Physiology of the Blood and the Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

A fat-free individual is about what % water?

A

60%

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2
Q

Total Body Water (TBW)

A

(0.6 * body weight)

42 liters in a 70 kg person

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3
Q

intracellular fluid relative to TBW

A

2/3 TBW

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4
Q

extracellular fluid relative to TBW

A

1/3 TBW

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5
Q

ECF can be subdivided into

A
  • interstitial fluid (3/4 ECF)

- plasma (1/4 ECF)

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6
Q

Blood volume comprises about ( ) of body fluids

A

5-6 liters

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7
Q

Blood fluid parts and percentages

A

55% Plasma; 45% formed elements

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8
Q

cells of blood

A
  • erythrocytes
  • leukocytes
  • thrombocytes (platelets)
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9
Q

Blood plasma composition

A

91-93% water; 7-9% solids

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10
Q

classification of leukocytes

A
  • polymorphonuclear granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)
  • monocytes (macrophages)
  • lymphocytes (B cells, T cells)
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11
Q

enable clotting

A

platelets

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12
Q

where does hematopoiesis take place?

A

bone marrow (red marrow of long bones)

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13
Q

blood cells are constantly formed from

A

hematopoietic stem cells

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14
Q

multi-potent uncommitted stem cells divide and some daughter cells become ( ) that then progress to fully-differentiated blood cells

A

committed stem cells

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15
Q

in the fetus, hematopoeisis occurs where?

A

in the liver and spleen

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16
Q

red bone marrow is called ( ) tissue

A

myeloid

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17
Q

how long to RBCs survive?

A

100-120 days (3-4 months)

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18
Q

how much blood is there be mm^3 of blood?

A

5 million

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19
Q

out of the following, which do RBCs have:

  • nucleus
  • mitochondria
  • ribosomes
  • other organelles
A

none

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20
Q

produces lymphocytes from stem cells that originated in the bone marrow

A

lymphoid tissue

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21
Q

3 basic functions of lymphoid tissue:

A

1) transport of interstitial fluid back to blood
2) transport of fat absorbed from gut to blood
3) provide immunological defenses against disease causing agents via lymphocytes

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22
Q

( )% of the dry weight of a red cell is made up of hemoglobin

A

95%

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23
Q

A hemoglobin molecule contains 4 protein chains each bound to an ( )

A

iron-containing heme

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24
Q

what is the basic regulator of erythrocyte production (erythropoiesis)

A

tissue oxygenation

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25
Q

hormone that is released by the kidney into the blood that stimulated bone marrow to increase RBC production

A

erythropoietin

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26
Q

the maturation factor

A

B-12

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27
Q

Deficiency of B-12 is not normally due to lack of adequate amounts of it in our diets, but rather…

A

because it cannot be absorbed directly from the GI tract without the presence of intrinsic factor

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28
Q

In what disease is the gastric mucosa atrophied and intrinsic factor is no longer secreted

A

pernicious anemia

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29
Q

clumping of cells

A

agglutination

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30
Q

These antibodies, when they cause the cells to adhere together, are called ( )

A

agglutinins

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31
Q

the blood type of an individual depends upon

A

the receptors on the cells (agglutinogens)

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32
Q

blood type O: agglutinogen

A

none

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33
Q

blood type O: agglutinin

A

anti-A, B

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34
Q

blood type A: agglutinogen

A

A

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35
Q

blood type A: agglutinin

A

anti-B

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36
Q

blood type B: agglutinogen

A

B

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37
Q

blood type B: agglutinin

A

anti-A

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38
Q

blood type AB: agglutinogen

A

AB

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39
Q

blood type AB: agglutinin

A

none

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40
Q

specific sequences/part of antigen that can be bound by anti-body

A

epitopes

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41
Q

number of platelets (number and relative to other blood types)

A

300,000 mm^3; more than WBC, less than RBC

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42
Q

what are platelets?

A

cell fragments from megakaryocytes

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43
Q

refers to the prevention of blood loss (hemorrhage)

A

hemostasis

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44
Q

hemostasis occurs by means of:

A

1) constriction of blood vessels
2) platelet reactions
3) coagulation
4) depositions of fibrous tissue

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45
Q

hemostasis stage: vascular spasm

A

constriction of blood vessels

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46
Q

hemostasis stage: plug and vessel contruction

A

platelet reactions

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47
Q

hemostasis stage: clotting of blood

A

coagulation

48
Q

hemostasis stage: closes rupture permanently

A

deposition of fibrous tissue

49
Q

platelet reactions are activated by

A

agonists

50
Q

primary hemostasis

A

platelet reactions

51
Q

seconary hemostasis

A

coagulation

52
Q

platelet reactions: when the platelets come in contact with a damaged vessel surface, they change their characteristics

A

platelet activation

53
Q

platelet reactions: platelets undergo ( ) to the site of injury

A

adhesion

54
Q

platelet reactions: platelets swell, become sticky, and form a platelet plug by ( )

A

aggregation

55
Q

platelet reactions: platelets provide a ( ) for clotting factors

A

phospholipid surface

56
Q

platelet reactions: platelets also release vasocontrictors, serotonin, and thromboxane A2 by ( )

A

secretion

57
Q

platelet reactions: activated platelets also secrete a protein called ( )

A

platelet derived growth factor

58
Q

what does platelet derived growth factor do?

A

stimulates the growth and migration of fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells within the vessel wall

59
Q

platelets in the intact circulations are

A

quiescent (inactive)

60
Q

clotting: after vessel damage occurs, ( ) is converted to thrombin

A

prothrombin

61
Q

clotting: after prothrombing converts to thrombin, what’s the next conversion?

A

fibringogen to fibrin

62
Q

the clotting cascading pathways converge on the ( ) for formation of a clot

A

final common pathway

63
Q

what does the extrinsic pathway begin with?

A

blood coming in contact with traumatized vascular wall or extra vascular tissue

64
Q

what does the intrinsic pathway begin with?

A

trauma to the blood itself

65
Q

An enzyme in the blood that digests fibrin and promotes dissolution of clots

A

plasmin

66
Q

prevent clotting

A

anticoagulants

67
Q

anticoagulant: platelet inhibitors

A

aspirin

68
Q

anticoagulant: prevention of proper synthesis of clotting factors

A

coumarin, warfarin

69
Q

anticoagulant: thrombin inhibitor

A

heparin

70
Q

anticoagulant: Ca2+ chelators

A

EDTA, cilrate

71
Q

constitutes all the physiological mechanisms which allow the body to recognize materials as foreign or abnormal and to neutralize or eliminate them

A

immunity

72
Q

includes both external and internal defenses which are always present and represent the first line of defense against potential pathogens

A

non-specific (innate) immunity

73
Q

examples of non-specific (innate) immunity

A

skin and phagocytic cells

74
Q

what are the chasers in the immune system?

A

neutrophils

75
Q

what percentage of blood are RBCs?

A

99%

76
Q

leukocytes are subdivided into:

A

1) polymorphonuclear granulocytes

2) mononuclear agranulocytes

77
Q

polymorphonuclear granulocytes include:

A

1) neutrophils
2) eosinophils
3) basophils

78
Q

mononuclear agranulocytes include:

A

1) monocytes

2) lymphocytes

79
Q

most abundant WBCs

A

neutrophils

80
Q

WBC formed in the ( ); lymphocytes are formed in the ( )

A
  • bone marrow

- lymph tissues

81
Q

diapedesis, ameboid motion, chemotaxis, and phagocytosis are properties of

A

neutrophils and monocytes

82
Q

neutrophil and monocyte property: can squeeze through pores smaller than themselves

A

diapedesis

83
Q

neutrophil and monocyte property: a method of cell locomotion

A

ameboid motion

84
Q

neutrophil and monocyte property: move toward a chemical attractant

A

chemotaxis

85
Q

neutrophil and monocyte property: ingestion and digestion of particulate matter

A

phagocytosis

86
Q

what are capable of leaving the blood vessels and entering the tissues?

A

neutrophils and monocytes

87
Q

when are neutrophils considered mature?

A

when the leave the blood vessels and enter the tissue

88
Q

when are monocytes considered mature?

A

not until they go into the tissues

89
Q

WBC: exhibit phagocytosis to a smaller degree, detoxify foreign protein, clean up last stages of infection, and help in dissolving blood clots

A

eosinophils

90
Q

WBC: do no exhibit phagocytosis, contain and release chemicals such as histamine, virtually identical to mast cells

A

basophils

91
Q

found in connective tissue throughout the body but don’t circulate

A

mast cells

92
Q

mediated by lymphocytes and depend upon prior exposure to a specific foreign material

A

specific (acquired or adaptive) immune responses

93
Q

acquired immunity can be obtained in which two ways:

A

1) by developing antibodies

2) by developing sensitized lymphocytes

94
Q

type of immunity: developing antibodies

A

humoral

95
Q

type of immunity: developing sensitized lymphocytes

A

cellular (cell-mediated)

96
Q

response to local inflammation includes what type of immune response?

A

both innate and acquired

97
Q

what type of lymphocytes are involved in humoral immunity?

A

B lymphocytes

98
Q

what type of lymphocytes are involved in cell-mediated immunity?

A

T lymphocytes

99
Q

lymphocyte: have specific receptors on their surface for antigen recognition?

A

B lymphocytes

100
Q

B lymphocytes mature into antibody-producing ( )

A

plasma cells

101
Q

secrete antibodies that can identify foreign cells as targets for destruction by phagocytosis or complement system activation

A

plasma cells

102
Q

responsible for protection against some viruses, bacteria, and cancer cells

A

Killer T Cells

103
Q

How do Killer T Cells act?

A
  • kill the viral or bacterial host or the cancer cell

- reject transplanted organts

104
Q

T cell: help B cells become antibody-producing plasma cells (enhance immune response)

A

helper T cells

105
Q

T cell: participate in the suppression of the immune response (suppressor, break on immune)

A

regulatory T cells

106
Q

T cells recognize antigens bound to ( ) protein molecules on antigen presenting cells, thus requiring cell-cell contact to carry out their functions

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

107
Q

what is important for activating proteins in cells?

A

Interleukin 2

108
Q

Special B and T cells that “remember” a specific antigen and will quickly generate an immune response when exposed to that antigen again

A

Memory Cells

109
Q

cardinal feature of specific immune responses include:

A

1) specificity
2) memory
3) amplification
4) self-discrimination

110
Q

cardinal: immune to smallpox, not immune to diphtheria

A

specificity

111
Q

cardinal: develops with previous experience to foreign material

A

memory

112
Q

cardinal: happens when confronted with same antigen for a second time

A

amplification

113
Q

cardinal: recognizes material from one’s own body

A

self-discrimination

114
Q

the ratio of packed RBCs to total blood volume in a centrifuged sample of blood, expressed as a percentage

A

hematocrit

115
Q

healthy hematocrit in women

A

36-46%

116
Q

healty hematocrite in men

A

41-53%