A
45
Q

Buerger’s disease is also called:
a. Varicose veins
b. Thrombophlebitis
c. Atherosclerosis obliterans
d. Raynaud’s syndrome
e. NOTA

A
46
Q

Edema that is present after birth
a. Lymphedema praecox
b. Lymphadenopathy
c. Lymphedema tarda
d. Milroy’s disease

A
47
Q

The automatic respiratory center is located in the:
a. Midbrain
b. Pons and Medulla oblongata
c. Medulla oblongata
d. Pons and Hypothalamus

A
48
Q

Vital capacity is the summation of what volumes?
I. Tidal volume
II. Expiratory reserve volume
III. Inspiratory reserve volume
IV. Residual volume
a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. All are correct
d. I, II, and III

A
49
Q

The term cardiac output refers to the amount of blood
pumped by the heart
a. During any 24-hour period
b. Relative to body mass
c. Relative to respiratory rate
d. During one minute

A
50
Q

What cell type secretes surfactant?
a. Plasma cell
b. Type I alveolar cell
c. Type II alveolar cell
d. Type III alveolar cell

A
51
Q

Commonly called the throat, which serves as a common passageway for food and air?
a. Pharynx
b. Larynx
c. Esophagus
d. Thyroid

A
52
Q

During phase 0 of the cardiac action potential, there is
rapid influx of this ion:
a. Sodium
b. oxygen
c. hydrogen
d. potassium
e. calcium

A
53
Q

period when all four valves are closed
a. isovolumic contraction
b. isovolumic relaxation
c. period of ejection
d. period of rapid filling

A
54
Q

The heart is innervated by the spinal segment from;
a. C3-T4
b. C5-T6
c. C3-T5
d. C5-T5

A
55
Q

all of the following are true about the CO except
a. amount of blood pumped by the ventricles per minute
b. difference of stroke volume and heart rate
c. resting cardiac output is 4 to 6 liters of blood
d. NOTA

A
56
Q

Normal spread of excitation of the heart is
a. SAN, Bundle of His, AVN, Purkinje Fibers, ventricles
b. SAN, AVN, Purkinje Fibers, Bundle of His, Ventricles
c. SAN, AVN, Bundle of His, Purkinje Fibers, Ventricles
d. AVN, Bundle of His, Atrium, Purkinje Fibers,
ventricles

A
57
Q

Virchow’s triad except
a. hypercoagability
b. intimal wall damage
c. venous stasis
d. hypocoagability

A
58
Q

Deep vein thrombosis
a. Positive for Homans Test
b. Clot formation and acute inflammation in the superficial veins
c. Medical treatment is anticoagulation therapy
d. AOTA
e. except b

A
59
Q

To achieve maximum reduction of lymphedema following a mastectomy in the upper extremity by means of massage, it is most important that
a. Local heat be applied before the massage
b. The upper arm be massaged before the forearm
c. The hand be massage before the forearm
d. The massage strokes occur in a centrifugal direction

A
60
Q

The contractile nature of this vessel, the ______ system operates without the assistance of valves. This vasculature has the ability to vasoconstrict or vasodilate.
a. Arterial System
b. Venous System
c. Lymphatic System
d. AOTA

A
61
Q

Type of angina that occurs at unpredictable levels of physical or emotional stress and does not respond to rest or nitroglycerine:
a. nocturnal angina
b. prinzmetal angina
c. preinfarction angina
d. stable angina

A
62
Q

When you exhale, the diaphragm:
a. Relaxes and moves inferiorly
b. Relaxes and moves superiorly
c. Contracts and moves superiorly
d. Contracts and moves inferiorly

A
63
Q

Inadequate oxygen delivery to body tissues?
a. Dyspnea c. Hypoxia
b. Hypercapnia d. Hypoxemia

A
64
Q

You are examining a patient diagnosed with COPD who suddenly develops dizziness, numbness, & syncope. What is the likely cause of this?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Panic attack
d. Orthostatic hypotension

A
65
Q

A pulmonary patient state he has a daily cough & increased sputum over the past few years. You would suspect this patient to have:
a. Acute bronchitis
b. Pulmonary emphysema
c. Chronic bronchitis
d. Bronchial asthma

A
66
Q

Which of the clinical manifestations is NOT typical of early stage of cystic fibrosis?
a. Increased pulmonary secretions with airway obstruction
b. Frequent recurrent respiratory infections
c. Salty skin and sweat
d. Excessive appetite and weight gain

A
67
Q

Produces scanty mucoid sputum:
a. Bronchiectasis
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. Pulmonary edema

A
68
Q

This represents the stage of repolarization of ventricles at which time the ventricular muscle fibers begin to relax.
a. P wave
b. ST segment
c. T wave
d. QRS complex
e. PR segment

A
69
Q

chest pain is accompanied by a sign called:
a. murphy’s sign
b. Levine sign
c. French flag sign
d. NOTA

A
70
Q

A 43-year-old female patient has been lying down on the hospital bed for more than 4 months. Her normal, quiet expiration is achieved by contraction of which of the following structures?
a. Elastic tissue in the lungs and thoracic wall
b. Serratus posterior superior
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Serratus anterior
e. Diaphragm

A
71
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of
lung cancer?
a. Large cell
b. Oat cell
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Squamous cell

A
72
Q

You are designing an exercise program for a patient rehabilitating from cardiac surgery. During the treatment session the therapist monitors the patient’s oxygen saturation rate. Which of the
following would be MOST representative of a normal oxygen saturation rate?
a. 82%
b. 87%
c. 92%
d. 97%

A
73
Q

FEV1/FVC < 70%; FEV1 <30% predicted or FEV1 <50% predicted plus chronic respiratory failure.
a. Mild COPD
b. Very severe COPD
c. Moderate COPD
d. Severe COPD
e. Very very severe COPD

A
74
Q

A therapist elects to utilize the Six-Minute Walk test as a means of quantifying endurance for a patient rehabilitating from a lengthy illness. Which variable
would be the MOST appropriate to measure when determining the patient’s endurance level with this objective test?
a. Perceived exertion
b. Heart rate response
c. Elapsed time
d. Distance walked

A
75
Q

Choose the correct match
I. Cardiac Output
II. Stroke Volume
III. Preload
IV. Ejection Fraction
A. Volume of blood ejected with each
myocardial contraction
B. Ratio of the volume of the blood ejected
by the left ventricle per contraction.
C. Amount of blood that leaves the heart
per minute
D. Amount of blood in the ventricle at the
end of the diastole

a. IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
b. IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
c. IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
d. IC, IIA, IIID, IVB

A
76
Q

All of the following are reversible risk factors for Coronary Artery Disease, EXCEPT:
a. Gender
b. Past history of CAD
c. Age
d. AOTA

A
77
Q

Type of pulmonary disease that is most commonly caused by neuromuscular and orthopedic disorders such as SCI and scoliosis.
a. COPD
b. Restrictive pulmonary disease
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA

A
78
Q

A myocardical infarction patient is prescribed the wenger early mobilization program. Step 1 includes which of the following?
a. Minimal resistance exercises
b. Active assistive ROM; chair sitting
c. Legs dangling at side of the bed
d. Passive ROM; self-feeding; active ankle pumps

A
79
Q

Using the Functional Classes of patients with Heart disease, which class has a maximum of 3 METS as permissible workload?
a. Class IV
b. Class II
c. Class I
d. Class III

A
80
Q

Steroids used for Chronic Pulmonary disease has which of the following actions?
a. Bronchodilation
b. Prevents inflammatory response
c. Reduces inflammatory response
d. Blocks allergic reaction

A
81
Q

This improves the lung volume and reduces the work of breathing. This is ____________.
a. Incentive spirometry
b. Mini-tracheostomy
c. Intermittent positive pressure breathing
d. Continuous positive airways pressure

A
82
Q

Functional class II of patients with Heart disease has a maximum workload of _________.
a. 4.5 METS
b. 1.5 METS
c. 3.0 METS
d. 6.5 METS

A
83
Q

Contraindications to cardiac rehabilitation exercises may include all of the following. Which is NOT an
ABSOLUTE contraindication?
a. Uncompensated heart failure
b. Uncontrolled diabetes
c. Unstable angina
d. Productive cough

A
84
Q

The drugs used as anti-TB include which one of the following?
a. Clindamycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Streptomycin
d. Azithromycin

A
85
Q

Patient A (low risk, no complications), has resting heart rate = 65 beats per minute (BPM). During an exercise test, a maximum heart rate of 160 bpm is
achieved. With 50-70% of heart rate reserve (HRR) being set as the intensity of training, the training heart rate (bpm) is?
a. 113-121
b. 120-155
c. 155-220
d. 12-131

A
86
Q

Slight limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue,
palpitation and dyspnea. This is the New York association stage of heart failure:
a. Class IV (Severe)
b. Class II (mild)
c. Class III (moderate)
d. Class I (mild)

A
87
Q

Which of the following is usually NOT done initially for the management of post-mastectomy lymphedema of
the upper extremity?
a. Surgical debulking
b. Exercise
c. Manual lymph drainage/massage
d. Compression stockings

A
88
Q

Your COPD patient taking SALBUTAMOL, a shortacting beta 2 agonist for bronchodilation, may present
with symptoms which are adverse effects of the drug. The symptom which is LEAST likely to occur is _______________.
a. Tremors
b. Palpitations
c. Nervousness
d. Bradycardia

A
89
Q

If the stroke volume is 70 ml and the heart rate is 85 beats per minute, the cardiac output is approximately
__________ liters per minute.
a. 12
b. 6
c. 3
d. 24

A
90
Q

A 42-year-old female patient complains of pain on deep breaths, cough which is dry, fever and a sudden sharp feeling over the tip of the shoulder. The internist
gives her antibiotics and analgesics for the pain. She is told to rest for 1-2 weeks. However, during the recovery stage, she is referred for therapy. This is a case of ________.
a. Bronchiectasis
b. Pleuritis/pleurisy
c. Asthma
d. COPD

A
91
Q

From which value upwards to 100%, would be considered within normal limits for oxygen saturation?
a. 85%
b. 95%
c. 98%
d. 90%

A
92
Q

Improving humidification to the airways of the lung help in mucus clearance. This is called ______.
a. Incentive spirometry
b. Mini-tracheostomy
c. CPAP
d. Nebulization

A
93
Q

The patient you are treating has active pulmonary tuberculosis. To avoid droplet infection, during gait training exercises, how do you position yourself?
a. Diagonal to the patient
b. Behind the patient
c. In front of the patient
d. Beside the patient

A
94
Q

On Xray, a fluid level is noted on the right lung. This is a case of ______________.
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. COPD
c. Asthma
d. Pleural effusion

A
95
Q

A feedback system used to encourage patients to take a deep breath and produce sustained maximal inspiration in order to open up atelectatic areas of the
lung. This is called ___________.
a. Mini-tracheostomy
b. Nebulization
c. Incentive spirometry
d. CPAP or IPPB

A
96
Q

A feedback system used to encourage patients to take a deep breath and produce sustained maximal inspiration in order to open up atelectatic areas of the
lung. This is called ___________.
a. Mini-tracheostomy
b. Nebulization
c. Incentive spirometry
d. CPAP or IPPB

A
97
Q

The airway branch where alveoli first appear is the ___________.
a. Respiratory bronchiole
b. Trachea
c. Terminal bronchi
d. Main bronchi

A
98
Q

What is the maximal volume inspired after normal inspiration?
a. Functional residual capacity
b. Vital capacity
c. Tidal volume
d. Inspiratory reserve volume

A
99
Q

Which of these large vessels arise from the arch of the aorta?
I. Right carotid vein
II. Brachiocephalic trunk
III. Left common carotid artery
IV. Left subclavian artery
V. Right subclavian artery

a. III and IV only
b. II, III and IV
c. II, III and V
d. I, II and III

A
100
Q

A therapist discusses risk factors associated with coronary disease to a patient in a cardiac rehabilitation program. Which risk factor would be the
most relevant for the patient?
a. Weight
b. Elevated serum cholesterol
c. Age
d. Gender
e. Family history

A
101
Q

The “dub” in Korotkoff’s heart sound is:
a. The mitral and tricuspid valves closing at diastole
b. Associated with atrial contraction
c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing
d. Indicative of right ventricular heart failure
e. Associated with ventricular filling

A