LOAD MQF 2015

Question 1

Where can the crash axe be found?

Answer 1

In the Floor Step

Question 2

The following emergency equipment is located with the crash axe:

Answer 2

Portable Breathing Equipment & Fire Exinguisher

Question 3

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

Answer 3

30,843 lb

Question 4

What is the maximum ramp weight?

Answer 4

31,019 lbs

Question 5

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

Answer 5

27,800 lbs

Question 6

What is the maximum landing weight?

Answer 6

29,167 lbs

Question 7

What is the minimum flight weight?

Answer 7

20,724 lbs

Question 8

Cargo area floor limitation for 75 lb/ft2?

Answer 8

FS 602 to FS 705

Question 9

Cargo area floor limitation configuration 3 and 4, for 82 lb/ft2?

Answer 9

FS 457 to FS 602

Question 10

Cargo area floor limitation configuration 5, for 82 lb/ft2?

Answer 10

FS 298 to FS 602

Question 11

With MAX Takeoff weight of 30,843 lb, Center of Gravity Limitation will be _____ to _____ during Takeoff and landing.

Answer 11

22.5% to 40%

Question 12

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 12?

Answer 12

200 KIAS

Question 13

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 20?

Answer 13

180 KIAS

Question 14

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 32?

Answer 14

160 KIAS

Question 15

What is the maximum landing gear operating speed (VLE=VLO)?

Answer 15

200 KIAS

Question 16

What is the maximum tire speed, (ground speed)?

Answer 16

165 KTS

Question 17

Engine operating limitations for max takeoff power?

Answer 17

100% at 100%

Question 18

Engine operating limitations for max takeoff TQ?

Answer 18

1

Question 19

Engine operating limitations for max takeoff ITT?

Answer 19

800

Question 20

Engine operating limitations for transient TQ up to 20 seconds?

Answer 20

120

Question 21

Engine operating limitations for starting ITT from 8500C to 9500C is limited to seconds.

Answer 21

5

Question 22

Engine operating limitations for transient ITT up to 8500C is limited to seconds.

Answer 22

20

Question 23

Engine operating limitations for transient TQ up to ____ is limited to 20 seconds.

Answer 23

1.2

Question 24

__________ lever movements from MIN to MAX in less than 2 seconds are prohibited.

Answer 24

CONDITION

Question 25

The APU shall not be started above _____ ft pressure altitude.

Answer 25

20000

Question 26

A restart of the APU is allowed only after a complete roll down of the APU: ____ minutes after the APU MASTER button is selected off.

Answer 26

2

Question 27

Maximum allowable inflight fuel imbalance between contents of left and right wing tank group: _____ lb.

Answer 27

210

Question 28

Maximum fueling pressure: _____ psi.

Answer 28

50

Question 29

Maximum defueling pressure: _____ psi.

Answer 29

(-)10

Question 30

Total fuel quantity for automatic pressure refueling is?

Answer 30

7300 lbs

Question 31

Total fuel quantity for gravity or manual pressure refueling is?

Answer 31

7531 lbs

Question 32

Maximum altitude for ECS single pack operation is?

Answer 32

25,000 ft MSL

Question 33

Maximum differential pressure is?

Answer 33

6.9 psi

Question 34

Maximum differential pressure for landing is?

Answer 34

.40 psi

Question 35

What is the flap setting for takeoff?

Answer 35

12

Question 36

What is the maximum altitude with flaps extended?

Answer 36

18,000 ft MSL

Question 37

_______ is prohibited if the BRK TEMP HIGH CAUTION message is displayed on the EICAS

Answer 37

Takeoff

Question 38

Maximum Operating Altitude: _____ ft pressure altitude.

Answer 38

31000

Question 39

Flights above 27,000 ft are limited to less than ___ hours.

Answer 39

3

Question 40

Maximum altitude for takeoff and landing: ______ ft.

Answer 40

12000

Question 41

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff/landing - Dry runway: ___ kt, Wet runway: ___.

Answer 41

21 & 21

Question 42

Maximum tailwind for takeoff/landing - Dry runway: ___ kt, Wet runway: ___ kt.

Answer 42

10 & 10

Question 43

Maximum demonstrated wind for taxiing: ___ kt.

Answer 43

40

Question 44

Aircraft, which are to be parked outdoors for long periods or with current or predicted winds of more than ____ KT, must be moored to prevent damage during storms

Answer 44

30

Question 45

Takeoff and landing with the Environmental Control System (ECS) flow mode set to _____ is prohibited if the ECS is fed by engine bleed air.

Answer 45

HIGH

Question 46

These color codes are used on the displays, EICAS page, and different system pages:

Answer 46

Red: Operation limit / Amber: Caution range / White/Green: Normal Operating Range

Question 47

Provide a minimum of _____ hours (except ARC at home station and U-28) from arrival at aircraft to stations time for crew members to complete preflight duties, unless preflight duties have been accomplished.

Answer 47

2

Question 48

Spectacles. Crewmembers that require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties ______ only use Air Force-provided spectacles (T-1). Crewmembers must also carry a spare set of clear Air Force-provided spectacles while performing aircrew duties (T-1)

Answer 48

MUST

Question 49

Flashlights (N/A for UAS). Each crewmember must have an operable flashlight for _______ operations (T-2).

Answer 49

NIGHT

Question 50

Tobacco use in all forms, including electronic nicotine delivery systems, is _______ on all aircraft (T-0).

Answer 50

PROHIBITED

Question 51

Crewmembers must occupy their _______ from takeoff to landing unless absence is normal in the performance of crew duties or in connection with physiological needs (T-0).

Answer 51

ASSIGNED DUTY STATIONS

Question 52

In the absence of MAJCOM guidance, aircrew of fixed-wing aircraft shall minimize non- ssential cockpit conversations and other extraneous activities which could interfere with flight duties when below ______ ft. MSL, during critical phases of flight, and during all taxi operations.

Answer 52

10000

Question 53

Without supplemental oxygen: Flight time between _____ and _____ ft. MSL is unrestricted, but shall not exceed 1 hour if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at night (with or without NVDs), while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air-refueling, or if performing high-g maneuvers.

Answer 53

10,000 / 12,500

Question 54

Without supplemental oxygen: Flight time between _____ and _____ ft. MSL shall not exceed 30 minutes.

Answer 54

12,500 / 14,000

Question 55

Individuals suspected of DCS shall be administered and remain on _________ (using tight-fitting mask or equivalent) until evaluated by an aviation medical authority (T-1).

Answer 55

100% OXYGEN

Question 56

If anyone on the aircraft experiences _______ symptoms, descend immediately to the lowest practical altitude and land at a suitable location to obtain medical assistance (T-1).

Answer 56

HYPOXIA

Question 57

If equipped, landing lights should be turned on when takeoff clearance is received, when commencing takeoff roll at an airport without an operating control tower, or when operating below ______ ft. MSL within normal MDS-specific operating procedures.

Answer 57

10000

Question 58

List passengers on a DD Form _____, Passenger Manifest, or a MAJCOM-approved form (T-0). File the manifest and crew list with the flight plan, the passenger service facility, or other responsible agency (T-0). Notify C2 prior to departure if there is a passenger manifest (or crew list) change (T-1).

Answer 58

2131

Question 59

In the absence of MDS-specific guidance, _______ without the availability to in-flight refuel, operated for extended periods over large bodies of water or desolate land areas (outside gliding distance to a suitable landing site) shall calculate and plot on a navigational chart an ETP to a suitable alternate for that mission leg.

Answer 59

MULTI ENGINE AIRCRAFT

Question 60

______ takeoff with ice, snow, frost, or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by the flight manual (T-2).

Answer 60

Do not

Question 61

A thin coating of _____ is permitted on the fuselage, provided the lettering and/or paint lines are visible.

Answer 61

FROST

Question 62

Do not takeoff where ________ or other ________ are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, wind shear, or microbursts (T-1).

Answer 62

THUNDERSTORMS, HAZARDOUS CONDITIONS

Question 63

Do not turn after a takeoff until at least _____ ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern (T-0).

Answer 63

400

Question 64

Crew Complement. The ______ crew complement for flight operations is two pilots and one loadmaster.

Answer 64

MINIMUM

Question 65

The basic FDP is _____ hours providing no training events or maintenance ground runs are accomplished after _____ hours. Fully qualified and current crew members must occupy duty stations past _____ hours.

Answer 65

16/12/12

Question 66

The ______ is the approval authority for operations with degraded equipment within the guidelines of the aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and Minimum Equipment Subsystems List (MESL). Operating outside of the aircraft MEL or MESL guidelines requires Group/CC or COMAFSOF approval.

Answer 66

PIC

Question 67

Before Landing Checklists. Aircrew will complete the Before Landing Checklist no lower than _____ feet (ft) Above Ground Level (AGL). Aircraft will be established on final, wings level, with a controlled rate of descent in a position to execute a safe landing no lower than ______ .

Answer 67

200/100

Question 68

All crew members will be at their duty stations during all ____, ____, ____ and ____.

Answer 68

Takeoffs, departures, approaches, and landings

Question 69

The loadmaster?s primary duty station is the _______ for critical phases of flight. The AC may assign an alternate duty station for abnormal situations.

Answer 69

JUMP SEAT

Question 70

Crew members occupying a primary crew position will have seat belts _____ at all times.

Answer 70

Fastened

Question 71

Floor loading is authorized to support dedicated special operations forces team members or liter medical patients during , , or .

Answer 71

Contingencies, exercises, or training

Question 72

Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ______ ft.

Answer 72

25

Question 73

With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ______ ft.

Answer 73

10

Question 74

Do not taxi aircraft closer than _____ ft to any obstacle.

Answer 74

10

Question 75

A minimum of ft of runway is required for Flaps 20 touch-and-go landings.

Answer 75

6000

Question 76

A minimum of _____ ft of runway is required for zero-flap or Flaps 32 touch-and-go landings.

Answer 76

7000

Question 77

Any crew member will immediately advise the PF when observing unannounced heading deviations greater than ___ degrees, airspeed deviations of ___ knots, altitude deviations of ___ ft during approach or ___ ft while en route, or potential terrain or obstruction problems and no attempt is being made by the PF to correct the deviation.

Answer 77

10, 10, 100 & 200

Question 78

Engines Running Onload or Offload (ERO). The ____ will direct all onloading or offloading operations using pre-briefed signals. Other qualified crew members may assist the operation; however, the PIC and loadmaster retains overall responsibility for the operation.

Answer 78

Loadmaster

Question 79

Engines Running Onload or Offload (ERO). Passengers will be escorted by the ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿwhen enplaning or deplaning.

Answer 79

Loadmaster

Question 80

_________ worn will consist of casual slacks or cargo pants, collared shirts, shoes or hiking boots.

Answer 80

CIVILIAN CLOTHING

Question 81

All aircrew members _____ have flight gloves readily available during all flights.

Answer 81

Will

Question 82

Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Hazards. Aircrew will not wear wigs, hairpieces, rings, scarves, ornaments, pins, hair clips or fasteners, or earrings in the aircraft or on the flight line. Crew members _____ remove rings and scarves before performing aircrew duties.

Answer 82

Will

Question 83

Carry a headset and operable flashlight on _____ flights.

Answer 83

All

Question 84

All crew members will carry and preflight their own _____ prior to flight for missions using NVG’s.

Answer 84

NVG’S

Question 85

Passenger Briefings. Prior to each flight, the _____ will ensure that all passengers are briefed.

Answer 85

Loadmaster

Question 86

Any mission planned when the lunar illumination is forecast to be less than _____ during the mission will require an additional level of Operational Risk Management (ORM), as determined by unit supplement.

Answer 86

0.1

Question 87

_______ lbs of fuel remaining during day VFR or night VFR conditions when using NVGs.

Answer 87

600

Question 88

lbs of fuel remaining during night VFR conditions when not using NVGs or IFR conditions.

Answer 88

900

Question 89

Land with no less than ______ pounds of fuel on board.

Answer 89

450

Question 90

Minimum Fuel is ______ pounds and Emergency Fuel is pounds.

Answer 90

450/250

Question 91

A copy of each mission?s ______ will be maintained at the squadron or operations center (as applicable) and carried with the aircrew.

Answer 91

WEIGHT & BALANCE

Question 92

For en route stops, weight and balance need not be recomputed provided the ________ has not changed.

Answer 92

ZERO FUEL WEIGHT

Question 93

Review the __________ before applying power to the aircraft or operating aircraft systems.

Answer 93

AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE FORMS

Question 94

Anytime the APU is running, at least ______ or maintainer will remain within the immediate vicinity of the APU fire suppression control panel in order to adequately hear the APU fire bell.

Answer 94

one crew member

Question 95

Crew members will wear ______ when operating aft of the 3-9 line while the APU is operating.

Answer 95

HEARING PROTECTION

Question 96

Eye protection _____ be used during refueling operations.

Answer 96

Will

Question 97

The loadmaster _____ backup the PNF with the QRH checklist reading/actions as directed, visual confirmation of the memory items, and scanning of engines/passenger compartment.

Answer 97

Will

Question 98

The ______ is the primary crew member responsible for fighting fires in the cabin/cargo area

Answer 98

Loadmaster

Question 99

If any crew member calls ?________?, the PF will immediately apply power to establish a climb that clears all obstacles. Minimum altitude for overflight of aircraft, equipment, or personnel on the runway is 500 ft AGL.

Answer 99

GO-AROUND

Question 100

The ______ will perform servicing when maintenance personnel are not available. When executing refueling operations, loadmasters will wear gloves and eye protection.

Answer 100

Loadmaster

Question 101

______ will ensure the aircraft is clean, stow publications, deposit trash in proper receptacles, and account for all personal equipment before leaving the aircraft.

Answer 101

ALL CREW MEMBERS

Question 102

The AC and the LM will complete a ________ to determine any changes from their pre-mission inspection (i.e., bird strike).

Answer 102

POST MISSION WALK AROUND

Question 103

Mission Radios.________ leave the aircraft unattended with crypto loaded into the mission radios.

Answer 103

DO NOT

Question 104

will not permit the inspection of their aircraft by officials of any foreign government. If requested to do so, the PIC and crew will deny access and seek aid from the senior AFSOC or USAF representative or US Embassy or consulate within the host nation.

Answer 104

PIC

Question 105

Cargo Documentation: _____ accept hazardous materials unless proper documentation, certification, and identification of cargo are provided.

Answer 105

Do not

Question 106

The aircraft should be : _______ during all off-station missions remaining overnight.

Answer 106

Locked

Question 107

Due to the sensitivity of ______ in foreign countries, crews will keep their weapons inside the aircraft and out of sight of foreign nationals, even if the FCG allows them to be carried outside the aircraft.

Answer 107

WEAPONS

Question 108

Weapons need not be _______ before being placed in the gun box.

Answer 108

UNLOADED

Question 109

Loadmaster in-flight duties also include backing up the _____ on radio traffic, assigned altitude/heading/airspeeds, altimeter settings, Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) alerts, monitoring systems and periodically accomplishing an interior/exterior scan.

Answer 109

Pilots

Question 110

The loadmaster is responsible for, supervises, performs, and/or participates in the following: _________________.

Answer 110

Perform and or read checklists initiated by the PF or PNF.

Question 111

Load aircraft in such a manner that emergency exits are available as follows: At least ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿcabin emergency exit is unobstructed.

Answer 111

One

Question 112

Access to the rear of the aircraft and entry into cargo or baggage areas, or emergency exits ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ be maintained without exception. No less than 30 inch by 14 inch space will be provided.

Answer 112

Must

Question 113

________ allow passengers to lounge on or tamper with equipment, cargo, or baggage.

Answer 113

Do not

Question 114

Customs, Immigration, and Agriculture require certain forms for ________. The loadmaster will ensure that required forms are contained in the aircraft mission kit.

Answer 114

BORDER CLEARANCE

Question 115

Mission permitting, fueling the aircraft in excess of _____ pounds the night prior should be avoided when practical. Thermal expansion overnight sometimes results in excessive venting. Consider this in your mission planning.

Answer 115

6500

Question 116

Loadmasters not current in an event must fly with an Instructor _____ to regain currency. For Loadmasters not current in NVG operations only, an Instructor Pilot may fulfill this requirement.

Answer 116

Loadmaster

Question 117

Crewmembers _____ change between military uniforms and civilian attire during any single flight duty period (FDP).

Answer 117

Will not

Question 118

Crewmembers will not mix ______ issue clothing items and civilian attire (such as boots, belts, or jackets).

Answer 118

MILITARY

Question 119

The Aircraft Commander _____ be notified if any crew member must arrive more than 30 minutes prior to the normal show time.

Answer 119

Should

Question 120

Emergency Ground Evacuation. Conditions permitting, the primary emergency exit for both crew and passengers will be the

Answer 120

Crew entrance door

Question 121

When directed, the _____ should initiate the evacuation of all passengers through the selected emergency exit. The flight crew should be notified by the Loadmaster of the selected exit and any hazards or issues.

Answer 121

Loadmaster

Question 122

A rally point will should be established ____ at a ____ angle away from the aircraft centerline on the side exited.

Answer 122

300 FT / 45 DEGREE

Question 123

When all personnel are accounted for, determine if it is necessary to ______separation from the aircraft.

Answer 123

Increase

Question 124

Prior to conducting reverse operations the _____ will conduct a thorough reverse taxi briefing using the 524 SOS IFG.

Answer 124

Loadmaster

Question 125

The _______ will conduct mission communications, as directed by the Aircraft Commander, and relay pertinent information to the pilots when necessary.

Answer 125

LOADMASTER

Question 126

The loadmasters ______ provide torque call-outs starting at 70% TQ.

Answer 126

Will

Question 127

The loadmasters will announce ?_______? over the interphone when the engine torque reaches either 100% TQ or the green torque markers, whichever is lower. The PNF will verbally acknowledge the call. This restriction does not apply to enhanced field performance operations.

Answer 127

TORQUE

Question 128

Full stop landings and touch and go landings are limited to a maximum of _____ per flight hour.

Answer 128

10

Question 129

Unless considerations dictate otherwise, the Pilot?s TCAS should be placed in _______ and the Copilot?s TCAS will be in _______.

Answer 129

ABOVE / BELOW

Question 130

After landing, the Loadmasters ______ remain seated until the aircraft has taxied clear of the runway, at which point the Loadmaster may leave the jump seat to perform duties for the After Landing Checklist.

Answer 130

Will

Question 131

NVG Operations. The first crew member to positively identify an airfield of intended landing should notify the remaining crew by stating ?________? Subsequent crew members identifying the airfield should also state ?airfield in sight,? and confirm with the first crew member using clock position and approximate distance.

Answer 131

AIRFIELD IN SIGHT

Question 132

Any time the aircraft will be _________ by U.S. military or diplomatic personnel, the aircraft will have all emergency exits pinned and the cargo door will be locked or secured with a strap to prohibit entry.

Answer 132

UNATTENDED

Question 133

If the ______ cannot be secured with an approved lock, tamper-evident seals should be utilized. Tamper evident tape or distinctive numbered seals satisfy this requirement.

Answer 133

crew entry door

Question 134

Maximum weight limit of the aircraft mounted safe is ____ lbs. and lock boxes will not be used to store liquids of any kind.

Answer 134

20

Question 135

Weapons ______ be stored in the aircraft lock box or kept in a holster on the crew member at all times.

Answer 135

Will

Question 136

Maintain a _____ ft circle of safety from all parts of the aircraft except when authorized in certain loading, unloading, or fueling operations. In these cases, always post guides (spotters) and place wheel chocks in position to prevent the vehicle from backing into the aircraft.

Answer 136

10

Question 137

Vehicles must not be driven towards the aircraft when within ft.

Answer 137

25

Question 138

Base fire marshals prohibit smoking on flight lines, on aprons, in hangars, or on aircraft parking areas except in designated areas. At no time is smoking allowed within ft of an aircraft, fuel tanks, fueling operations, or any flammable substance storage facility.

Answer 138

50

Question 139

Do not use any radios on an aircraft that is being fueled. Do not transmit on a high frequency (HF) radio when fueling operations are being performed within ft of the aircraft.

Answer 139

200

Question 140

Aircrew must conduct HAZMAT transportation IAW _______.

Answer 140

AFMAN 24-204

Question 141

Performing Routine Steward?s Duties: As the most ____ crewmember during the flight, your conduct reflects upon the whole crew. So act as if the whole crew?s image depends on your actions.

Answer 141

VISIBLE

Question 142

MEASUREMENTS AND CONVERSIONS: = PSF.

Answer 142

PSI x 144 = PSF

Question 143

MEASUREMENTS AND CONVERSIONS: =50 PSI.

Answer 143

3.45 Bar = 50 Psi

Question 144

CARGO SHALL ONLY BE ATTACHED TO SEAT TRACKS AT THE PAINTED ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿLOCATIONS.

Answer 144

GREEN

Question 145

1 maximum allowable loading: 75 lb/ft2, lb total.

Answer 145

771

Question 146

The cargo door dimensions are: .

Answer 146

55.1in x 36.2in

Question 147

The service door dimensions are: .

Answer 147

49.2in x 20in

Question 148

The passenger/crew door dimensions are: .

Answer 148

66.9in x 30.2in

Question 149

The dimensions of the two emergency exit hatches are: .

Answer 149

35.8in x 20in

Question 150

Pounds per square inch (psi) is derived by ______ the weight of an item by the area bearing on the cargo floor, in square inches (in2).

Answer 150

DIVIDING

Question 151

USE ANY TYPE OF LEVER OR MECHANICAL MEANS TO ASSIST HAND RATCHETING OF THE STRAPS.

Answer 151

DO NOT

Question 152

A MINIMUM OF ____ TURNS ON THE SPOOL MUST BE MAINTAINED TO PREVENT THE STRAP FROM COMING UNSECURe

Answer 152

«

Question 153

The _____ include a continuous and permanent record of aircraft weight, moment, and CG position. This is sometimes referred to as Chart C.

Answer 153

AIRCRAFT FORMS

Question 154

What is the WAM formula?

Answer 154

Weight x Arm = Moment

Question 155

Configuration one consists of ______ passenger seats and approximately 294 ft3 of cargo space.

Answer 155

27

Question 156

Configuration 2 consists of two options, each providing approximately 294 ft3 of cargo space. Option 2A consists of passenger seats plus four litters. Option 2B replaces one litter rack assembly with three rows of dual seats ( seats and 2 litters).

Answer 156

15/21

Question 157

Configuration 3 consists of ____ passenger seats and approximately 470 ft3 of cargo space.

Answer 157

18

Question 158

Configuration 4 consists of up to _____ passenger seats, two litters, and approx. 470 ft3 of cargo space.

Answer 158

12

Question 159

Configuration 5 consists of_____ passenger seats and approximately 971 ft3 of cargo space aft of the smoke barrier at FS 298.

Answer 159

4

Question 160

BLOCK 20 TWO-WAY COMMUNICATION SYSTEM: The aft most plug may be used for reverse taxi operations by the loadmaster. All three plugs in the ceiling are tied to the _________ ICS system.

Answer 160

OBSERVER’S

Question 161

The C-146A utility seats are similar to commercial aviation-style seats. A single seat weighs lb and a double seat weighs lb.

Answer 161

19.8/34.4

Question 162

A folded single seat has a weight bearing capacity of lbs.

Answer 162

150

Question 163

A folded double seat has a weight bearing capacity of lbs.

Answer 163

200

Question 164

A double litter stacking system weighs ____ lbs.

Answer 164

133

Question 165

Aisle clearance at its smallest point is _____ in.

Answer 165

20.7

Question 166

[Block 20] Two IV hangars are provided for the litter patients. They are placarded ?For IV Use Only? and have a _ lb IV bag maximum limit.

Answer 166

5

Question 167

[Block 20] The medical bag together with its contents is limited to lb.

Answer 167

100

Question 168

The APU bleed air is fed into the cross-bleed line through a check valve and supplies the ECS . The APU bleed air supply is controlled by an APU BLEED switch/light located on the ECS control panel.

Answer 168

Packs

Question 169

The ACP?s are divided into two groups: ______ & _____ ACP 1,2 and 5 are in the Flight Deck Group; ACP?s 3,4 and 6 are in the Cabin Group

Answer 169

FLIGHT DECK / CABIN

Question 170

The flight controls consists of the following components and subsystems:

Answer 170

Ailerons and Trim Tab, Rubber and Trim Tab, Elevator and Trim Tab, Flaps, Ground Spoilers, Gust Locks and Damper, Stall Warning and Prevention.

Question 171

Fuel transfer within each tank group is made by ______ pumps in the inner and the outer wing tanks. These pumps supply fuel to the feeder tank to keep in in the full state during aircraft operation. outer wing tanks. These pumps supply fuel to the feeder tank to keep in in the full state during aircraft operation.

Answer 171

jet transfer

Question 172

When the left or right electrical booster pump (ELPMP) ______ button is in normal mode (dark), the electrical booster pump is triggered to activate automatically if there is a failure in the jet booster pump (JETPMP).

Answer 172

AUTO

Question 173

_fuel is taken from the right wing tank group, via the tapping in the main engine cross-feed pipeline.

Answer 173

APU

Question 174

A system of float-operated manual magnetic indicators (magna-sticks) can be used on the ground when no _power is available to determine the quantity of fuel in the tanks.

Answer 174

Electrical

Question 175

The fuel system receives electrical power from the 28 VDC ESSENTIAL BUS, DC HOT BUS 2, 28 VDC BUS 1, and 28 VDC BUS 2. The circuit breakers of the fuel system are installed on the circuit breaker panel in the flight compartment.

Answer 175

Overhead

Question 176

The left and right wing tank groups can be gravity refueled through a ________ with lockable cap in the inner fuel tank.

Answer 176

FILLER WELL

Question 177

The ______ valves allow the fuel to flow from the inner and the outer tanks into the feeder tank. They do not permit the fuel to flow back again.

Answer 177

Flapper

Question 178

There are ______ drain valves in each fuel tank group. The drain valves are provided for draining condensed water and fuel samples.

Answer 178

5

Question 179

The inner and outer tanks of each wing tank group are vented to the atmosphere by the following components:

Answer 179

Main Vent Line, Vent Float Valves, Vent Tank, Flush Inlet and Overboard Vent Line.

Question 180

The aircraft hydraulic system consists of the following four:

Answer 180

Main Hydraulic System, Standby Hydraulic System, Auxiliary System, Indicating System.

Question 181

The main system supplies hydraulic pressure to the following consumers:

Answer 181

Landing Gear, Main Landing Gear Wheel Brakes, Emergency and Parking Brake, Trailing Edge Flaps, Nose Wheel Steering, Roll Spoilers, Ground Spoilers.

Question 182

The ______ are externally bonded into a recessed portion of the leading edges on the wing and the vertical and horizontal stabilizer.

Answer 182

DE-ICER BOOTS

Question 183

The propeller de-icing system prevents or eliminates ice formation on the propellers. This is done by ____ heating de-icer boots on each blade.

Answer 183

Electrically