Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ZZZZKCU Comprehensive Exam Review Andy > Physiology II Exam 3 > Flashcards

Physiology II Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

The liver has a low blood flow and a high vascular resistance
The liver has a low blood flow and a low vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and high vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

A

The liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following would not be a function of the liver?

Gluconeogenesis
Formation of Urea
Synthesis of Prothrombin
Synthesis of Calbindin

A

Synthesis of Calbindin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of the metabolic syndrome associated with diabetes?

Peripheral Neuropathy
Obesity
Fasting Hyperglycemia
Hypertension

A

Peripheral Neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Heme is released from damaged RBCs and split into globin and heme by macrophages. Heme is then converted into which of the following by heme oxygenase?

Cholic Acid
Biliverdin
Bilirubin
Urobilinogen

A

Biliverdin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following conditions.

Jaundice
Cirrhosis
Ascites
Diabetes

A

Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following best represents the most important function of insulin in the body?

Activates phosphorylase and phosphatase necessary for the uptake of glucose by the liver
Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy
Activates lipoprotein lipase to split triglycerides into fatty acids
Activates the ornithine transport mechanism

A

Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the pituitary gland, somatotropes (acidophils) secrete which of the following trophic hormones?

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
Human Growth Factor
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
Luteinizing Hormone

A

Human Growth Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The hormone response element is best characterized by which of the following?

An intracellular protein that binds to a lipid soluble hormone to form the hormone-receptor complex
A regulatory sequence of DNA
Phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate component of a second-messenger system
A tyrosine-binding protein for thyroxine

A

A regulatory sequence of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Some signal transduction mechanisms involve calcium. In these pathways a change in membrane potential opens calcium channels. Calcium ions enter the cell and bind to which of the following?

Janus Kinase
The receptor component of a G protein
Calmodulin
Diacylglycerol

A

Calmodulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Down regulation of receptors may occur as a result of which of the following:

Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
Activation of some of the receptor molecules
Increased production of receptors
Increase in the target cell’s responsiveness to the hormone

A

Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

One of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid releasing hormone secretion is…?

Cold
Anxiety
cAMP
Excitement

A

Cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of hyperthyroidism?

Hashimoto Disease
Grave’s Disease
Endemic Goiter
Cretinism

A

Grave’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The basal membranes of thyroid cells contain symporters for iodide. What ion is co-transported with iodine by these symporters?

Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
Hydrogen

A

Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The major hormonal product of the thyroid gland is thyroxine. How many iodinated tyrosine residues are found in thyroxine?

One
Two
Three
Four

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pendrin is used for which of the following functions?

As a sodium-iodide symporter in the basal membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
As a hepatic-derived conjugating protein for the transport of thyroxine in the blood
As a chloride-iodide counter-transport in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
As a decoupling protein used to separate iodide from thyroglobulin during the recycling of thyroxine

A

As a chloride-iodide counter-transport in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Osteoclasts do not have receptors for parathyroid hormone; instead they respond to secondary signals from osteocytes which do have the receptors. Which of the following is important as a major secondary signal ligand in this communication process?

Osteoprotegerin
Pendrin
Calmodulin
Calbindin

A

Osteoprotegrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hyperkalemia, mild acidosis, rise in RBC concentration, loss of ability to maintain normal blood glucose concentrations between meals, and changes in pigmentation pattern are all consistent with which of the following conditions? (Don’t assume exact same question will appear on test, think about variation could we have on the test) (Use as examples of what you will see on the test, but not word for word)

Cushing’s
Hypothyroidism
Addison’s
Hyperparathyroidism

A

Addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is/are functions of glucocorticoids? (Think about which is not a function)

Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
Decreased glucose utilization by cells
Resists inflammation
Resists stress
All the above are functions of glucocorticoids
A

All the above are functions of glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aldosterone is the major mineralocorticoid and is secreted by which of the following regions of the adrenal cortex?

Zona Glomerulosa
Zona Fasciculata
Zona Reticularis
Zona Medullaris

A

Zona Glomerulosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cortisol secretion is controlled mainly by which of the following factors?

Plasma potassium concentration
Angiotensinogen II
Plasma sodium concentration
ACTH

A

ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following resists stress, resists inflammation and stimulates gluconeogenesis but may lead to “adrenal diabetes?”

Aldosterone
Cortisol
Angiotensin II
Pregnenolone

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of lack of aldosterone?

Reduction in blood volume
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Reduction in blood pressure

A

Hypernatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

“Adrenal Diabetes” may occur due to excess of which of the following?

Aldosterone
Mineralocorticoids
Glucocorticoids
Androgenic Hormones

A

Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Addison’s Disease is due to a deficiency of which of the following?

Glucocorticoids
Mineralocorticoids
Androgenic Hormones
Both A and B

A

Glucocorticoids

Mineralocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following characteristics of Addison’s Disease is due to a glucocorticoid deficiency?

Muscle Weakness
Decrease in cardiac output
Rise in RBC concentration
Mild Acidosis

A

Muscle Weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The major glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex is…?

Aldosterone
Estrogen
Cortisol
DHEA

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Spironolactone blocks mineralocorticoid receptors. This would probably have which of the following effects?

Hypernatremia
Increase in extracellular fluid volume
Reduction in cardiac output
Anemia

A

Reduction in cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Moon face, “buffalo torso,” hypertension and increased blood glucose are characteristics of which of the following?

Addison’s Disease
Cushing’s Disease
Cretinism
Grave’s Disease

A

Cushing’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The active form of Vitamin D promotes the intestinal uptake of calcium by increasing the formation of which of the following substances?

Apoprotein B
Calbindin
Albumin
Calciferol

A

Calbindin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels?

12 mg/dl
9.5 mg/dl
6 mg/dl
4 mg/dl

A

4 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Normally the body takes in about 1000 mg of calcium per day orally. How much of this is lost in the feces per day?

350 mg
750 mg
900 mg
990 mg

A

900 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Parathyroid Hormone has which of the following effects on renal tubules?

PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of sodium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium, calcium and sodium

A

PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-hydroxycholecalciferol in which of the following?

Bone
Liver
Blood
Kidney

A

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Death due to hypoparathyroidism is often due to which of the following effects?

Massive losses of calcium from the skeletal system
Excessive reabsorption of sodium followed by tetany
Laryngeal muscle spasms
Vitamin D Deficiency

A

Laryngeal muscle spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Approximately 40% of plasma calcium is bound to plasma proteins and is not filtered by the kidneys. What effect does acidosis have on plasma calcium ion concentration (unbound)?

There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases
There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decreases
There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases
There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decreases

A

There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following nerves supplies parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland?

Facial Nerve
Trigeminal Nerve
Glossopharyngeal Nerve
Vagus Nerve

A

Glossopharyngeal Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following conditions describes the effects of the ANS on sweat glands in the hands and feet?

Parasympathetic; cholinergic
Parasympathetic; adrenergic
Sympathetic; cholinergic
Sympathetic; adrenergic

A

Sympathetic; cholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following acts as an antihypertensive agent by being uptaken by adrenergic neurons and replacing norepinephrine in the synaptic vesicles?

Methoxamine
Albuterol
Guanethidine
Phenoxybenzadine

A

Guanethidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The greater splanchnic nerve originates from spinal cord levels T5-T9. Which of the following statements concerning the nerve is correct?

It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion
It is composed of postganglionic fibers and terminates within the wall of the gut tube
It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion
It is composed of preganglionic fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion

A

It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Beta-3 Receptors are involved in which of the following functions?

Adrenergic, Thermogenesis
Adrenergic, Glycogenolysis
Adrenergic, Cardiac Acceleration
Adrenergic, Vasoconstriction

A

Adrenergic, Thermogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Norepinephrine is synthesized from which of the following?

Glycine
Tyrosine
Threonine
Alanine

A

Tyrosine- Thyroxine is also synthesized from tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following responses would not be part of the alarm response?

Increased arterial pressure
Increased glycogenesis
Increased blood glucose concentration
Increased mental activity

A

Increased glycogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into tissues remains active for only a few seconds. Norepinephrine/Epinephrine secreted into blood remains active longer. Which of the following explains the reason for these differences?

The neurotransmitters are immediately uptaken in the tissues
Monoamine-oxidase destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues
COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues
The neurotransmitters immediately diffuse away from the site when secreted into the tissues

A

COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues

44
Q

Which of the following is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?

Relaxation of GI tract sphincters
Strong stimulation of glands of upper GI tract
Pupil Constriction
Strong Stimulation of sweat glands

A

Strong Stimulation of sweat glands

45
Q

Which of the following types of receptors are found at the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle cells?

Nicotinic
Muscarinic
Alpha-1
Beta-1

46
Q

About 75% of all parasympathetic fibers are located in which of the following locations.

Trigeminal nerve
Vagus nerve
Lesser splanchnic nerve
Greater Splanchnic Nerve

A

Vagus nerve

47
Q

Which of the following ANS fibers pass through the gray rami?

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

A

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers

48
Q

Which of the following characterize postganglionic neurons in the ANS?

The are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the CNS; they all use acetylcholine
They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the PNS; they all use norepinephrine
Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine
Cell bodies are located in the CNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine

A

Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine

49
Q

Which of the following has antihypertensive actions as a result of its ability to deplete norepinephrine and other monoamine neurotransmitters by blocking its synthesis and storage from peripheral sympathetic nerve endings?

Methoxamine
Reserpine
Hexamethonium
Isoproteronal

50
Q

Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands?

Occulomotor nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Facial nerve

51
Q

Which of the following hormones exerts an interstitial cell-stimulating effect on testes of male fetus, resulting in the production of testosterone until birth?

Estrogen
Progesterone
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
Human Somatomammotropin

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

52
Q

Fructose, which provides energy for sperm, is secreted by which of the following?

Seminal Vesicles
Prostate Gland
Cells of Leydig
Sertoli Cells

A

Seminal Vesicles

53
Q

Inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary and is secreted by which of the following:

Seminal Vesicles
Prostate Gland
Cells of Leydig
Sertoli Cells

A

Sertoli Cells

54
Q

Plasma testosterone levels in the newborn male are due to which of the following?

Seminal Vesicles
Prostate Gland
Cells of Leydig
Sertoli Cells

A

Cells of Leydig

55
Q

In the progression from primordial germ cells to mature sperm cells, which of the following would be the first cells to have a haploid genome?

Primary spermatocytes
Secondary spermatocytes
Spermatids
Mature Sperm cells

A

Secondary spermatocytes

56
Q

In order to gain motility, sperm cells must be stored in which of the following for at least 18-24 hours?

Seminal vesicles
Prostate Gland
Epididymis
Rete Testis

A

Epididymis

57
Q

Approximately 60% of the total volume of semen is derived from which of the following sources?

Bulbourethral Glands
Epididymis
Prostate Gland
Seminal Vesicles

A

Seminal Vesicles

58
Q

In males, gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulates mostly the release of which of the following gonadotropic hormones?

LH
FSH
Estrogen
Testosterone

59
Q

During spermatogenesis residual bodies are eliminated. Residual bodies consist of which of the following components?

Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi
Excess cytoplasm, RER, Mitochondria
Excess cytoplasm, RER, Centrioles
Excess cytoplasm, RER, nuclear membrane

A

Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi

60
Q

Interstitial Cells of Leydig are almost non-existent in the testes during which of the following stages?

At Birth
Early childhood
After Puberty
Adulthood

A

Early childhood

61
Q

Testosterone that is not fixed in tissues is converted into other compounds and conjugated to be excreted in the gut or urine. The initial conversion to other compounds occurs in which of the following structures?

Epididymis
Liver
Spleen
Gallbladder

62
Q

Shortly after birth in the ovaries of the human female, all the germ cells in the ovaries are in which of the following developmental stages?

Metaphase Stage of Meiosis II
First Polar Body Stage
Granulosa Cell Stage
Diplotene Stage of Meiosis I

A

Diplotene Stage of Meiosis I

63
Q

The oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in its primordial state prior to puberty is secreted by which of the following?

Anterior Pituitary
Hypothalamus
Granulosa Cells
Corpus Luteum

A

Granulosa cells

64
Q

During the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following?

LH
FSH
Estrogen
Progesterone

65
Q

Pregnenolone is an intermediate in the synthesis of progesterone from cholesterol. It is synthesized in which of the following?

Granulosa Cells Only
Granulosa and Theca Cells
Theca Cells Only
None of the above

A

Granulosa and Theca Cells

66
Q

Which of the following hormones would be predominate at about day 22 of the human female sexual cycle?

LH
FSH
Estrogen
Progesterone

A

Progesterone

67
Q

Hyaluronidase released from the sperm acrosome is necessary to breach which of the following barriers?

The Corona Radiata
The Zona Pellucida
The Egg Plasmalemma
The Thecal Cells

A

The Corona Radiata

68
Q

Fertilization occurs in the upper third of the fallopian tube. By the time the blastocyst reaches the uterus, it consists of approximately how many cells?

11
48
100
1,000

69
Q

During pregnancy, the progesterone needed to maintain the developing fetus is secreted primarily by which of the following?

Thecal Cells
Uterine Endometrium
Corpus Albicans
Corpus Luteum

A

Corpus Luteum

70
Q

All nutrients for the developing embryo during the first week following implantation are supplied by which of the following?

Syncytiotrophoblast Cells
Corpus Luteum
Cytotrophoblast Cells
Decidual Cells

A

Decidual Cells

71
Q

Which of the following values (mm Hg) represents the mean diffusion gradient pressure between the PO2 of the mother and the PO2 of the fetus?

10
20
30
40

72
Q

As a result of the Bohr effect there is an increase in the capacity of the fetal blood to combine with oxygen and a decrease in the capacity of the maternal blood to combine with oxygen. This is mostly due to which of the following?

The mother’s blood becomes more alkaline
The mother’s blood becomes more acidic
The fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than the maternal blood
The fetal blood has a higher hemoglobin concentration

A

The mother’s blood becomes more acidic

73
Q

In females, a sharp rise in gonadotropins to almost 60 times that at birth occurs during which of the following periods?

Menopause
Just prior to each ovulation phase
Puberty
Old Age

74
Q

In the ovarian follicle, both thecal cells and granulosa cells possess receptors for LH and LDL. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the secretory activities of these cells?

Both thecal and granulosa cells secrete estrogen but not androgens
Thecal cells and granulosa cells both secrete androgens and estrogens
Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogen
Thecal cells secrete estrogens and granulosa cells secrete androgens

A

Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogen

75
Q

In females, inhibin has a negative feedback effect on both the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus. It is secreted by which of the following types of cells?

Granulosa Cells
Internal Thecal Cells
External Thecal Cells
Primary Oocytes

A

Granulosa Cells

76
Q

At the time of fertilization, the oocyte has reached which of the following stages of development?

Prophase I of meiosis with no polar bodies
Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body
Prophase II of Meiosis with no polar bodies
It has completed meiosis and has two polar bodies

A

Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body

77
Q

Which of the following is responsible for gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi resulting in the release of bile from the gallbladder?

Gastrin
Secretin
CCK
Motilin

78
Q

Hemoglobin is released from damaged RBCs and split into globin and heme by macrophages. Heme is then converted into which of the following by heme oxygenase?

Cholic acid
Biliverdin
Bilirubin
Urobilinogen

A

Biliverdin

79
Q

Ascites may result from which of the following?

Constriction of hepatic artery
Blockage of the portal vein
Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins
Constriction of the celiac trunk

A

Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins

80
Q

Kupffer cells are found in which of the following spaces?

Space of disse
Hepatic sinusoids
Bile canaliculi
Space of wirsung

A

Hepatic Sinusoids

81
Q

Which of the following prevents the pancreas from digesting itself?

Chymotrypsin inhibitor
Trypsin inhibitor
Phospholipase
Pancreatic Amylase

A

Trypsin Inhibitor

82
Q

Which of the following characterizes pancreatic secretions under low flow rates?

Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions
Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarbonate ions
Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions
Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarbonate ions

A

Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions

83
Q

Which of the following orient themselves on the outside of micelles?

Cholesterol
Free fatty acids
Carbohydrates
Bile Salts

A

Bile Salts

84
Q

Which of the following levels of blood constituents would NOT be observed in a diabetic coma?

Low blood glucose
Low keto acids
High bicarbonate ion
Low cholesterol

A

High bicarbonate ion

85
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

The liver has a low blood flow and a high vascular resistance
The liver has a low blood flow and a low vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and a high vascular resistance
The liver has high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

A

The liver has high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

86
Q

Flexed arms and legs that resist extension would result in which of the following on the apgar test?

A score of 0
A score of 1
A score of 2
Not measured on apgar test

A

A score of 2

87
Q

Which of the following vitamins is needed by the fetus to create normal clotting factors?

A
C
E
K

88
Q

Fetal blood from the right ventricle going to the descending aorta is pumped through which opening?

Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosus
Ductus venosus
Foramen soventus

A

Ductus arteriosus

89
Q

For the first three to four days after birth, the neonate relies on what energy source?

Glucose from mother’s milk
Fat from mother’s milk
Stored Glucose
Stored protein and fat

A

Stored protein and fat

90
Q

Excessive variations in blood gasses normally seen in neonates is typically due to which of the following?

Residual fluid in the lungs
Under-developed central nervous systems respiratory center
High heart rate
Frequent periods of apnea

A

Frequent periods of apnea

91
Q

If there is a mutation in the growth hormone receptor and growth hormone is unable to bind to liver cells, what would the outcome be?

Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
High levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C), expression, growth failure
Low levels of IGF-1 (Somatomedin C) expression, no effect on growth
Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, accelerated growth

A

Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure

92
Q

ADH is primarily formed in which of the following locations?

Supraoptic nuclei
Acidophils of adenohypophysis
Paraventricular nuclei
Basophils of adenohypophysis

A

Supraoptic nuclei

93
Q

Growth hormone adenoma that develop in adulthood can result in what condition?

Gigantism
Dwarfism
Acromegaly
None of these

A

Acromegaly

94
Q

The facial nerve is responsible for which of the following?

Motor Control of the Muscles of the Eyes
Motor Control of the Heart
Motor Control of the muscles of facial expression
Taste in the posterior third of the tongue

A

Motor Control of the muscles of facial expression

95
Q

The ciliary ganglion is an extension of which cranial nerve?

III
VII
IX
X

96
Q

The cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior portion of the tongue?

III
V
VII
IX

97
Q

Which of the following nerves supplies PNS innervation to the parotid gland?

Facial Nerve
Trigeminal Nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Vagus nerve

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

98
Q

Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands?

Oculomotor Nerve
Trigeminal Nerve
Facial Nerve
Glossopharyngeal Nerve

A

Facial Nerve

99
Q

In the early stages of development, the trophoblast will give rise to which of the following structures?

Amnion and placenta only
Amnion, embryo, and yolk sac only
Placenta only
Placenta and yolk sac only

A

Placenta only

100
Q

Which of the following descriptions best describes the relation between maternal blood and fetal blood?

Maternal blood and fetal blood freely intermingle within the trophoblastic lacunae
Fetal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but maternal blood remains confined within maternal vessels
Both maternal blood and fetal blood remain confined within their respective vessels during pregnancy
Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

A

Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

101
Q

Which of the following substances move across the placental membranes via facilitated diffusion?

Creatinine
Urea
Fats
Glucose

102
Q

During pregnancy, syncytiotrophoblast cells secrete estrogens. These estrogens are derived from androgens secreted by which of the following sources?

Granulosa Cells
Cytotrophoblast Cells
Maternal adrenal cortex
Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices

A

Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices

103
Q

Prolactin promotes milk secretion. It has full effects on milk secretion after birth due to which of the following physiological reasons?

The Corpus Luteum produces an extra surge of estrogen
Levels of oxytocin have increased considerably
Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated
Human chorionic gonadotropin levels increase considerably after birth

A

Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated

104
Q

A sharp surge in which of the following hormones preceded ovulation by about 24 hours?

LH
FSH
Estrogen
Progesterone

105
Q

During the early stages of pregnancy, involution (degeneration) of the corpus luteum is prevented by which of the following hormones?

Estrogen
Progesterone
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Human Somatomammotropin

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

ZZZZKCU Comprehensive Exam Review Andy (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions