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OPS LIMITS & MQF > LOAD MQF 2014 > Flashcards

LOAD MQF 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

Where can the crash axe be found?

A

In the flight compartment step

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2
Q

The following emergency equipment is located with the crash axe

A

Protective breathing equipment and fire extinguisher

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3
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

A

30, 843 lbs

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4
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

29, 167 lbs

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5
Q

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 12o?

A

200 KIAS

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6
Q

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 32o?

A

160 KIAS

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7
Q

What is the maximum allowable ITT on an engine start?

A

950

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8
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?

A

10 kts

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9
Q

You will get a fuel asymmetry indication when your fuel imbalance exceeds…

A

210 lbs

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10
Q

The APU shall not be started above _________ft pressure altitude.

A

20,000

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11
Q

Maximum Altitude for ECS Single Pack Operations is _________

A

25,000 ft

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12
Q

The pressurization system’s maximum differential pressure is _____________

A

6.9 psi

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13
Q

The pressurization system’s maximum differential pressure for Landing is ________

A

.4 psi

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14
Q

Maximum altitude with flaps extended is ____________

A

18,000 ft MSL

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15
Q

Maximum altitude for landing gear operation is ____________

A

18,000 ft MSL

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16
Q

Flights above 27,000 ft are limited to less than ____ hours.

A

3

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17
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff/landing-Dry runway ____Wet runway____

A

21 kt and 15 kt

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18
Q

After landing on unpaved runways do not select reverse below _____ KIAS to avoid foreign object ingestion/damage.

A

55

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19
Q

The propeller de-icing system must be activated during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist.

A

True

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20
Q

The maximum holding airspeed is _______ kts.

A

175 kts

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21
Q

What is the minimum flight weight of the C-146A?

A

20,724 lbs

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22
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

FL 310

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23
Q

The number of plug type emergency exits in the passenger compartment is:

A

Two

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24
Q

What is the wheel base for the C-146A?

A

10 ft 7 inches

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25
Q

Up to _________ emergency exits are in the passenger compartment.

A

Four

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26
Q

All cabin doors can be used as:

A

Emergency exits

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27
Q

The purpose of the ELPMP in the feeder tank is:

A

To provide fuel pressure for starting and act as a backup for the jet booster pumps

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28
Q

When the flight crew presses the EMG CALL button on the crew station:

A

The EMG button in the flight deck flashes to indicate an emergency call

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29
Q

Which aircraft components are the primary suppliers of DC current in normal operations?

A

2 starter/generators and 2 24V, 42Ah lead-acid batteries

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30
Q

Under normal flight conditions DC power is generated by:

A

Two DC starter/generators

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31
Q

What is the function of the TRU?

A

To convert AC power to DC power

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32
Q

When DC external power is connected:

A

The two batteries and the two starter generators are automatically disconnected

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33
Q

In the wing tanks, the following pumps are installed:

A

Electrical boost pumps and jet pumps

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34
Q

The APU normally draws fuel from:

A

The RH wing tank group

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35
Q

Fuel transfer between the inner and outer tanks to the feeder tank is accomplished by:

A

Jet transfer pumps

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36
Q

The purpose of the jet transfer pumps is:

A

To keep the feeder tank full

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37
Q

It is possible to transfer fuel from one tank group to the other:

A

On the ground from the refuel/defuel panel

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38
Q

Fuel quantity is indicated on:

A

On EICAS main page, fuel system page, and the RMU, By magna sticks and On the refuel/defuel panel

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39
Q

If a malfunction occurs in either sensing element loop or its associated wiring, the:

A

LOOP FAIL indicators of fire warning extinguisher panel comes on

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40
Q

Verification of the fired bottle discharge can be assured:

A

By the white DIS light in the squib push-button

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41
Q

When an engine fire is indicated, the control unit produces a fire signal which causes:

A
  • Aural warning on the loud speakers and headphone sounds
  • The LH, RH ENG fire field on the red warning panel illuminates
  • The ENG LH fire light/switch illuminates
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42
Q

Discharging the fire bottle is accomplished:

A

By pushing the squib push-button after the squib has been armed

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43
Q

The engine fire extinguishing system:

A

Has four extinguishing bottles, two for each engine

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44
Q

The hydraulic system consists of:

A

Main, standby, auxiliary

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45
Q

The power source for the hydraulic main pump is:

A

AC variable power

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46
Q

The power source for standby pump is:

A

DC 28 V

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47
Q

Hydraulic consumers are:

A

Landing gear, main brakes, E/P brake, nose wheel steering, wing flaps, roll spoilers, and ground spoilers

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48
Q

The standby pump switch selection during normal operation is:

A

AUTO

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49
Q

The standby pump in the auto mode will switch on:

A

If system pressure drops below 1958 psi

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50
Q

The accumulators are used by:

A

Main system, normal brakes, and E/P brake

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51
Q

With the standby hydraulic selector on the control panel selected with the MAN position

A

The DC pump runs continuously

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52
Q

The hydraulically operated flight controls are:

A

The flaps and roll spoilers

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53
Q

Flaps are:

A

Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated

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54
Q

The emergency brake system uses supply pressure from:

A

The main hydraulic system and/or the E/P brake accumulator

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55
Q

In order to extend the gear during an abnormal gear extension, the manual selector valve must be:

A

In the landing gear emergency extension position

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56
Q

What is the total fuel capacity (manual)?

A

What is the total fuel capacity (manual)?

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57
Q

How is an impending fuel imbalance notification indicated?

A

A blue advisory CAS message

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58
Q

Which of the following will not trigger a T/O CONF waning?

A

Ground Spoilers armed

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59
Q

A caution is presented by a:

A

Single chime, a message on the CAS field, and an indication (when applicable) on the system page

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60
Q

Four stairway lights, integrated into the stairs of the crew/passenger entrance door, are activated by:

A

The STAIR switch on the loadmaster’s panel

61
Q

The emergency lights can be activated:

A

Automatically if the main aircraft power supply fails

and Manually by a switch on the loadmaster’s panel

62
Q

External emergency lights are located:

A

Adjacent to the emergency exit doors

63
Q

What is the power source when the cargo lighting system is set to TIMER?

A

Battery voltage via the DC HOT BUS 1

64
Q

The oxygen system consists of:

A

An oxygen bottle system for crew and passengers

65
Q

When the cockpit oxygen masks are used

A

The microphone control must be switched over on the audio control panel

66
Q

The crew oxygen masks are equipped with:

A

Manual selector with Normal, 100%, and Emergency settings

67
Q

The purpose of the PAX SUPPLY guarded pushbutton on the overhead panel is:

A

To switch off the passenger oxygen system when desired

68
Q

The oxygen bottle quantity can be checked:

A

On the CPCS / Oxygen system page

69
Q

The oxygen supply for the passengers is made available by the:

A
  • Altitude switch
  • Manual drop-out switch
  • Separation valve
70
Q

What are the conditions necessary to supply oxygen to the passengers?

A

Solenoid valve open, cabin altitude above 10,000’

71
Q

The drop-out oxygen masks are activated automatically by an altitude switch if the aircraft suffers decompression with a cabin altitude greater than___________ . When the aircraft descends below____________ the oxygen supply to the drop-out units is stopped:

A

13,800 ft ± 700ft; 10,000 ft

72
Q

To prevent smoke or fumes entering the mask or smoke goggles:

A

Select EMER on demand regulator

73
Q

The function of the X-Bleed valve is:

A
  • To supply bleed air to both packs from one engine

- To supply bleed air to both packs from the APU

74
Q

Which systems are supplied by bleed air?

A
  • The de-icing system

- The air conditioning system

75
Q

A bleed air leak is indicated on:

A

The EICAS system page

76
Q

The gust lock is designed to protect:

A

The elevators and ailerons

77
Q

What is the main purpose of the condition levers?

A

To set the required propeller RPM

78
Q

What positions/ranges are there for the condition levers?

A

Fuel off, feather, min, high taxi, maximum(not placarded)

79
Q

APU is ready to accept electrical and/or bleed air loads is indicated by:

A

READY TO LOAD on the APU system page

80
Q

If an APU OVERSPEED is displayed on the APU system page, the following will happen:

A

The APU will shut down both in flight and on ground

81
Q

When the APU master switch/light is pressed and the ON caption comes on the following occurs:

A
  • Electrical power (28vDC) is supplied to the START switch/light and to the APU electronic control Unit (ECU)
  • APU fuel shut-off valve moves to the open position
82
Q

Maintain a____________ circle of safety from all parts of the aircraft except when authorized in certain loading, unloading, or fueling operations.

A

10 foot

83
Q

When vehicles are left unattended on the flight line you must:

A

Place transmission in low gear or “park” position

84
Q

There are two ____________ in emergency exit passenger hatches in the cabin, one in the front of the cabin on the right side directly opposite from the crew/passenger door and one on the left side just aft of the trailing edge of the wing.

A

35.8x20 in.

85
Q

The cargo door dimensions are:

A

55.1 x 36.2 in.

86
Q

The service door dimensions are:

A

49.2 x 20 in.

87
Q

A single seat weighs _______ and a double seat weighs _________.

A

19.8 lbs. and 34.4 lbs.

88
Q

Each double-deck litter rack assembly weighs _______.

A

133 lbs.

89
Q

A minimum of _______turn on the spool must be maintained to prevent the strap from coming unsecure.

A

½

90
Q

The green marks on the cargo floor seat tracks indicate _____________________________.

A

Cargo hold down attachment points

91
Q

When the fuel load is unknown, load plan for a_________ percent of mean aerodynamic chord
(MAC)zero fuel.

A

21-40

92
Q

What is the formula for PSI of a wheeled load?

A

wheel load / pad area = psi

93
Q

Configuration One allows for______ passengers.

A

27

94
Q

Configuration two allows for ____________passengers.

A

15 plus four litters or 21 plus two litters

95
Q

Configuration three allows for ____________passengers.

A

18

96
Q

Configuration four allows for ___________passengers

A

12 plus two litters

97
Q

Configuration five allows for _____________passengers.

A

4

98
Q

_______________indicate(s) a mandatory requirement.

A

“Must”, “Will” and “Shall”

99
Q

_____________indicates a recommended procedure.

A

Should

100
Q

_______indicates an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment.

A

May

101
Q

__________indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which will result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.

A

Warning

102
Q

__________indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which will result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.

A

Caution

103
Q

_________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which are essential to emphasize.

A

Note

104
Q

A minimum of one additional pilot or one loadmaster is required when carrying more than ___ passengers.

A

10

105
Q

Crewmembers occupying a primary crew position will have seat belts fastened_________.

A

at all times

106
Q

Floor loading is authorized to support dedicated_____________________ during contingencies, exercises, or training.

A

Special operations forces team members or liter medical patients

107
Q

Accomplish alternate passenger restraints by one of the following methods in descending order of preference:

A
  • Seatbelts or snap links attached to tie-down rings on the cabin floor
  • Five thousand (5000) pound tie-down straps
108
Q

Aircrew will complete before landing checklists no lower than:

A

200 ft AGL

109
Q

Taxi width. Minimum width for all operations___________.

A

22 feet

110
Q

Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least feet.

A

25

111
Q

With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ________feet.

A

10

112
Q

Runway width. Minimum width for normal operations is________.

A

35 feet

113
Q

Identification Tags. Identification tags should be worn around the neck or carried in a flight suit pocket. If identification tags are not carried, member will carry a military issued ____________ .

A

identification card

114
Q

A _________ are required on ALL flights.

A

headset and operable flashlight

115
Q

Crew members will remove ________________ before performing aircrew duties.

A

rings and scarves

116
Q

Each crew member is required to carry an EFB with current publications. Crews will ensure paper backup copies of required in-flight publications are carried unless approved for paperless cockpit transition.

A

True

117
Q

Passenger Briefings. Prior to each flight, the loadmaster will ensure that all passengers are briefed.

A

Prior to each flight

118
Q

Minimum Fuel is _______ pounds and Emergency Fuel is 250 pounds.

A

450 lbs

119
Q

Anti-exposure suits for the aircrew will be readily available during any preplanned overwater flights which are beyond power off gliding distance from land and the water temperature is ____ Fahrenheit (F)/(16°C) or less.

A

60

120
Q

________accept hazardous materials unless proper documentation, certification, and identification of cargo are provided.

A

Do not

121
Q

If an armed crew member must leave the crew en route, transfer the weapon to another authorized crew member using_______________.

A

AF form 1297, Temporary issue Receipt

122
Q

Due to the sensitivity of weapons in foreign countries, crews will keep their weapons_________.

A

Inside the aircraft and out of sight of foreign nationals

123
Q

Weapons need not be _______________ before being placed in the gun box.

A

Unloaded

124
Q

If individuals must clear their weapons before boarding the aircraft, and access to clearing barrel/facilities is limited, as a minimum, direct them to: move to a safe, clear area at least __________ feet from any aircraft, equipment, or personnel before upholstering/unslinging their weapons.

A

50

125
Q

Passengers may be anti-hijack inspected at the aircraft by _____________ if no passenger processing facility exists.

A

Passengers may be anti-hijack inspected at the aircraft by _____________ if no passenger processing facility exists.

126
Q

Loadmaster in-flight duties include but not limited to____________________.

A

airspeeds, altitudes, headings, TCAS, monitoring systems

127
Q

Load aircraft in such a manner that emergency exits are available as follows: Emergency Exits and Safety Aisles: At least cabin emergency exit is unobstructed.

A

one

128
Q

Access to the rear of the aircraft and entry into cargo or baggage areas, or emergency exits must be maintained without exception. No less than _______________ space will be provided.

A

30 inch by 14 inch

129
Q

_____________passengers to lounge on or tamper with equipment, cargo, or baggage.

A

Do not allow

130
Q

Ensure ________________ remains covered during the entire mission when passengers are on board and ensure passengers are denied access to this equipment.

A

classified equipment

131
Q

_____________ with quick release is authorized as restraint for specific SOF operations.

A

Pig tails

132
Q

Cellular phones must be turned off and stowed from the time____________ clear of the runway after landing.

A

the aircraft leaves parking its parking spot

133
Q

When shipping Hazardous Cargo who is ultimately responsible?

A

the pilot in command

134
Q

Supplemental oxygen must be used by all persons while above _________ ft. MSL.

A

14,000

135
Q

Individuals suspected of DCS should be administered and remain on ______________ (using tight-fitting mask or equivalent) until evaluated by competent aviation medical authority.

A

100% oxygen

136
Q

An alert crew will not remain in alert status for more than ___ consecutive ___ hour periods

A

2, 72

137
Q

Landing lights will be illuminated below ___ft.

A

10,000 ft MSL

138
Q

If the autopilot is not operational or its use is denied for more
than 4 hours (8 hours augmented), the FDP will be _____hours (16 hours augmented).

A

12

139
Q

Post mission crew rest is computed at the rate of ____ hour off for each____ hours off-station, up to 96 hours.

A

1, 3

140
Q

Aircrew members will not fly within 72 hours after donating blood, plasma or bone marrow. The flying unit commander must approve donations of blood, plasma or bone marrow by aircrew members.

A

True

141
Q

Aircrew members will not fly within hours of consuming alcohol or while impaired by its after effects.

A

12

142
Q

What MUST the shipper provide on the Shipper’s Declaration of Dangerous Goods when transporting hazardous material?

A

24-hr emergency response phone number

143
Q

HAZMAT. What are “P” codes?

A

Passenger Eligibility codes

144
Q

What is a Chapter 3 movement?

A

Tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift

145
Q

A Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods is not required for Chapter 3 movement.

A

True

146
Q

In the absence of an Air Cargo Manifest, the ____________________form may serve as a shipping paper.

A

Shipper‘s Declaration for Dangerous Goods

147
Q

What mark on the segregation table indicates that articles may not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by a distance of 88 inches in all directions?

A

O

148
Q

What mark on the segregation table indicates that articles must not be loaded, transported, or stored together?

A

X

OPS LIMITS & MQF (6 decks)

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