LOAD MQF 2015 Flashcards
1
Q
Where can the crash axe be found?
A
In the Floor Step
2
Q
The following emergency equipment is located with the crash axe:
A
Portable Breathing Equipment & Fire Exinguisher
3
Q
What is the maximum takeoff weight?
A
30,843 lb
4
Q
What is the maximum ramp weight?
A
31,019 lbs
5
Q
What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
A
27,800 lbs
6
Q
What is the maximum landing weight?
A
29,167 lbs
7
Q
What is the minimum flight weight?
A
20,724 lbs
8
Q
Cargo area floor limitation for 75 lb/ft2?
A
FS 602 to FS 705
9
Q
Cargo area floor limitation configuration 3 and 4, for 82 lb/ft2?
A
FS 457 to FS 602
10
Q
Cargo area floor limitation configuration 5, for 82 lb/ft2?
A
FS 298 to FS 602
11
Q
With MAX Takeoff weight of 30,843 lb, Center of Gravity Limitation will be _____ to _____ during Takeoff and landing.
A
22.5% to 40%
12
Q
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 12?
A
200 KIAS
13
Q
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 20?
A
180 KIAS
14
Q
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 32?
A
160 KIAS
15
Q
What is the maximum landing gear operating speed (VLE=VLO)?
A
200 KIAS
16
Q
What is the maximum tire speed, (ground speed)?
A
165 KTS
17
Q
Engine operating limitations for max takeoff power?
A
100% at 100%
18
Q
Engine operating limitations for max takeoff TQ?
A
1
19
Q
Engine operating limitations for max takeoff ITT?
A
800
20
Q
Engine operating limitations for transient TQ up to 20 seconds?
A
120
21
Q
Engine operating limitations for starting ITT from 8500C to 9500C is limited to seconds.
A
5
22
Q
Engine operating limitations for transient ITT up to 8500C is limited to seconds.
A
20
23
Q
Engine operating limitations for transient TQ up to ____ is limited to 20 seconds.
A
1.2
24
Q
__________ lever movements from MIN to MAX in less than 2 seconds are prohibited.
A
CONDITION
25
The APU shall not be started above _____ ft pressure altitude.
20000
26
A restart of the APU is allowed only after a complete roll down of the APU: ____ minutes after the APU MASTER button is selected off.
2
27
Maximum allowable inflight fuel imbalance between contents of left and right wing tank group: _____ lb.
210
28
Maximum fueling pressure: _____ psi.
50
29
Maximum defueling pressure: _____ psi.
(-)10
30
Total fuel quantity for automatic pressure refueling is?
7300 lbs
31
Total fuel quantity for gravity or manual pressure refueling is?
7531 lbs
32
Maximum altitude for ECS single pack operation is?
25,000 ft MSL
33
Maximum differential pressure is?
6.9 psi
34
Maximum differential pressure for landing is?
.40 psi
35
What is the flap setting for takeoff?
12
36
What is the maximum altitude with flaps extended?
18,000 ft MSL
37
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is prohibited if the BRK TEMP HIGH CAUTION message is displayed on the EICAS
Takeoff
38
Maximum Operating Altitude: _____ ft pressure altitude.
31000
39
Flights above 27,000 ft are limited to less than ___ hours.
3
40
Maximum altitude for takeoff and landing: ______ ft.
12000
41
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff/landing - Dry runway: ___ kt, Wet runway: \_\_\_.
21 & 21
42
Maximum tailwind for takeoff/landing - Dry runway: ___ kt, Wet runway: ___ kt.
10 & 10
43
Maximum demonstrated wind for taxiing: ___ kt.
40
44
Aircraft, which are to be parked outdoors for long periods or with current or predicted winds of more than ____ KT, must be moored to prevent damage during storms
30
45
Takeoff and landing with the Environmental Control System (ECS) flow mode set to _____ is prohibited if the ECS is fed by engine bleed air.
HIGH
46
These color codes are used on the displays, EICAS page, and different system pages:
Red: Operation limit / Amber: Caution range / White/Green: Normal Operating Range
47
Provide a minimum of _____ hours (except ARC at home station and U-28) from arrival at aircraft to stations time for crew members to complete preflight duties, unless preflight duties have been accomplished.
2
48
Spectacles. Crewmembers that require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties ______ only use Air Force-provided spectacles (T-1). Crewmembers must also carry a spare set of clear Air Force-provided spectacles while performing aircrew duties (T-1)
MUST
49
Flashlights (N/A for UAS). Each crewmember must have an operable flashlight for _______ operations (T-2).
NIGHT
50
Tobacco use in all forms, including electronic nicotine delivery systems, is _______ on all aircraft (T-0).
PROHIBITED
51
Crewmembers must occupy their _______ from takeoff to landing unless absence is normal in the performance of crew duties or in connection with physiological needs (T-0).
ASSIGNED DUTY STATIONS
52
In the absence of MAJCOM guidance, aircrew of fixed-wing aircraft shall minimize non- ssential cockpit conversations and other extraneous activities which could interfere with flight duties when below ______ ft. MSL, during critical phases of flight, and during all taxi operations.
10000
53
Without supplemental oxygen: Flight time between _____ and _____ ft. MSL is unrestricted, but shall not exceed 1 hour if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at night (with or without NVDs), while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air-refueling, or if performing high-g maneuvers.
10,000 / 12,500
54
Without supplemental oxygen: Flight time between _____ and _____ ft. MSL shall not exceed 30 minutes.
12,500 / 14,000
55
Individuals suspected of DCS shall be administered and remain on _________ (using tight-fitting mask or equivalent) until evaluated by an aviation medical authority (T-1).
100% OXYGEN
56
If anyone on the aircraft experiences _______ symptoms, descend immediately to the lowest practical altitude and land at a suitable location to obtain medical assistance (T-1).
HYPOXIA
57
If equipped, landing lights should be turned on when takeoff clearance is received, when commencing takeoff roll at an airport without an operating control tower, or when operating below ______ ft. MSL within normal MDS-specific operating procedures.
10000
58
List passengers on a DD Form \_\_\_\_\_, Passenger Manifest, or a MAJCOM-approved form (T-0). File the manifest and crew list with the flight plan, the passenger service facility, or other responsible agency (T-0). Notify C2 prior to departure if there is a passenger manifest (or crew list) change (T-1).
2131
59
In the absence of MDS-specific guidance, _______ without the availability to in-flight refuel, operated for extended periods over large bodies of water or desolate land areas (outside gliding distance to a suitable landing site) shall calculate and plot on a navigational chart an ETP to a suitable alternate for that mission leg.
MULTI ENGINE AIRCRAFT
60
\_\_\_\_\_\_ takeoff with ice, snow, frost, or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by the flight manual (T-2).
Do not
61
A thin coating of _____ is permitted on the fuselage, provided the lettering and/or paint lines are visible.
FROST
62
Do not takeoff where ________ or other ________ are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, wind shear, or microbursts (T-1).
THUNDERSTORMS, HAZARDOUS CONDITIONS
63
Do not turn after a takeoff until at least _____ ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern (T-0).
400
64
Crew Complement. The ______ crew complement for flight operations is two pilots and one loadmaster.
MINIMUM
65
The basic FDP is _____ hours providing no training events or maintenance ground runs are accomplished after _____ hours. Fully qualified and current crew members must occupy duty stations past _____ hours.
16/12/12
66
The ______ is the approval authority for operations with degraded equipment within the guidelines of the aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and Minimum Equipment Subsystems List (MESL). Operating outside of the aircraft MEL or MESL guidelines requires Group/CC or COMAFSOF approval.
PIC
67
Before Landing Checklists. Aircrew will complete the Before Landing Checklist no lower than _____ feet (ft) Above Ground Level (AGL). Aircraft will be established on final, wings level, with a controlled rate of descent in a position to execute a safe landing no lower than ______ .
200/100
68
All crew members will be at their duty stations during all \_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_, ____ and \_\_\_\_.
Takeoffs, departures, approaches, and landings
69
The loadmaster?s primary duty station is the _______ for critical phases of flight. The AC may assign an alternate duty station for abnormal situations.
JUMP SEAT
70
Crew members occupying a primary crew position will have seat belts _____ at all times.
Fastened
71
Floor loading is authorized to support dedicated special operations forces team members or liter medical patients during , , or .
Contingencies, exercises, or training
72
Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ______ ft.
25
73
With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ______ ft.
10
74
Do not taxi aircraft closer than _____ ft to any obstacle.
10
75
A minimum of ft of runway is required for Flaps 20 touch-and-go landings.
6000
76
A minimum of _____ ft of runway is required for zero-flap or Flaps 32 touch-and-go landings.
7000
77
Any crew member will immediately advise the PF when observing unannounced heading deviations greater than ___ degrees, airspeed deviations of ___ knots, altitude deviations of ___ ft during approach or ___ ft while en route, or potential terrain or obstruction problems and no attempt is being made by the PF to correct the deviation.
10, 10, 100 & 200
78
Engines Running Onload or Offload (ERO). The ____ will direct all onloading or offloading operations using pre-briefed signals. Other qualified crew members may assist the operation; however, the PIC and loadmaster retains overall responsibility for the operation.
Loadmaster
79
Engines Running Onload or Offload (ERO). Passengers will be escorted by the ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿwhen enplaning or deplaning.
Loadmaster
80
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ worn will consist of casual slacks or cargo pants, collared shirts, shoes or hiking boots.
CIVILIAN CLOTHING
81
All aircrew members _____ have flight gloves readily available during all flights.
Will
82
Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Hazards. Aircrew will not wear wigs, hairpieces, rings, scarves, ornaments, pins, hair clips or fasteners, or earrings in the aircraft or on the flight line. Crew members _____ remove rings and scarves before performing aircrew duties.
Will
83
Carry a headset and operable flashlight on _____ flights.
All
84
All crew members will carry and preflight their own _____ prior to flight for missions using NVG's.
NVG'S
85
Passenger Briefings. Prior to each flight, the _____ will ensure that all passengers are briefed.
Loadmaster
86
Any mission planned when the lunar illumination is forecast to be less than _____ during the mission will require an additional level of Operational Risk Management (ORM), as determined by unit supplement.
0.1
87
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ lbs of fuel remaining during day VFR or night VFR conditions when using NVGs.
600
88
lbs of fuel remaining during night VFR conditions when not using NVGs or IFR conditions.
900
89
Land with no less than ______ pounds of fuel on board.
450
90
Minimum Fuel is ______ pounds and Emergency Fuel is pounds.
450/250
91
A copy of each mission?s ______ will be maintained at the squadron or operations center (as applicable) and carried with the aircrew.
WEIGHT & BALANCE
92
For en route stops, weight and balance need not be recomputed provided the ________ has not changed.
ZERO FUEL WEIGHT
93
Review the __________ before applying power to the aircraft or operating aircraft systems.
AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE FORMS
94
Anytime the APU is running, at least ______ or maintainer will remain within the immediate vicinity of the APU fire suppression control panel in order to adequately hear the APU fire bell.
one crew member
95
Crew members will wear ______ when operating aft of the 3-9 line while the APU is operating.
HEARING PROTECTION
96
Eye protection _____ be used during refueling operations.
Will
97
The loadmaster _____ backup the PNF with the QRH checklist reading/actions as directed, visual confirmation of the memory items, and scanning of engines/passenger compartment.
Will
98
The ______ is the primary crew member responsible for fighting fires in the cabin/cargo area
Loadmaster
99
If any crew member calls ?\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?, the PF will immediately apply power to establish a climb that clears all obstacles. Minimum altitude for overflight of aircraft, equipment, or personnel on the runway is 500 ft AGL.
GO-AROUND
100
The ______ will perform servicing when maintenance personnel are not available. When executing refueling operations, loadmasters will wear gloves and eye protection.
Loadmaster
101
\_\_\_\_\_\_ will ensure the aircraft is clean, stow publications, deposit trash in proper receptacles, and account for all personal equipment before leaving the aircraft.
ALL CREW MEMBERS
102
The AC and the LM will complete a ________ to determine any changes from their pre-mission inspection (i.e., bird strike).
POST MISSION WALK AROUND
103
Mission Radios.\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ leave the aircraft unattended with crypto loaded into the mission radios.
DO NOT
104
will not permit the inspection of their aircraft by officials of any foreign government. If requested to do so, the PIC and crew will deny access and seek aid from the senior AFSOC or USAF representative or US Embassy or consulate within the host nation.
PIC
105
Cargo Documentation: _____ accept hazardous materials unless proper documentation, certification, and identification of cargo are provided.
Do not
106
The aircraft should be : _______ during all off-station missions remaining overnight.
Locked
107
Due to the sensitivity of ______ in foreign countries, crews will keep their weapons inside the aircraft and out of sight of foreign nationals, even if the FCG allows them to be carried outside the aircraft.
WEAPONS
108
Weapons need not be _______ before being placed in the gun box.
UNLOADED
109
Loadmaster in-flight duties also include backing up the _____ on radio traffic, assigned altitude/heading/airspeeds, altimeter settings, Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) alerts, monitoring systems and periodically accomplishing an interior/exterior scan.
Pilots
110
The loadmaster is responsible for, supervises, performs, and/or participates in the following: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Perform and or read checklists initiated by the PF or PNF.
111
Load aircraft in such a manner that emergency exits are available as follows: At least ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿcabin emergency exit is unobstructed.
One
112
Access to the rear of the aircraft and entry into cargo or baggage areas, or emergency exits ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ be maintained without exception. No less than 30 inch by 14 inch space will be provided.
Must
113
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ allow passengers to lounge on or tamper with equipment, cargo, or baggage.
Do not
114
Customs, Immigration, and Agriculture require certain forms for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The loadmaster will ensure that required forms are contained in the aircraft mission kit.
BORDER CLEARANCE
115
Mission permitting, fueling the aircraft in excess of _____ pounds the night prior should be avoided when practical. Thermal expansion overnight sometimes results in excessive venting. Consider this in your mission planning.
6500
116
Loadmasters not current in an event must fly with an Instructor _____ to regain currency. For Loadmasters not current in NVG operations only, an Instructor Pilot may fulfill this requirement.
Loadmaster
117
Crewmembers _____ change between military uniforms and civilian attire during any single flight duty period (FDP).
Will not
118
Crewmembers will not mix ______ issue clothing items and civilian attire (such as boots, belts, or jackets).
MILITARY
119
The Aircraft Commander _____ be notified if any crew member must arrive more than 30 minutes prior to the normal show time.
Should
120
Emergency Ground Evacuation. Conditions permitting, the primary emergency exit for both crew and passengers will be the
Crew entrance door
121
When directed, the _____ should initiate the evacuation of all passengers through the selected emergency exit. The flight crew should be notified by the Loadmaster of the selected exit and any hazards or issues.
Loadmaster
122
A rally point will should be established ____ at a ____ angle away from the aircraft centerline on the side exited.
300 FT / 45 DEGREE
123
When all personnel are accounted for, determine if it is necessary to \_\_\_\_\_\_separation from the aircraft.
Increase
124
Prior to conducting reverse operations the _____ will conduct a thorough reverse taxi briefing using the 524 SOS IFG.
Loadmaster
125
The _______ will conduct mission communications, as directed by the Aircraft Commander, and relay pertinent information to the pilots when necessary.
LOADMASTER
126
The loadmasters ______ provide torque call-outs starting at 70% TQ.
Will
127
The loadmasters will announce ?\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? over the interphone when the engine torque reaches either 100% TQ or the green torque markers, whichever is lower. The PNF will verbally acknowledge the call. This restriction does not apply to enhanced field performance operations.
TORQUE
128
Full stop landings and touch and go landings are limited to a maximum of _____ per flight hour.
10
129
Unless considerations dictate otherwise, the Pilot?s TCAS should be placed in _______ and the Copilot?s TCAS will be in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
ABOVE / BELOW
130
After landing, the Loadmasters ______ remain seated until the aircraft has taxied clear of the runway, at which point the Loadmaster may leave the jump seat to perform duties for the After Landing Checklist.
Will
131
NVG Operations. The first crew member to positively identify an airfield of intended landing should notify the remaining crew by stating ?\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? Subsequent crew members identifying the airfield should also state ?airfield in sight,? and confirm with the first crew member using clock position and approximate distance.
AIRFIELD IN SIGHT
132
Any time the aircraft will be _________ by U.S. military or diplomatic personnel, the aircraft will have all emergency exits pinned and the cargo door will be locked or secured with a strap to prohibit entry.
UNATTENDED
133
If the ______ cannot be secured with an approved lock, tamper-evident seals should be utilized. Tamper evident tape or distinctive numbered seals satisfy this requirement.
crew entry door
134
Maximum weight limit of the aircraft mounted safe is ____ lbs. and lock boxes will not be used to store liquids of any kind.
20
135
Weapons ______ be stored in the aircraft lock box or kept in a holster on the crew member at all times.
Will
136
Maintain a _____ ft circle of safety from all parts of the aircraft except when authorized in certain loading, unloading, or fueling operations. In these cases, always post guides (spotters) and place wheel chocks in position to prevent the vehicle from backing into the aircraft.
10
137
Vehicles must not be driven towards the aircraft when within ft.
25
138
Base fire marshals prohibit smoking on flight lines, on aprons, in hangars, or on aircraft parking areas except in designated areas. At no time is smoking allowed within ft of an aircraft, fuel tanks, fueling operations, or any flammable substance storage facility.
50
139
Do not use any radios on an aircraft that is being fueled. Do not transmit on a high frequency (HF) radio when fueling operations are being performed within ft of the aircraft.
200
140
Aircrew must conduct HAZMAT transportation IAW \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
AFMAN 24-204
141
Performing Routine Steward?s Duties: As the most ____ crewmember during the flight, your conduct reflects upon the whole crew. So act as if the whole crew?s image depends on your actions.
VISIBLE
142
MEASUREMENTS AND CONVERSIONS: = PSF.
PSI x 144 = PSF
143
MEASUREMENTS AND CONVERSIONS: =50 PSI.
3.45 Bar = 50 Psi
144
CARGO SHALL ONLY BE ATTACHED TO SEAT TRACKS AT THE PAINTED ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿLOCATIONS.
GREEN
145
1 maximum allowable loading: 75 lb/ft2, lb total.
771
146
The cargo door dimensions are: .
55.1in x 36.2in
147
The service door dimensions are: .
49.2in x 20in
148
The passenger/crew door dimensions are: .
66.9in x 30.2in
149
The dimensions of the two emergency exit hatches are: .
35.8in x 20in
150
Pounds per square inch (psi) is derived by ______ the weight of an item by the area bearing on the cargo floor, in square inches (in2).
DIVIDING
151
USE ANY TYPE OF LEVER OR MECHANICAL MEANS TO ASSIST HAND RATCHETING OF THE STRAPS.
DO NOT
152
A MINIMUM OF ____ TURNS ON THE SPOOL MUST BE MAINTAINED TO PREVENT THE STRAP FROM COMING UNSECURe
«
153
The _____ include a continuous and permanent record of aircraft weight, moment, and CG position. This is sometimes referred to as Chart C.
AIRCRAFT FORMS
154
What is the WAM formula?
Weight x Arm = Moment
155
Configuration one consists of ______ passenger seats and approximately 294 ft3 of cargo space.
27
156
Configuration 2 consists of two options, each providing approximately 294 ft3 of cargo space. Option 2A consists of passenger seats plus four litters. Option 2B replaces one litter rack assembly with three rows of dual seats ( seats and 2 litters).
15/21
157
Configuration 3 consists of ____ passenger seats and approximately 470 ft3 of cargo space.
18
158
Configuration 4 consists of up to _____ passenger seats, two litters, and approx. 470 ft3 of cargo space.
12
159
Configuration 5 consists of\_\_\_\_\_ passenger seats and approximately 971 ft3 of cargo space aft of the smoke barrier at FS 298.
4
160
BLOCK 20 TWO-WAY COMMUNICATION SYSTEM: The aft most plug may be used for reverse taxi operations by the loadmaster. All three plugs in the ceiling are tied to the _________ ICS system.
OBSERVER'S
161
The C-146A utility seats are similar to commercial aviation-style seats. A single seat weighs lb and a double seat weighs lb.
19.8/34.4
162
A folded single seat has a weight bearing capacity of lbs.
150
163
A folded double seat has a weight bearing capacity of lbs.
200
164
A double litter stacking system weighs ____ lbs.
133
165
Aisle clearance at its smallest point is _____ in.
20.7
166
[Block 20] Two IV hangars are provided for the litter patients. They are placarded ?For IV Use Only? and have a _ lb IV bag maximum limit.
5
167
[Block 20] The medical bag together with its contents is limited to lb.
100
168
The APU bleed air is fed into the cross-bleed line through a check valve and supplies the ECS . The APU bleed air supply is controlled by an APU BLEED switch/light located on the ECS control panel.
Packs
169
The ACP?s are divided into two groups: ______ & _____ ACP 1,2 and 5 are in the Flight Deck Group; ACP?s 3,4 and 6 are in the Cabin Group
FLIGHT DECK / CABIN
170
The flight controls consists of the following components and subsystems:
Ailerons and Trim Tab, Rubber and Trim Tab, Elevator and Trim Tab, Flaps, Ground Spoilers, Gust Locks and Damper, Stall Warning and Prevention.
171
Fuel transfer within each tank group is made by ______ pumps in the inner and the outer wing tanks. These pumps supply fuel to the feeder tank to keep in in the full state during aircraft operation. outer wing tanks. These pumps supply fuel to the feeder tank to keep in in the full state during aircraft operation.
jet transfer
172
When the left or right electrical booster pump (ELPMP) ______ button is in normal mode (dark), the electrical booster pump is triggered to activate automatically if there is a failure in the jet booster pump (JETPMP).
AUTO
173
\_fuel is taken from the right wing tank group, via the tapping in the main engine cross-feed pipeline.
APU
174
A system of float-operated manual magnetic indicators (magna-sticks) can be used on the ground when no \_power is available to determine the quantity of fuel in the tanks.
Electrical
175
The fuel system receives electrical power from the 28 VDC ESSENTIAL BUS, DC HOT BUS 2, 28 VDC BUS 1, and 28 VDC BUS 2. The circuit breakers of the fuel system are installed on the circuit breaker panel in the flight compartment.
Overhead
176
The left and right wing tank groups can be gravity refueled through a ________ with lockable cap in the inner fuel tank.
FILLER WELL
177
The ______ valves allow the fuel to flow from the inner and the outer tanks into the feeder tank. They do not permit the fuel to flow back again.
Flapper
178
There are ______ drain valves in each fuel tank group. The drain valves are provided for draining condensed water and fuel samples.
5
179
The inner and outer tanks of each wing tank group are vented to the atmosphere by the following components:
Main Vent Line, Vent Float Valves, Vent Tank, Flush Inlet and Overboard Vent Line.
180
The aircraft hydraulic system consists of the following four:
Main Hydraulic System, Standby Hydraulic System, Auxiliary System, Indicating System.
181
The main system supplies hydraulic pressure to the following consumers:
Landing Gear, Main Landing Gear Wheel Brakes, Emergency and Parking Brake, Trailing Edge Flaps, Nose Wheel Steering, Roll Spoilers, Ground Spoilers.
182
The ______ are externally bonded into a recessed portion of the leading edges on the wing and the vertical and horizontal stabilizer.
DE-ICER BOOTS
183
The propeller de-icing system prevents or eliminates ice formation on the propellers. This is done by ____ heating de-icer boots on each blade.
Electrically
