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Semester Autumn 3rd Yr > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of…
A

b. Protein fibres and ground substance

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2
Q
  1. The types of fibres commonly found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue are…
A

b. Elastic, reticular, collagen

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3
Q
  1. Fill in the gap: Mesenchyme and mucous connective tissue are classified as ______ connective tissues.
A

c. Embryonic

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4
Q
  1. Epithelial tissues are classified based on?
A

a. The number of layers and the shape of the cells in the superficial layer
c. The arrangement of the cells in layers
e. The shape of cells in each layer

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5
Q
  1. True or false: Connective tissue forms covering, linings, and glands?
A

False.Epithelial

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6
Q
  1. Keratinocytes are the predominant cells in the:
A

a. Epidermis

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7
Q
  1. The epidermis is composed of avascular stratified squamous epithelial tissue. Therefore nourishment to cells in the epidermis must be provided by diffusion of materials from…
A

c. Blood vessels in the dermal papillae

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8
Q
  1. What does the skin excrete?
A

Salt,water, heat, urea, and ammonia

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9
Q
  1. Sebum…
A

c. Is produced by sebaceous glands that are attached to hair follicles

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10
Q
  1. The function of keratin is to:
A

d. Make skin tough and waterproof

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11
Q
  1. This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows the diaphysis to grow in length.
A

d. Epiphyseal plate

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12
Q
  1. This is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and the epiphysis.
A

d. Metaphysis

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13
Q
  1. This is the fibrous covering on the surface of bone that is involved in thickening of the bone.
A

a. Periosteum

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14
Q
  1. These are considered bone-dissolving cells.
A

b. Osteoclast

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15
Q
  1. What is the correct order of the four zones of cartilage found within the growth plate starting at the epiphysis and extending to the diaphysis?
A

e. Resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage

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16
Q
  1. Like other _______, bone tissue contains abundant extracellular matrix that surrounds widely separated cells.
A

b. Connective tissues

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17
Q
  1. Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned…
A

c. Parallel to the length of the diaphysis

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18
Q
  1. The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called…
A

b. Hemopoiesis

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?
A

a. Globulins

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20
Q
  1. What percentage of blood plasma is water?
A

e. 91.5%

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21
Q
  1. The haematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by…
A

b. Red blood cells

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22
Q
  1. The normal pH range for blood is…
A

d. 7.35-7.45

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?
A

c. Fibrinogen

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24
Q
  1. A megakaryoblast will develop into a…
A

c. Platelet

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow?
A

c. Erythropoietin (EPO)

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26
Q
  1. The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of…
A

b. Prothrombinase

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of methods utilised during haemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?
A

e. Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting

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28
Q

Areolar connective tissue

A

Soft abundant, packing tissue

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29
Q

Dense connective tissue

A

Attaches muscles to bone as tendons

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30
Q

Elastic Connective Tissue

A

Shapes the external ear

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31
Q

Reticular connective tissue

A

Stroma for soft organs

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32
Q

Adipose connective tissue

A

Insulation for the body

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33
Q

Hyaline cartilage

A

Forms the embryonic skeleton

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34
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

Forms invertebral discs

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35
Q

Elastic cartilage

A

Provides flexibility to blood vessels

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36
Q

Compact bone

A

Forms the outer layer of bone

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37
Q

Spongy bone

A

Its spaces are filled with red bone marrow

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38
Q

Fibroblast

A

Star-shaped cells responsible for the production of fibres and the matrix

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39
Q

Dermis

A

Layer of skin between the epidermis and hypodermis

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40
Q

Osteocytes

A

Mature bone cells found within the calcium matrix

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41
Q

Sebaceous

A

Type of gland found in the dermis secretes sebum

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42
Q

Collagen

A

Most abundant protein in the body

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43
Q

Active Transport

A

Transport across the cell membrane that requires input of cellular energy

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44
Q

Trabeculae

A

Flake-like sections of the lattice-like matrix in spongy bone

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45
Q

Arrector pili

A

Smooth muscle that when activated causes hair to “stand up”

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46
Q

Sesamoid

A

Small, round bone embedded in tendons

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47
Q

Mesoderm

A

Embryonic germ layer from which connective tissue, muscle tissue, and some epithelial tissue derive

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48
Q

Stratum basale

A

Deepest layer of the epidermis

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49
Q

Connective tissue

A

Most abundant tissue in the body, roles include support, binding, cushioning, and storage

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50
Q

Perichondrium

A

Membrane that covers cartilage

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51
Q

Merkel Cell

A

Receptor cell in the epidermis that responds to the sense of touch

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52
Q

Osteon

A

(Also, Haversian system) basic structural unit of compact bone

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53
Q

Melanin

A

Pigment that determines the colour of hair and skin

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54
Q

Callus

A

Thickened area of skin that arises due to constant abrasion

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55
Q

Peroxisome

A

Membrane-bound organelle that contains detoxifying enzyme

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56
Q

Cuticle

A

Surface visible outermost layer of keratinocytes on a strand of hair

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57
Q

Telogen

A

Resting phase of the hair growth cycle

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58
Q

Desmosome

A

Structure that forms an impermeable junction between cells

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59
Q

Platelets

A

One of the formed elements of blood that consists of cell fragments broken off from megakaryocytes

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60
Q

Reticulocyte

A

Immature red blood cell, may still contain fragments of organelles

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61
Q

Buffy Coat

A

Thin, pale layer of leukocytes and platelets that separate the erythrocytes from the plasma in a sample of centrifuged blood

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62
Q

Lymphocyte

A

Agranular leukocyte of the lymphoid stem cell line

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63
Q

Common Pathway

A

Final coagulation pathway activated by the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway, ending in the formation of a blood clot

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64
Q

Extrinsic Pathway

A

Initial coagulation pathway that begins with tissue damage

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65
Q

Heparin

A

Anticoagulant stored in mast cells and released when tissues are injured, opposes prothrombin

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66
Q

Biliverdin

A

Green bile pigment produced when the non-iron portion of haem is degraded into a waste product; converted to bilirubin

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67
Q

Diapedesis

A

Process by which leukocytes squeeze through adjacent cells in a blood vessel wall to enter tissues

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68
Q

Cytokine

A

Protein that act as autocrine or paracrine signalling molecules

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69
Q

Erythrocyte

A

Mature myeloid blood cell, composed mostly of haemoglobin and functions primarily in O2 and CO2 transport

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70
Q

Clotting Factors

A

Group of 12 identified substances active in coagulation

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71
Q

Ferratin

A

Storage form of iron

72
Q

Transferrin

A

Plasma protein that binds reversibly to iron and transports it throughout the body

73
Q

Pluripotency

A

Capability to differentiate into any and all cells of the body

74
Q

Vascular Spasm

A

Initial step in haemostasis, in which the smooth muscle in the walls of the ruptured or damaged blood vessel contracts

75
Q

Antibodies

A

Antigen-specific proteins produced by specialised B lymphocytes

76
Q

Basophils

A

Granulocytes that store histamine and heparin

77
Q

Haematocrit

A

Volume percentage of red blood cells in a sample of centrifuged blood

78
Q

Fibrin

A

Insoluble protein that forms the structure of a blood clot

79
Q
  1. Which functional division of the nervous system would be responsible for the physiological changes seen during exercise (eg. increased heart rate and sweating)?
80
Q
  1. What ion enters a neuron causing depolarisation of the cell membrane?
81
Q
  1. Faster communication and synchronisation are two advantages of
A

e. Electrical synapses

82
Q
  1. Saltatory conduction
A

b. Occurs only in myelinated axons

83
Q
  1. Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch, pressure, vibration, or tissue stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear, and in touch and pressure receptors in the skin
A

Mechanically gated channels

84
Q
  1. Which of the following cavities contains a component of the central nervous system?
85
Q
  1. In neuromuscular junctions, synaptic vesicles containing acetylcholine are found suspended in the cytosol of?
A

Synaptic end bulbs

86
Q

List the sequence of structures that action potentials must move through to excite skeletal muscle contraction

A

a. Axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules

87
Q
  1. Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with inhibition exclusively?
88
Q
  1. Diffusion, enzymatic degradation and uptake by cells are all ways to
A

c. Excite a presynaptic potential

89
Q
  1. What is the average time taken for a cell to be produced by the stratum basale, rise to the surface, become keratinized and slough off?
90
Q
  1. The smell receptors that actually bind the odorants and begin signal transduction are located on?
A

d. Gustatory receptor cells

91
Q
  1. Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A

Occurs rapidly

92
Q
  1. These receptor cells provide for the sense of taste
A

Gustatory cells

93
Q
  1. Tastebuds are found on
A

The soft palate, epiglottis, and pharynx

94
Q
  1. Which types of papillae do contain taste buds?
A

Circumvallate, Foliate, Vallate, Fungiform

95
Q
  1. This is a thin mucous membrane that protects the inner aspect of the eyelids and the portion of the sclera covering the anterior surface of the eyeball
A

Conjunctiva

96
Q
  1. The lens is made of layers of proteins called..
A

Crystallins

97
Q
  1. Connective tissue cells:
A

d. Include immature – blast cells that retain their mitotic ability

98
Q

Epithelial layers that are found in thin skin

A

Stratum granulosum
Stratum germinativum
Stratum spinosum
Stratum Corneum

99
Q
  1. The epidermis is avascular therefore nourishment to cells in the epidermis must be provided by diffusion of materials from…
A

e. Blood vessels in the dermal papillae

100
Q
  1. Connective tissues
A

e. Are composed of cells separated by an extracellular substance known as the matrix

101
Q

What are the major functions of the skeletal system?

A

Energy storage, Haemopoiesis, Support, Locomotion

102
Q

Integumentary System components

A

epidermis
dermis
hair and nails
sebaceous and sweat glands

103
Q

The epidermis is composed of

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

104
Q

Layers of epidermis in order from most superficial to deepest

A

stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale

105
Q
  1. Which layer of the epidermis consists of 25-30 layers of dead, flattened keratinocytes?
A

stratum corneum

106
Q
  1. Which of the following is present in thick skin but not in thin skin?
A

stratum lucidum

107
Q

Psoriasis

A

b. Occurs when keratinocytes reproduce too quickly.

108
Q
  1. The reticular region of the dermis
A

contains collagen fibres and elastic fibres

109
Q

Fingerprints

A

are unique to each individual and maintain a constant pattern throughout life

110
Q
  1. An individual born without the ability to make the enzyme tyrosinase has which of the following conditions?
111
Q

Accessory structures of the skin?

A

Hair
Sweat glands
Sebaceous glands
Nails

112
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of hair growth?
A

c. Normal hair loss in the adult is around 100 hairs a day.

113
Q

Acne

A

a. Is an inflammation of sebaceous glands.

114
Q

Ceruminous glands

A

Produce ear wax

115
Q

Functions of the skin

A

Regulates body temperature
Barrier to disease
Excretes some waste products
House sensory receptors

116
Q
  1. How does skin contribute to regulation of body temperature?
A

Releasing perspiration, which evaporates and carries away heat
Shivering, which produces heat

117
Q

Simple squamous epithelium

A

Performs filtration, diffusion, osmosis, and secretion in serious membranes
Lines heart and blood vessels, forms walls of air sacs in lungs

118
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium

A

lines kidney tubules and covers surface of ovary

119
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium

A

provides the greatest protection from mechanical injury

120
Q

Transitional epithelium

A

found in urinary bladder, allows stretching

121
Q

Ciliated simple columnar epithelium

A

lines fallopian tubes (oviducts), some parts of upper respiratory tract

122
Q

Function of the basement membrane

A

To anchor epithelial tissues to underlying connective tissue

123
Q
  1. True or false: Connective tissue forms coverings, linings, and glands?
A

False. Epithelial tissues

124
Q

first tissues that form in the mammalian embryo

A

c. Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

125
Q
  1. Fill in the gap: Mesenchyme and mucous connective tissue are classified as _____ connective tissues
126
Q
  1. Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?
A

Areolar connective tissue

127
Q

Connective tissue fibres

A

Elastic fibres allow connective tissues to stretch
They strengthen and support connective tissues

128
Q
  1. Reticular fibers in soft organs like the spleen and liver form a supporting framework called the _________
129
Q
  1. Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus, which is the thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.
A

Stratum lucidum

130
Q
  1. This is another name for the subcutaneous layer.
A

Hypodermis

131
Q
  1. This epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance.
A

Langerhans cells

132
Q
  1. This is a mixture of triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins and inorganic salts.
133
Q

Skeletal muscle is

A

Striated
Largely under voluntary control

134
Q

Cardiac muscle tissue

A

Is autorhythmic.
Contains branched cells that are connected by intercalated discs.
Obtains Ca2+ required for contraction from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the interstitial fluid.
Maintains contractions for longer periods of time than skeletal muscle tissue.

135
Q
  1. When a depolarizing graded potential makes the axon membrane depolarize to threshold,
A

d. Voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly.

136
Q
  1. During this period, a second action potential can only be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus
A

c. Relative refractory period

137
Q
  1. Saltatory conduction
A

e. Occurs only in myelinated axons

138
Q
  1. Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of
A

Electrical synapses

139
Q
  1. Contraction of the atria of the heart leads to blood moving directly
A

into veins

140
Q
  1. The apex of the heart is normally pointed
A

the the left of the midline

141
Q
  1. This is used to reduce friction between the layers of membranes surrounding the heart.
A

pericardial fluid

142
Q
  1. Which layer of the heart wall consists of cardiac muscle tissue?
A

myocardium

143
Q
  1. This structure in the heart initiates action potentials that stimulate contraction of the heart at a constant rate of about 100 beats per minute.
A

sinoatrial node

144
Q

list the sequence of structures that a cardiac action potential follows in order to excite normal contraction of the heart

A

d. SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibres

145
Q
  1. Which of the following is a passageway for air, food and water?
146
Q
  1. This structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea.
A

Epiglottis

147
Q
  1. This is located anterior to the oesophagus and carries air to the bronchi.
148
Q
  1. This is the primary gas exchange site.
149
Q
  1. Which of the below tissues maintains open airways in the lower respiratory system?
A

Hyaline cartilage

150
Q
  1. Which is the dominant method of carbon dioxide transport?
A

Dissolved in plasma as bicarbonate ions

151
Q
  1. Olfactory receptors are found
A

b. Only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.

152
Q
  1. The smell receptors that actually bind the odorants and begin signal transduction are located on
A

Olfactory hairs

153
Q
  1. Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A

Occurs rapidly

154
Q
  1. The sensory neurons within the olfactory organ are stimulated by ________ in the air.
155
Q
  1. These receptor cells provide for the sense of taste.
A

Gustatory cells

156
Q
  1. The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acids and small peptides is known as
157
Q

Molecule that binds with specificity to a specific Receptor molecule

158
Q

Import of material into the cell by formation of a Membrane-bound vesicle

A

Endocytosis

159
Q

Examples of this include ion pumps and phagocytosis

A

active transport

160
Q

A molecule that exhibits a difference in polarity between its two ends

A

Amphiphilic

161
Q

Organelle that consists of interconnected membrane-bound tubules

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

162
Q

Engulfment of large particles by specialised cells

A

phagocytosis

163
Q

Organelle containing digestive enzymes

164
Q

The thinnest of the cytoskeletal filaments, composed of actin subunits

A

microfilament

165
Q

Structure in the nucleus that functions in ribosome synthesis

166
Q

Organelle that contains enzymes primarily responsible for detoxifying harmful substances

A

peroxisome

167
Q

Structure that organises microtubules during cell division

A

Centrosome

168
Q

Organelle whose primary function is to produce chemical energy

A

mitochondrion

169
Q

Organelle formed by a series of flattened, membrane-bound sacs that functions in protein modification and packaging

A

golgi complex

170
Q

Describes a substance or structure attracted to water

A

hydrophilic

171
Q

Coating of sugar molecules that surrounds the cell membrane

A

glycocalyx

172
Q

Fluid exterior to cells

A

extracellular fluid

173
Q

Membrane-associated protein that spans the entire width of the lipid bilayer

A

integral protein

174
Q

Clear, semi-fluid medium of the cytoplasm, made up mostly of water

175
Q

The rough ER has its name due to this structure

176
Q

Process of producing a protein from the nucleotide sequence code of an mRNA transcript

A

translation

Semester Autumn 3rd Yr (7 decks)

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