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OPS LIMITS & MQF > PILOT MQF 2014 > Flashcards

PILOT MQF 2014 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Items marked with an (*) in the COCKPIT PREPARATION CHECKLIST indicate items to be accomplished on a
A

B. Battery start

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2
Q
  1. Which emergency equipment is located in the in floor step (step stowage)?
A

C. Crash Axe, PBE, Fire Extinguisher

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3
Q
  1. For the first flight of the day, if feeder tank quantity is below 160 lbs, wait ________ seconds after turning on the ELPMPs before starting engine to allow for the automatic transfer system to operate.
A

D. 40

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4
Q
  1. During the Shutdown Checklist, to assure that the ECS bleed valves are closed before engine shutdown, wait at least ________ seconds after selecting the ECS BLEED LH/RH buttons to OFF before retarding the corresponding CONDITION lever to FUEL OFF.
A

A. 5

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5
Q
  1. How many seated passengers can fit in configuration 1?
A

B. 27

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6
Q
  1. How many seated passengers can fit in configuration 3?
A

C. 18

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7
Q
  1. What is the maximum operating altitude?
A

B. FL 310

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8
Q
  1. What is the maximum takeoff weight?
A

C. 30,843 lbs

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9
Q
  1. What is the maximum landing weight?
A

A. 29,167 lbs

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10
Q
  1. What is the maximum altitude for takeoff and landing?
A

C. 12,000 ft

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11
Q
  1. What is the maximum slope for takeoff and landing?
A

C. +/- 2.0%

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12
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed for Flaps 12?
A

C. 200 KIAS

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13
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable ITT during engine start?
A

C. 950

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14
Q
  1. With a tailwind condition above 25 kts, what restrictions apply?
A

D. Avoid the range from 57.7% to 71.2% Np

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15
Q
  1. At airspeeds greater than 135 KIAS, condition lever movement from MIN to MAX in less than ________ seconds is prohibited
A

B. 2

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16
Q
  1. Selection of the power levers below flight idle in flight is prohibited.
A

A. True

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17
Q
  1. At what stage during engine start should the ECU FAIL light extinguish?
A

B. 25% Nh

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18
Q
  1. What is the maximum fuel capacity?
A

A. 7531 lbs

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19
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable fuel imbalance?
A

C. 210 lbs

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20
Q
  1. During cockpit preparation, with only the batteries selected ON, the indication in the GEN-LH and GEN-RH push-buttons should be:
A

C. FAIL

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21
Q
  1. During engine start, the ignition cycle stops and the ignition light should go out at:
A

D. 45% NH

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22
Q
  1. Cycling the APU master button during roll down:
A

D. Will result in high EGT indication and torching from the tailpipe

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23
Q
  1. Takeoff is prohibited when:
A

A. The BRK TEMP HIGH or the BRK MAINT CAS message is displayed, The brake temp monitoring system is inop, unless brakes are cooled enough to touch & The brake trend vectors are in the amber range

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24
Q
  1. Types of approved oils for use in PW100 engines are:
A

A. 5 centistoke oils (conforming to Specification PWA 521, Type II) 4 centistoke oils & Third generation oils

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25
Q
  1. Mixing types of oil when servicing the engine oil is allowed.
A

B. False

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26
Q
  1. If PFD or ATT failures exist the Autopilot Minimum use Height will be raised to ________ ft AGL.
A

D. 500

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27
Q
  1. Which items must be serviceable, activated, and installed to perform operations on unpaved runways.
A

A. Ground Spoiler, Gravel Protection Kit & High Flotation Tires

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28
Q
  1. With the nose landing gear gravel protection kit installed, operation on paved runways covered with slush, wet snow, and/or dry snow is prohibited.
A

A. True

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29
Q
  1. The maximum depth of runway precipitant for takeoff on paved runways without the nose landing gear gravel protection shield being installed is ________ inches for slush or wet snow and ________ inches for dry snow.
A

B. 0.6 / 2.4

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30
Q
  1. Which equipment list must be installed and operating in the Do-328 in order to meet aircraft requirements for Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum accuracy?
A

B. 1 Autopilot, 1 Transponder, 2 Air Data Computers, 1 Fault Warning Computer, 1 Flaps Control Unit

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31
Q
  1. On a Normal Takeoff profile, rotate to maintain ________ KIAS but not more than 15 degrees pitch until reaching acceleration altitude.
A

C. V2 +15

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32
Q
  1. What is the length of the C-146A?
A

B. 69 ft 10 in.

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33
Q
  1. What is the height of the C-146A?
A

A. 23 ft 9 in.

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34
Q
  1. What is the wingspan of the C-146A?
A

C. 68 ft 10 in.

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35
Q
  1. In addition to the auto-pilot disconnect button on the control wheel, the auto-pilot can also be manually disengaged by:
A

A. Pushing the AP or YD button on the flight guidance controller, Pushing the go-around buttons on the Power Levers, Activating normal or STBY elevator trim switches & Manual operation of the flight controls

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36
Q
  1. When HDG mode is selected with the autopilot engaged, the aircraft will:
A

D. Turn to the selected heading on the coupled PFD

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37
Q
  1. When using the BC button to fly a back course approach, the localizer front course must be tuned for proper back course guidance:
A

A. True

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38
Q
  1. Selecting the VS mode during a climb will:
A

C. Provide the appropriate pitch for the current rate of climb

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39
Q
  1. The Dual Approach track mode is automatically activated when the following conditions are met:
A

A. Both navigation receivers tuned to the same frequency and receiving valid signals, Both PFD’s operating from different Symbol Generators (SGs) & Both PFD’s have selected the same approach NAV source

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40
Q
  1. Captured AFCS modes are displayed on the:
A

A. PFD in green

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41
Q
  1. The function of the BANK selector pushbutton on the guidance panel controller is to:
A

C. Limit the bank angle

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42
Q
  1. With the autopilot engaged, pressing the ALT pushbutton in a FLCH climb will:
A

A. Command the system to level off and hold the current altitude

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43
Q
  1. The function of the FMT pushbutton on the DCP is to change the:
A

C. PFD HSI format

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44
Q
  1. To calculate position, the FMS uses information from the:
A

C. VOR/DME, DME/DME, and GPS

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45
Q
  1. The FMS is an integral part of:
A

C. IAC 1

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46
Q
  1. On a block 10, activation of the mic/mask pushbutton will:
A

B. Provide overhead speaker audio regardless of speaker pushbutton

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47
Q
  1. The engine fire test with the switch in the FIRE SQUIB gives the following indications:
A

C. MWL, fire bell, RWP LH/RH ENG FIRE, red LH/RH ENG FIRE button light, and two SQUIB lights

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48
Q
  1. A malfunction in the fire loop is indicated by:
A

B. No illumination of the LOOP FAIL light when the FAIL AGN test is performed & Illumination of the LOOP FAIL light without initiating a test

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49
Q
  1. One break in the engine fire sensing loop:
A

D. Will not affect the ability to detect a fire

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50
Q
  1. Discharging the fire bottle is accomplished:
A

A. By pushing the armed (green) BTL 1/2 SQUIB push-button

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51
Q
  1. The APU fire extinguishing system:
A

D. Has a single fire bottle mounted in the tail of the aircraft

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52
Q
  1. Pushing a guarded Engine Fire button:
A

A. The fuel Shut-Off-Valve closes, fuel motive flow valve closes, bleed air SOV closes, auxiliary feather pump activates to feather prop, auto-ignition switches off, DC generator switches off

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53
Q
  1. The two DC Main Busses (DC MAIN BUS 1 and DC MAIN BUS 2) are supplied, in normal operation, by
A

B. Engine Mounted S/Gs

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54
Q
  1. Which answer best describes the aircraft AC power sources?
A

B. 2 AC alternators supply 115 VAC and 2 inverters provide 115/26 VAC at 400 Hz

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55
Q
  1. The starter/generators perform two functions:
A

A. Supplying motive power for engine starts & Providing primary source of 28 VDC for the electrical load distribution system

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56
Q
  1. Which component supplies single-phase AC power?
A

A. Inverters

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57
Q
  1. Which component supplies three-phase unregulated AC power?
A

B. Alternators

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58
Q
  1. Three-phase AC BUS 1 and 2 power is used for:
A

B. Main Hydraulic Pump, Ice Det, Prop De-ice, Windshield Heat, Elev/Rud Horn De-ice

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59
Q
  1. An amber caution message prefaces an abnormal procedure and requires:
A

C. immediate attention, but not immediate action

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60
Q
  1. What is the function of the TRU?
A

B. To convert AC power to DC power

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61
Q
  1. With at least one functioning alternator, what is done to activate the emergency DC power system?
A

C. The TRU must be selected to ALT 1 or 2

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62
Q
  1. The batteries are charged by:
A

A. The engine-mounted starter/generators & The APU starter/generator

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63
Q
  1. With regards to the DC system, if only battery power remains:
A

C. Only the DC ESS, DC BUS 1, and DC BUS 2 will be supplied

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64
Q
  1. Parallel operation of the alternators is:
A

A. Not possible

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65
Q
  1. Whenever external power is supplying the electrical system, the:
A

B. DC TIE is automatically closed

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66
Q
  1. When one inverter fails:
A

B. A relay automatically switches allowing the operating inverter to power all inverter busses

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67
Q
  1. What is the power source when the cargo lighting system is set to TIMER?
A

D. DC Hot Bus 1

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68
Q
  1. In the event of a double generator failure, the ESS bus is powered by the:
A

B. Batteries or TRU

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69
Q
  1. In the event of an alternator failure, to ensure continued operation of both AC busses:
A

C. The AC BUS TIE must be closed

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70
Q
  1. The aircraft’s primary pitch controls are:
A

B. Cable operated elevators

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71
Q
  1. If a flap system fault occurs:
A

C. Flaps will stay in the position where the asymmetry occurred

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72
Q
  1. The rudder spring tab no longer augments rudder control once ________ is exceeded:
A

B. 160 KIAS

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73
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the rudder spring tab?
A

C. To provide aerodynamic assistance to flight crew yaw commands up to 160 KIAS

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74
Q
  1. When the aileron disconnect unit is disconnected:
A

C. It can be reset on the ground only

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75
Q
  1. The primary flight controls connected by a disconnect unit are:
A

B. Elevator and aileron

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76
Q
  1. The hydraulically operated flight controls are:
A

A. The flaps and roll spoilers

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77
Q
  1. The purpose of the fast/slow trim mode of the elevator is:
A

B. To trim at a high rate below 200 KIAS and at a slow rate above 200 KIAS

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78
Q
  1. The caution PITCH TRIM ASYM indicates:
A

B. An asymmetry between the left and right elevator trim tabs of more than two degrees

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79
Q
  1. The gust lock is designed to protect:
A

A. The elevators and ailerons

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80
Q
  1. When the ailerons are trimmed:
A

D. Only the left aileron trim tab is actuated

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81
Q
  1. An aileron disconnect unit is installed to:
A

D. Regain roll-control in case of jammed aileron situations

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82
Q
  1. Roll spoilers are operated by:
A

A. The hydraulic system

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83
Q
  1. Flaps are:
A

D. Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated

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84
Q
  1. Activation of the stick shaker will:
A

C. Disengage the autopilot

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85
Q
  1. After touchdown, the ground spoilers will deploy:
A

A. With weight-on-wheels, CLs above 85% HMU, and PLs below FI

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86
Q
  1. Fuel is fed to the engines from which tanks?
A

D. Feeder tanks

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87
Q
  1. In the fuel feed tanks, the following pumps are installed:
A

D. Electrical boost pumps and jet pumps

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88
Q
  1. The jet pumps are driven by:
A

A. Motive flow from the engine drive pump

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89
Q
  1. With the ELPMP AUTO button in the normal mode (dark):
A

A. The Electrical Booster Pump activates if the Jet Booster Pump fails

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90
Q
  1. When not cross-feeding, the APU draws fuel from:
A

B. The RH wing tank group

91
Q
  1. The fuel heater uses ________ to heat the fuel:
A

A. Engine oil

92
Q
  1. If the left or right electrical booster pump is inoperative, unusable fuel in the affected feeder tank is ________ .
A

B. 30 lbs

93
Q
  1. Fuel transfer between the inner and outer tanks to the feeder tank is accomplished by:
A

B. Jet transfer pumps

94
Q
  1. The purpose of the ELPMP in the feeder tank is:
A

A. To operate as a backup to the jet pump, To help in providing fuel to the engine during an engine start & To provide additional fuel pressure during cross-feed operation

95
Q
  1. The hydraulic system consists of:
A

C. Main, standby, auxiliary, and indicating systems

96
Q
  1. The main hydraulic system accumulators are the ________ accumulator and the ________ accumulator
A

D. Main System, Normal Brake

97
Q
  1. The main system supplies hydraulic pressure to the following consumers:
A

D. Landing gear, main brakes, E/P brake, nose wheel steering, trailing edge flaps, roll spoilers, and ground spoilers

98
Q
  1. The hydraulic standby pump in the auto mode will switch on:
A

A. If system pressure drops below 1958 psi

99
Q
  1. The priority valve is an electrically controlled pressure operative valve. Its purpose is:
A

C. To isolate all hydraulic consumers except the roll spoilers if the hydraulic fluid in the main reservoir drops to a critical level

100
Q
  1. The auxiliary hydraulic system pressure is generated by:
A

C. The hand pump located at the aft end of the center pedestal

101
Q
  1. In order to extend the gear during an abnormal gear extension, the manual selector valve must be:
A

C. In the landing gear emergency extension position

102
Q
  1. The landing gear are locked in the up position ________ and unlocked ________ :
A

A. Mechanically, Hydraulically

103
Q
  1. Steering commands for the rudder pedals to the NWS are:
A

A. Disabled by pressing the pushbutton on the NWS tiller

104
Q
  1. A gear unsafe, high-low chime is given when the gear is not down and locked and:
A

B. Radio altitude is below 500 ft

105
Q
  1. The landing gear not down warning:
A

D. Cannot be canceled

106
Q
  1. Touchdown protection in the brake system is used:
A

B. To prevent landing with brakes applied

107
Q
  1. The emergency brake system uses supply pressure from:
A

A. The main hydraulic system and/or the E/P brake accumulator

108
Q
  1. During operation of the hand pump assembly:
A

A. It takes about 20 strokes to lower the landing gear & It is prohibited to close the hand pump cover after emergency gear extension

109
Q
  1. Where is data from ADC 1 normally presented?
A

A. PFD 1

110
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the clearance delivery head?
A

C. It provides a backup to the RMUs

111
Q
  1. Bleed supply to the ECS is provided by:
A

Engine HP or LP connections, depending on power settings

112
Q
  1. Bleed supply to the de-icing system is provided by:
A

D. Engine HP connections only

113
Q
  1. A pack overheat will:
A

A. Shut off the bleed air supply to the associated ECS pack

114
Q
  1. Which systems are supplied by bleed air?
A

A. Pneumatic ice protection system, Air conditioning system

115
Q
  1. A bleed air leak is indicated on:
A

B. The ECS system page & The EICAS CAS field

116
Q
  1. The ECS packs are located in:
A

C. The upper fuselage fairing

117
Q
  1. The function of the recirculation fans is to:
A

D. Re-circulate the exhaust cabin air and avoid excessive bleed air use

118
Q
  1. In the HIGH mode, the ECS packs:
A

B. Provide maximum cooling and heating performance

119
Q
  1. ECS bleed air is automatically shut off in which condition?
A

A. Over-pressure & Over-temperature

120
Q
  1. Bleed air supply from one engine is sufficient for:
A

A. Both ECS packs, the pneumatic ice protection system, and all other subsystems

121
Q
  1. Bleed air for the air conditioning is tapped from either the high (P3) or low (P2.5) stage port:
A

B. Depending on engine power settings

122
Q
  1. Failure of the automatic pressurization controller will require:
A

B. Selection of the manual mode

123
Q
  1. Pressurization control in the auto mode utilizes:
A

B. The aft, electro-pneumatic outflow valve

124
Q
  1. Pressurization control in the manual mode utilizes:
A

A. The forward, pneumatic outflow valve

125
Q
  1. The CPCS maximum differential pressure in flight is:
A

B. 6.90 psi

126
Q
  1. The altitude window on the CPCS panel should be set to:
A

C. The destination field elevation

127
Q
  1. The oxygen bottle pressure can be checked:
A

A. At the oxygen bottle, on the pressure gauge

128
Q
  1. The purpose of the PAX SUPPLY guarded pushbutton on the overhead panel is:
A

C. To switch off the passenger oxygen system when desired

129
Q
  1. The crew oxygen masks are equipped with:
A

D. Manual selector with Normal, 100%, and Emergency settings

130
Q
  1. If the auto mode of the oxygen system malfunctions during a cabin depressurization:
A

A. Set the drop-out switch to the MAN position

131
Q
  1. Inflatable boots for de-icing are installed on:
A

A. Wings, vertical/horizontal stabilizers, and engine intakes

132
Q
  1. Airfoil de-icing modes are controlled by:
A

A. Two controllers (one for the slow and fast modes and one for the SINGLE mode)

133
Q
  1. When boot de-icing is not activated:
A

B. Vacuum pressure is applied to keep a deflated condition

134
Q
  1. Bleed air for de-icing is:
A

A. HP air

135
Q
  1. Horn anti-icing is used for:
A

A. Rudder and elevator horns and is electrically powered

136
Q
  1. Static ports are:
A

A. Not heated

137
Q
  1. Selection of the engine intake anti-ice pushbutton:
A

A. Allows engine bleed air to inflate the three pneumatic anti-ice boots mounted on the engine intake section

138
Q
  1. Elevator horns are heated by:
A

D. 115 VAC electrical power

139
Q
  1. The pitot probes, angle of attack sensors, and air temperature probes are electrically heated from the:
A

A. DC electrical system

140
Q
  1. Airfoil de-icing is accomplished through:
A

C. Rubber boots inflated by bleed air

141
Q
  1. The APU will automatically shut down in case of:
A

C. High EGT

142
Q
  1. The emergency lights will illuminate:
A

A. When NON ESS BUS 1 & 2 are no longer supplied with voltage (a complete failure of the DC supply or switch off)

143
Q
  1. APU availability for the generator load is indicated by:
A

B. READY TO LOAD on the APU system page

144
Q
  1. Pushing the APU master button:
A

A. Provides DC electrical power to the APU ECU, Opens the APU fuel SOV

145
Q
  1. All cabin doors are:
A

C. Designated as emergency exits

146
Q
  1. How many exit doors can be opened from the inside of the aircraft during an emergency?
A

C. Six

147
Q
  1. Which of the following is both an electrical and mechanical method of feathering the propeller?
A

D. Condition Levers

148
Q
  1. The starter/generators obtain their drive from which component?
A

D. The accessory gearbox

149
Q
  1. Which best describes the propeller type installed on the C-146A?
A

A. Dual acting, constant speed, hydraulically actuated with feather and reverse capabilities

150
Q
  1. What range of propeller control is directly controlled by the power levers?
A

C. Beta mode

151
Q
  1. When will the autofeather system be armed?
A

B. Power levers in max position, engines above HI torque threshold, AUTOFEATHER switch/light pressed in

152
Q
  1. If all oil pressure is lost, what happens to the propeller?
A

D. A pitch lock mechanism maintains present blade angle

153
Q
  1. As part of the propeller system, the Auxiliary Pressure Pump:
A

A. Provides an alternative supply of high pressure oil for feathering should the high pressure pump fail

154
Q
  1. Feathering the propeller is achieved by the following:
A

A. Mechanically through the CL’s and the linkage to the PCU, Electrically via the CL microswitch that actuates the feather solenoid valve, Electrically via the manual feather button

155
Q
  1. The engine fuel flow is controlled by the power levers and condition levers through two systems:
A

C. HMU and the engine electronic control systems (ECU)

156
Q
  1. What conditions must be satisfied for activation of the auto ignition circuits?
A

A. Landing gear retracted, ENG FIRE not pushed, propeller not feathered, condition lever MIN, Nh below 60%

157
Q
  1. Which igniters are used during a start with cold/cross selected?
A

C. Both igniters are used

158
Q
  1. Activation of the ignition is visible on:
A

A. Primary EICAS page, RMU engine page, IGN button

159
Q
  1. Where are engine indications displayed?
A

B. EICAS, MFD engine system page, and RMU engine page

160
Q
  1. How is engine oil cooled?
A

C. Oil-to-fuel heater and air oil cooler

161
Q
  1. During normal operations, ________ provides power to the 115 VAC outlets. ________ provides power to Mission Bus #1A and Mission Bus #1B:
A

C. Main Bus 1, Main Bus 2

162
Q
  1. How many programmable system presets containing user-specified frequencies and operating parameters can be set in the PRC-117G?
A

B. Up to 99

163
Q
  1. The cipher switch on the PRC-117G has the following positions:
A

A. OFF, CT, PT, LD, Z

164
Q
  1. If intermittent receive audio is observed:
A

C. Check squelch level

165
Q
  1. If “*CT NOT AVAILABLE* NO KEYS LOADED” is observed:
A

D. Put radio in PT or program the required crypto key

166
Q
  1. HPW utilizes:
A

A. PRC #1 or #2

167
Q
  1. The Iridium phone display status icon for Blue Tick is a ________ :
A

D. Triangle

168
Q
  1. Sending an outgoing short code (brevity code) from the Iridium requires the following initial four steps:
A

A. Turn on, “menu” button, scroll to “Enter BT Mode,” press “OK” button

169
Q
  1. The Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) tiller is only available for ________ and is inactive when the condition levers are set above ________ .
A

A. Taxi, Min (Mod 20) or High Taxi (Mod 10)

170
Q
  1. When pressed down and rotated, the NWS Tiller turns the nose wheel up to ________ degrees in the desired direction.
A

B. 60

171
Q
  1. Provided the NWS system is enabled, rudder pedals provide a maximum nose wheel deflection of degrees.
A

C. 10

172
Q
  1. When the aircraft is taxiing (both condition levers are set between MIN and HIGH TAXI) the pilot can disable the connection from the rudder pedals to the NWS system by holding the pedal disconnect push button located on the ________ .
A

D. NWS Tiller

173
Q
  1. Regardless of the IFR departure method selected, PICs will climb at a minimum of 200 ft/NM unless a higher gradient is published for the departure runway.
A

A. True

174
Q
  1. Aircrew require at least ________ continuous hours of restful activities (including an opportunity for at least ________ hours of uninterrupted sleep) during the ________ hours immediately prior to the FDP.
A

D. 10, 8, 12

175
Q
  1. The maximum indicated airspeed permitted when operating an aircraft within 4 NM and 2,500ft of the primary airport in Class C or Class D airspace is:
A

B. 200 KIAS

176
Q
  1. Position lights are required to be illuminated at all times between:
A

A. official sunset and sunrise

177
Q
  1. Practice instrument approaches under VFR conditions are authorized for AFSOC aircraft and terminal radar services shall be used when available.
A

A. True

178
Q
  1. An alternate is required when the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) at the ETA (±1 hour) for the first point of intended landing (or each point of intended landing on a stopover flight plan) does not permit a VFR descent from the MIA and is less than:
A

A. 1000’, 2 SM, if two or more suitable independent precision approaches are available & 2000’, 3SM

179
Q
  1. The PIC’s signature, or act of filing by a means that precludes an actual signature (phone, radio, computer, etc.), indicates:
A

A. Current weather and NOTAMs were obtained , Foreign clearance briefings have met the minimum requirements from the FCG & Flight complies with scheduling and coordination procedures for special use airspace

180
Q
  1. For AFSOC crews, filing requirements will be IAW AFI 11-202, Vol. 3, except:
A

D. File two alternates if the forecast visibility, prevailing or intermittent, is less than published for an available approach, or the forecast surface winds, prevailing or intermittent, exceed limit corrected for RCR

181
Q
  1. USAF pilots must ensure their pre-mission planning includes review of IFR departure restrictions to ensure they do not arrive at, or divert to, a location they are unable to legally depart.
A

A. True

182
Q
  1. A slash (/) in the name of an instrument approach indicates:
A

B. More than one type of equipment may be required to execute the final approach

183
Q
  1. GPS “overlay” approaches are authorized by the FAA in the NAS.
A

B. False

184
Q
  1. The PIC may authorize tobacco use on USAF aircraft.
A

B. False

185
Q
  1. To fly a diverse departure, track runway centerline until 400 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation, turn in any direction, and maintain a minimum climb gradient of 200’/NM until reaching a minimum IFR altitude.
A

A. True

186
Q
  1. Authorized IFR departure methods include all except:
A

D. Random Departures (RDP)

187
Q
  1. When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on ________ (MULTICOM frequency).
A

A. 122.9 MHz

188
Q
  1. When no functioning control tower is available to do so, the pilot in command shall notify ________ upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight plan.
A

A. An FAA Flight Service Station & An ATC facility

189
Q
  1. PICs may fly USAF aircraft under VFR when required for mission accomplishment.
A

A. True

190
Q
  1. If the GPS database has expired, the PIC:
A

B. May not use the database to fly procedures that require terminal or better accuracy

191
Q
  1. Do not operate an aircraft below:
A

A. 1000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a 2000 feet radius of the aircraft over a city, town or settlement, 500 ft. AGL over non-congested areas except over open water, in special use airspace, or sparsely populated areas & Any closer than 500 ft. to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure

192
Q
  1. Avoid thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds (CBs) at or above FL 230 by ________ and below FL 230 by ________ .
A

A. 20 NM, 10 NM

193
Q
  1. ICAO cloud clearances and visibility minimums in Class F and G airspace at and below 3,000 feet are:
A

D. 5KM & 1,500m horizontal, 300m (1,000’) vertical

194
Q
  1. If there is no published approach at the destination capable of being flown, pilots may file a composite IFR/VFR flight plan to a ________ or ________ and then .
A

A. Point en route; point served by a published approach procedure; continue under VFR to the destination

195
Q
  1. The minimum weather required for AFSOC crews to file to the destination for the ETA (+/- 1 hour) must be:
A

D. AFSOC crews may file to a destination below mins if two alternates are filed

196
Q
  1. Pilots in Command are:
A

A. Vested with the authority necessary to manage the crew and accomplish the mission, The final mission authority and will make decisions not specifically assigned to a higher authority & The final authority for accepting a waiver affecting their crew or mission

197
Q
  1. Mandatory advisory calls for the non-flying pilot during non-precision approaches include:
A

A. “100 above” when 100 feet above minimum descent altitude (MDA), “minimums”at MDA & “runway in sight” when the runway environment is in sight and in a safe position to land

198
Q
  1. If any crewmember calls “go-around” the pilot flying will immediately apply power to establish a climb that clears all obstacles.
A

A. True

199
Q
  1. Stop and/or touch and go operations on icy runways are permitted provided the crosswind component does not exceed 75% of the demonstrated crosswind limitations listed in the aircraft operating manual.
A

B. False

200
Q
  1. Minimum altitude for overflight of aircraft, equipment, or personnel on the runway is:
A

D. 500 feet AGL

201
Q
  1. Anti-exposure suits for the aircrew will be readily available during any preplanned overwater flights which are beyond power off gliding distance from land and the water temperature is ________ °F or less.
A

C. 60

202
Q
  1. NVGs worn in “black hole” conditions can lead to induced motion illusions and spatial disorientation. When lunar illumination is forecast to be less than ________ , the mission will require an additional level of ORM.
A

B. 10%

203
Q
  1. The aircraft should be loaded in such a manner that emergency exits are available as follows:
A

A. At least one cabin emergency exit is unobstructed

204
Q
  1. With the exception of operating at a civilian airport and taxiing on a Fixed Base Operator (FBO) ramp, do not taxi aircraft within ________ of obstruction without wing walkers, or closer than ________ to any obstacle with wing walkers.
A

C. 25 feet, 10 feet

205
Q
  1. Two pilots may fly with NVGs of dissimilar acuity and gain.
A

B. False

206
Q
  1. Must, Will, and Shall, indicate a ________ requirement
A

C. mandatory

207
Q
  1. Do not deviate from the guidance in this AFI, except when the situation demands immediate action to ensure ________ .
A

C. safety

208
Q
  1. A Mission Commander will be designated when ________ aircraft or crews are deployed away from home station for training, exercises, or other operations.
A

C. More than one

209
Q
  1. Pilots in Command are responsible for all of the following except
A

A. Adequate billeting, eating, and transportation arrangements

210
Q
  1. A minimum of one additional pilot or one loadmaster is required when carrying more than ________ passengers.
A

B. 10

211
Q
  1. Crew members may not fly or perform crew duties after consuming alcoholic beverages within 12 hours of takeoff or within 10 hours of assuming alert or standby duty.
A

B. False

212
Q
  1. The ________ is the approval authority for operations with degraded equipment within the guidelines of the Minimum Equipment List. Operating outside of the aircraft MEL guidelines requires ________ or ________ approval.
A

C. PIC, Group/CC, COMAFSOF

213
Q
  1. The ________ must be operative for flights into areas of known or forecast thunderstorms.
A

C. weather radar

214
Q
  1. Aircrew will complete the Before Landing Checklist no lower than ________ AGL.
A

D. 200

215
Q
  1. Pilot in flight seat swaps may be accomplished only with ________ at the flight controls and above ________ .
A

B. A qualified pilot, 1000’ AGL

216
Q
  1. ________ is authorized to support dedicated special operations forces team members during contingencies, exercises, or training.
A

B. floor loading

217
Q
  1. During NVG training operations, the aircrew may turn off ________ when on final approach for landing within two nm of the touchdown zone, on the landing surface, and immediately after takeoff.
A

A. anti-collision and strobe lights

218
Q
  1. All crew members will be at their duty stations during all ________ .
A

C. takeoffs, departures, approaches and landings

219
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a mandatory call by the PNF during a precision approach?
A

B. “minimums”

220
Q
  1. Up to ________ takeoffs and landings within ________ days may be accomplished at a LZ or airfield without ARFF equipment or local established aircraft incident procedures. ________ is waiver for more frequent operations at these locations.
A

A. 8, 4, OG/CC or COMAFSOF

221
Q
  1. Any crewmember will immediately advise the PF when observing unannounced heading deviations greater than ________ degrees, airspeed deviations of ________ knots, and altitude deviations of ________ feet during approach or ________ enroute.
A

B. 10, 10, 100, 200

222
Q
  1. For Stop and Go operations, available runway distance after stopping the aircraft will be at least ________ .
A

C. Takeoff Distance or Accelerate Stop Distance, whichever is greater

223
Q
  1. A STS controller (or qualified equivalent) or an active control tower is required to conduct NVG landings at ________ .
A

B. unlit or covertly marked LZ or airfields

224
Q
  1. A Landing Zone survey becomes obsolete ________ years after the final review date and must be resurveyed prior to use.
A

B. 5

OPS LIMITS & MQF (6 decks)

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