Physiological psychology and psychopharmacology

Question 1

List the sedative hypnotics

These drugs are generalized CNS depressants and are dose dependent ?

List Beta Blockers and what is the purpose
List Narcotic-Analgesics and purpose

Answer 1

Barbiturates, anxiolytics, alcohol

Low dose: reduce arousal and motor activity,
Moderate: sedation and sleep
High Dose: anesthesia , coma and death

Beta Blockers- Propranolol (Inderal) treat cardiovascular disorders and physical symptoms of anxiety

Narcotic-Analgesic: natural opioids (opium, morphine, codeine) semisynthetic derivatives of morphone ( heroine, Percodan, Dilaudid and pure synthetics (Demerol, Darvon, Methadone)- naturally occurring in the body-endorphins and enkephalins

Question 2

List the Antidepressant Drugs.

How do they work and what do they treat?

Answer 2

• Tricyclic : Blocks the reuptake of Norepinephrine, Serotonin and dopamine supports the catecholamine hypothesis
  treats: alleviate vegetative symptoms of depression, panic D/O, Agoraphobia, Bulimia Nervosa, OCD (clomipramine) enuresis (imipramine) neuropathic pain (amitriptyline and nortriptyline)

-SSRI (selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
Block reuptake of serotonin
melancholic depression, OCD, Bulimia, Panic D/o and PTSD (common: fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine and sertraline)

-MAOI (monoamine oxidase inhibitors):
inhibits MAOI which is involved in deactivating dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin
non-endogenous and atypical depression that involves anxiety and vegetative symptoms. and interpersonal sensitivity

Question 3

What is the oldest and most widely used drug to treat neuropathic pain?

Answer 3

Neuropathic pain is chronic pain that is due to a nervous system injury or dysfunction. The first-line treatments for neuropathic pain are analgesics, which include certain antidepressants, anticonvulsants, opioids, and local anesthetics.
– Antidepressant drugs that increase levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine not only reduce the depression that often accompanies neuropathic pain but also have analgesic properties. The tricyclic amitriptyline is one of the oldest and most widely used tricyclic drug for neuropathic pain.

Question 4

Abnormalities in which of the following areas of the brain have been linked to ADHD, OCD, and Tourette’s Disorder?

Answer 4

The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus and are involved in the planning, execution, and speed of motor activity. Abnormalities in the basal ganglia have been linked to the disorders listed in this question.

Question 5

A person with a brain injury is exhibiting unilateral neglect when he or she:

Answer 5

Unilateral neglect refers to impaired spatial awareness on one side of the body. People with unilateral neglect ignore objects on the affected side of the body (e.g., food on one side of their plate) and fail to groom and dress that side of the body.
Unilateral neglect is usually caused by damage to the right parietal or right parietal-occipital area and involves a lack of awareness of objects, people, and stimuli on the opposite (left) side of the body. (In this situation, it is also known as contralateral neglect.)

Question 6

The James-Lange theory is classified as a peripheralist theory of emotion. He emphasized the role of ?

Answer 6

visceral and muscular reactions. Peripheral factors - emotions represent perception to bodily reactions to sensory stimuli
According to the James-Lange theory, “we are afraid because we run.” In other words, emotions are perceptions of bodily reactions

Question 7

Describe Akathisia
Dystonia
Akinesia

Answer 7

-Akathisia is an extrapyramidal side effect of the neuroleptic drugs and a symptom of Parkinson’s disease and involves an unpleasant feeling of restlessness and need to move.
-Dystonia: Spasmas and contortions
Akinesia motor and psychic hypoactivity

Question 8

Diabetes is associated with rapid changes in blood glucose levels and there is some evidence that these fluctuations are associated with ?

Answer 8

For some patients with type 2 diabetes, acute hyperglycemia can produce: Hyperglycemia refers to elevated blood glucose levels. There is evidence that, for some patients with type 2 diabetes, acute hyperglycemia produces substantial impairments in speed of information processing, working memory, and some aspects of attention as well as decreased happiness and alertness and increased agitation.

Question 9

What hormones play a role in the sexual arousal of males and females?

Answer 9

Androgen
The research suggests that estrogen plays an insignificant role in female sexual motivation and arousal and that androgen, which is produced by the adrenal cortex, plays an important role in the sexual functioning of both males and females

Question 10

What are the symptoms in hyperthyroidism?

What are the symptoms in hypoglycemia?

Answer 10

difficulties in concentration, forgetfulness, sensitivity to cold, unexplained weight gain and constipation

hypoglycemia: weakness, headache, hunger, and anxiety The symptoms of hypoglycemia include headache, dizziness, sweating, impaired concentration, confusion, clumsy or jerky movements, weakness, and, in extreme cases, convulsions or a loss of consciousness. is the result of low levels of blood glucose.

Question 11

What is true about retrograde amnesia caused by moderate to severe head trauma?

Answer 11

Head trauma is most likely to affect more recent long-term memories. When memories begin to return, however, those that are most remote are recovered first. For example, if you forget everything that happened to you during the year prior to a head trauma, once you begin to recover your “lost” memories, you will first recall things that occurred 12 months prior to the trauma, than 11 months prior to the trauma, and so on.
The most recent memories are most vulnerable to amnesia but more remote memories are the first to be recovered. - you lose it and then you remember it as you lived it, from start to end

Question 12

When is brain laterization for language first evident?

Answer 12

Brain lateralization refers to the process in which different functions become specialized in one of the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex.
The research suggests that brain lateralization is already evident in the first few months of life. For example, there is evidence that newborns show greater electrical activity in the left hemisphere than in the right hemisphere in response to speech sounds.

Question 13

What is the treatment for alcohol addiction?

And how does it work.

Answer 13

Disulfiram (Antabuse) inhibits alcohol metabolism causing an accumulation of acetaldehyde and unpleasant reactions (severe nausea, vomiting, sweating, headache
Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist that blocks the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol

Question 14

Migraines are most common in ___ and linked to the personality trait_____

Answer 14

The risk for migraine is higher for females than males; the onset of migraines is between puberty and mid-life; and personality characteristics that have been linked to migraines include perfectionism, neatness, restraint, and ambitiousness.

Question 15

This Neurotransmitter is found in the peripheral nervous system, the spinal cord, and certain regions of the brain. In the peripheral nervous system, it activates both muscles and glands. The venom of the black widow spider is believed to work by causing a continuous flow of ___________ into the neuromuscular junction, resulting in uncontrollable muscle contractions

Answer 15

acetylcholine

Question 16

Fluoxetine and other SSRIs act by

Answer 16

SSRI stands for selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor, which means that the SSRIs exert their effects by reducing the uptake of serotonin at nerve synapses, thereby increasing their availability.

Question 17

Teratogens can have a negative effect on fetal development during the entire pregnancy, but their consequences are much more severe during critical periods of development when the organ system is growing most rapidly. The critical period varies from organ to organ, but generally occurs within the first ____ weeks of development. (An exception is the central nervous system, which has a critical period that extends into the _____ week of development.)

Answer 17

8 weeks 2m (1st trimester = 1 to 13)

16 week 4 m (2nd = 14 to 27 wks. )

Question 18

Research using neuroimaging techniques has pinpointed the location of specific emotional and behavior changes caused by frontal lobe damage.

Damage to the orbitofrontal areas produces what?

Damage to the medial frontal area?

Damage to the anterior cingulate area ?

Damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal area produces?

Answer 18

Damage to the orbitofrontal areas produces pseudopsychopathy (disinhibition and impulsive behavior), euphoria, lack of judgment and social tact, and distractibility. (around the orbit you get fake crazy)

medial frontal area produces akinesia, mutism, and weakness and loss of sensation in the lower extremities. (mute in the middle)

Damage to the anterior cingulate area is associated with apathy and paucity of speech and movement.

Damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal area produces impaired executive functioning, slowed information processing, and mood and personality changes (personality doros)

Question 19

s a treatment for alcohol dependence, naltrexone exerts its therapeutic effects by blocking the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol.

What are the potential side effects of naltrexone. Note, however, that most people experience few side effects when taking naltrexone as a treatment for alcohol dependence.

What are the side effects of carbamazepine, an anti-seizure drug that is also used to treat bipolar disorder.

What are the possible side effects of the MAOI inhibitors.

What the are possible side effects of the beta blocker propranolol?

Answer 19

Naltrexone: abdominal cramping, nausea, insomnia, nervousness, and headache

Carbamazepine: dizziness, ataxia, visual disturbances, nausea, and rash

MAOI inhibiters: . blurred vision, sexual dysfunction, weight gain, edema, and tremor

Propranolol shortness of breath, increased dreaming, nausea, diarrhea, and bradycardia

Question 20

What is responsible for the body’s fight or flight?

Answer 20

The term “fight or flight” refers to the response of the glands and smooth muscles to dangerous or emergency situations.
It is the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight reaction (e.g., increased heart rate, cessation of digestive processes).

Question 21

HM went through bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as a treatment for severe epilepsy. What happened as a result?

Answer 21

While H.M.’s short-term and remote long-term memory were intact, he was unable to form new long-term memories and had trouble retrieving information from recent long-term memory.

Question 22

Glutamate acts as what? and plays a role in? when excessive what happens?

Answer 22

Glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord. It’s known to play a role in learning and memory, including long-term potentiation (LTP) which is a brain mechanism that’s believed to be responsible for the formation of long-term memories. There’s also evidence that excessive glutamate receptor activity (“excitotoxicity”) contributes to stroke-related brain damage, Huntington’s disease, Alzheimer’s disease, and other neurodegenerative disorders.

Question 23

Renal failure is also known as kidney failure and occurs when the kidneys are no longer able to remove waste from the body and maintain a normal level of electrolytes in the bloodstream. However, in many cases, the initial symptoms are a change in the amount and frequency of

Answer 23

urination and discomfort or pain when urinating. The change can involve an increase in urination (polyuria) with urine being paler than usual or a decrease in urination (oliguria) with urine being darker than usual.

Question 24

1. The ___________cortex contains the secondary and tertiary olfactory cortical areas and is involved in the conscious perception of odors; while the ______ plays an important role in olfactory memory.
2. The ________ cortex (insula) is part of the limbic system and is involved in emotions and pain. The ____ is also part of the limbic system; it controls emotions and has been identified as a “pleasure area” of the brain.
3. The ______ cortex is located in the parietal lobe and processes information related to touch. Also, olfaction is the only sensory system that does not send incoming signals directly to the ___________.
4. The _____cortex is part of the limbic system and has been linked to several functions including pain perception and reward-based decision making. The _______is part of the hindbrain and mediates vital bodily functions such as breathing and heartbeat

Answer 24

1. orbitofrontal: amygdala
2. The insular : septum
3. somatosensory: thalamus
4. cingulate: Medulla

Question 25

What are the side effects from taking lithium carbonate as a treatment for Bipolar Disorder?

Answer 25

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and dry mouth are common early gastrointestinal side effects of lithium. These symptoms usually appear within a few weeks and, if they occur late in therapy, may be a sign of lithium toxicity

Question 26

Damage to the orbitofrontal areas produces?

Damage to the medial frontal area produces?

Damage to the anterior cingulate area is associated with?

Damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal area produces?

Answer 26

Research using neuroimaging techniques has pinpointed the location of specific emotional and behavior changes caused by frontal lobe damage.

Damage to the orbitofrontal areas produces pseudopsychopathy (disinhibition and impulsive behavior), euphoria, lack of judgment and social tact, and distractibility.

Damage to the medial frontal area produces akinesia, mutism, and weakness and loss of sensation in the lower extremities.

Damage to the anterior cingulate area is associated with apathy and paucity of speech and movement.

Damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal area produces impaired executive functioning, slowed information processing, and mood and personality changes.

Question 27

An EEG measures electrical activity of the brain and, in terms of traumatic brain injury has been used to detect?

Several methods are used to identify vestibular disturbances including?

This is useful for detecting acute hematomas and other types of hemorrhage?

This is used to evaluate cerebral blood flow.

Answer 27

An EEG measures electrical activity of the brain and, in terms of traumatic brain injury, has been used to detect focal slowing and epileptiform activity. Research on the use of standard EEG as a diagnostic tool for traumatic brain injury has found that it is most effective for detecting seizure activity.

Several methods are used to identify vestibular disturbances including ENG (electronystagmography) and VAT (vestibular autorotation test). (A link between your inner ear and your brain helps you keep your balance when you get out of bed or walk over rough ground. This is called your vestibular system. If a disease or injury damages this system, you can have a vestibular disorder. Dizziness and trouble with your balance are the most common symptoms, but you also can have problems with your hearing and vision.)

CT (computerized tomography) is useful for detecting acute hematomas and other types of hemorrhage.

Functional neuroimaging techniques are used to evaluate cerebral blood flow.

Question 28

What Is a PET Scan?

What Is a CT Scan?

What Is an MRI?

Answer 28

Positron emission tomography (PET) scans use a special dye that contains radioactive tracers to identify how well your organs and other tissue inside your body are functioning. These radioactive tracers are swallowed, inhaled, or injected into the veins, and a scan detects the activity of the tracers once inside the body. The tracers collect in areas of the body with high chemical activity, which is typically a sign of disease such as cancer. The tracers are also used to measure blood flow, oxygen use, sugar levels, and the like.

PET scans are typically used in conjunction with a CT scan or MRI.

Computed tomography (CT) scans, on the other hand, works much like an X-ray, only with greater, 3D detail of the organs, bones, and tissues inside your body.

During the scan, a narrow x-ray beam circles your body, taking a series of images from different angles. These images are stored in a computer that can, in turn, create a cross-sectional view of the body part under examination.

These images are used to detect bone and joint problems, critical conditions like cancer and heart disease, and evidence of internal bleeding, tumors, or blood clots. It may also use a contrast dye for even better clarity on the resulting images.

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) also takes detailed pictures of internal organs – but instead of using X-ray technology, an MRI uses powerful magnets, radio waves, and computer technology to create its images. It may be used with or without a contrast dye to see internal structures more clearly.

During the MRI, you lay within a tube-like machine that produces a strong magnetic field to create its images, which are processed and stored in a computer. There is no radiation used during an MRI.
–side note– MRIs have revealed that individuals in the early stages of Alzheimer’s Dementia have a reduction in the volume of the entorhinal cortex of up to 30% when compared to healthy peers and that those in the later stages show a reduction of up to 45%. See, e.g., M. Bobinski et al., MRI of entorhinal cortex in mild Alzheimer’s disease, Lancet, 353, 38-40, 1999.

Question 29

Amphetamine psychosis and Schizophrenia share a number of symptoms. Why?

Answer 29

Amphetamine psychosis and Schizophrenia share a number of symptoms. Because amphetamines are known to exert their effects on dopamine pathways, this similarity confirms that dopamine also plays a role in Schizophrenia.

Question 30

A patient taking a benzodiazepine develops several undesirable symptoms including insomnia, nightmares, hallucinations, and rage reactions. These symptoms suggest what?

__________ is fairly rare and involves hypotension, depressed respiration, and, in severe cases, coma.

_________ include dry mouth and blurred vision.

___________ may occur when the drug is stopped and is characterized by intense anxiety symptoms.

Answer 30

The benzodiazepines are associated with several undesirable side effects including rebound anxiety, physical and psychological dependence, and withdrawal symptoms. Insomnia and the symptoms listed in the question are the symptoms of paradoxical agitation, which is most likely to occur in people with a history of aggressive behavior or unstable emotional behavior.

Overdose

Anticholinergic effects

Rebound anxiety

Question 31

This is also known as kidney failure and occurs when the kidneys are no longer able to remove waste from the body and maintain a normal level of electrolytes in the bloodstream.

The initial symptom being?

Other symptoms include?

Answer 31

Renal Failure: The symptoms of renal failure depend on its severity, rate of progression, and cause. However, in many cases, the initial symptoms are a change in the amount and frequency of urination and discomfort or pain when urinating. The change can involve an increase in urination (polyuria) with urine being paler than usual or a decrease in urination (oliguria) with urine being darker than usual.

A metallic taste in the mouth is one of the symptoms of renal failure.

Feeling cold (even in a hot room) is one of the symptoms of renal failure.

People with renal failure may experience a decrease in appetite.

Question 32

One disadvantage of Prozac (fluoxetine) and the other SSRIs is? and patients should be warned.

While some mild cognitive impairment and temporary dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and blurred vision is more indicative of —

Patients prescribed MAOIs, not the SSRIs. should be warned?

Answer 32

Prozac and the other SSRIs are associated with fewer side effects than the tricyclics.

One disadvantage of the SSRI’s is that they may temporarily exacerbate sleep and anxiety problems. should be warned that sleep and anxiety problems may temporarily increase.

These are side effects of the tricyclics.

must avoid tyramine-rich foods.

Question 33

Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an intended action at a particular point of time in the future - e.g., to give your colleague a telephone message the next time you see her.

Prospective memory has been linked to what part of the brain?

Answer 33

Prospective memory has been linked to the prefrontal lobes, and it has been hypothesized that executive cognitive functions (which have also been linked to this area of the brain) are involved in this aspect of memory.

Question 34

__________ is a symptom of a number of disorders including multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, spinal injury, and stroke and can be caused by damage to the what?

A complete or almost complete loss of movement is referred to as _____.

An uncomfortable sense of restlessness or agitation is referred to as _______.

____________ involves slow writhing involuntary movements.

Answer 34

Ataxia
Ataxia involves a loss of balance and coordination. It is one of the symptoms of multiple sclerosis and can be caused by damage to the cerebellum, dorsal spinal cord, or vestibular system. Although its symptoms depend on the area affected, they often include unsteady gait, difficulty with fine motor tasks, abnormal eye movements, slurred speech, and difficulty swallowing.

akinesia (motion) :

akathisia: a condition of motor restlessness in which there is a feeling of muscular quivering, an urge to move about constantly, and an inability to sit still, a common side effect of neuroleptic drugs.

Athetosis: repetitive involuntary, slow, sinuous, writhing movements.

Question 35

Long-term potentiation (LTP) has been suggested as one of the physiological bases of? and is observed in what part of the brain?

Answer 35

Long-term potentiation (LTP) has been suggested as one of the physiological bases of learning and memory. It involves greater responsiveness of a post-synaptic neuron to low-intensity stimulation for an extended period of time.

Long-term potentiation was first observed in the hippocampus, which is known to play a key role in learning and memory, especially in the consolidation of short-term memory into long-term memory.

Question 36

What is the Reticular Activating System?

What happens when it is damaged?

Answer 36

The reticular activating system (RAS) acts like the ignition system of the brain, that awakens an individual from sleep to a state of heightened awareness.
The reticular activating system connects the brain stem, to the cerebral cortex, through various neural paths. The stem controls most of the involuntary functions, as well as reflexes of the body, while the cerebral cortex is the seat of consciousness and thinking abilities. The system forms a link between these two different regions, helping our consciousness put together an internal world, through assimilation of sensory information, gathered from all body parts.

The system projects out of the brain stem, through the thalamus, to connect with the cerebral cortex. The neurons from the stem radiate upwards and terminate at the thalamus, at diffuse thalamic nuclei, which in turn, project further into the cerebrum. The system also involves neurons projecting out of the sensory pathways, directly into the sensory cortex.

RAS functions are controlled by certain cholinergic (related to acetylcholine) and adrenergic (related to Adrenaline) neurotransmitters. In terms of neuron grouping, this brain region constitutes the raphe nucleus, the pedunculopontine nucleus, and the locus caeruleus, all situated in the brain stem. For the sensory signals traveling towards and away from the cerebrum, this system acts as the gateway. In fact, the nerve fibers of this region are known to make the connection between body and mind. For the RAS to be triggered, signal activity needs to occur in the sensory pathways, that are connected with it.
Relays Sensory Signals
In a state of wakefulness, all the sensory information that reaches the brain stem (including touch, smell, visual, and temperature signals), from the various afferent nerves, is transmitted via this system, to the cerebrum for processing, after undergoing filtering. Pain felt in any part of the body, is relayed through the reticular formation.

The Flight or Fight Response
When we encounter a threat, that demands immediate defensive or offensive action, the electrical signals from sensory neurons are relayed to the cerebral cortex for processing, via the RAS.

Regulates Sleep-Wake Transitions
This functionality is mediated through the monoaminergic and cholinergic pathways.
All the mind’s functions manifest themselves physically, as electrical activity in the brain. The transition from sleep to wakefulness is therefore a change in the electrical activity associated with certain brain regions, measured in terms of frequency of the electrical signals. The state of wakefulness in humans, is associated with low-voltage fast burst brain waves. The same kind of waves are also associated with the REM (Rapid Eye Movement) phase during sleep. On the other hand, during non-REM sleep, the activity of high-voltage slow waves is predominant. The RAS orchestrates the transition from sleep to wakefulness, by promoting the creation of gamma band (20-40 Hz) waves and suppressing slow waves in the brain, like the spindle wave oscillations (11-14 Hz), delta waves (1-4 Hz), and slow waves in the cortex (0.3-1 Hz). This transition is reversible. Sleep is possible, only through the suppression of RAS activity, that is, through a reduction of afferent nerve activity, which transmits sensory signals to the cortex.

During non-REM sleep, which is mostly dreamless, RAS is shut down, thus cutting off connections with sensory inputs. This inhibition of the system is facilitated by the preoptic nucleus neurons.

Controls Focusing Ability
The ability to filter out information from external sources and focus on one particular fact, detail, or thought is controlled by this brain region. If it weren’t for this circuitry, our consciousness would be overwhelmed and flooded with all sensory information, leading to an inability to make decisions. The system helps in prioritizing information and controls what appears in the mind’s eye, at any point of time.

Recent research has revealed that this region is also responsible for bringing your mind into periods of heightened attention, alertness, or higher focus. This function is primarily mediated by the reticular formation and the thalamic intralaminar nuclei, which experience an increased blood flow, during these times.

Coordinated Response to External Stimuli
It is responsible for providing an integrated (cardiovascular, respiratory, and motor) response to external stimuli. It also controls coordination during walking, sexual functions, and eating.

Motor Control
Connections of the reticular formation with motor neurons facilitates maintenance of balance, posture, and tone, when executing various body movements. It enables the cerebellum to integrate vestibular, visual, and audio inputs, to process the data for motor coordination.

Muscle Atonia During REM Sleep
This system also plays a role in REM sleep, when we experience dreams. It is responsible for muscle atonia (temporary paralysis or relaxation of muscles) experienced during these phases.

Habituation
Not only does RAS filter out information, but it also learns to identify patterns in the sensory signals transmitted through it. The reticular formation gets habituated to excluding meaningless and repetitive signals, that are deemed to be consistently unimportant. That explains why people can sleep through any kind of noise, once they have become habituated to it, while waking up in a startled state, to an auditory signal like a gunshot.

Helps Regulate Circadian Rhythm
The raphe nuclei, a part of the reticular formation, work with the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) to maintain the circadian rhythm. It provides information about the level of alertness of the individual to the SCN, for it to act accordingly.
Damage to this system can lead to a transition into coma. Because of its positioning at the back of the brain, this area is very vulnerable to damage during accidents. Brain researchers have linked disorders in the RAS to attention deficit disorders, Alzheimer’s disease, narcolepsy, and sleep disorders.

Anesthetics and psychotropic drugs directly affect this system, causing a transition into unconsciousness or semi-consciousness. There is a relation between our action of setting goals and the RAS, as it controls the ability to focus and sift through incoming information. Overall, it manages the transition between levels of consciousness and controls what we prioritize as our current reality.

Question 37

________ is a neurological disorder that involves an inability to recall the names of familiar objects, attributes, or actions.

_______ refers to an impairment in reading that is due to brain injury.

_____________ is an inability to recognize familiar objects (visual agnosia) or sounds (auditory agnosia).

______ is an inability to perform complex or skilled movements that is not due to paralysis, sensory impairment, or a lack of comprehension.

The term _________ is used to describe an inability to write that is not due to motor impairment.

_________ is an inability to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms or other disorder.

Answer 37

Anomia

Alexia

Agnosia: not able to recognize your nosia

Apraxia

dysgraphia

Anosognosia

Question 38

A tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis may result when a person taking an MAOI consumes food containing tyramine.

What are the prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis?

Answer 38

headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating.

A person experiencing these symptoms should seek immediate medical attention because this condition can be life-threatening.

Question 39

Wernicke’s area is a major language area in the brain, and damage causes deficits in?

The __________ is located in the parietal lobe and is involved in pressure, temperature, pain, and proprioception.

The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus and play a role in?

Papez’s circuit was proposed as a brain mechanism (circuit) that mediates the experience and expression of?

Answer 39

language comprehension and production, including an inability to name familiar objects and people.

somatosensory cortex

mammillary bodies: learning and memory

emotion.

Question 40

Predictors of a positive response to a tricyclic antidepressant as a treatment for Major Depressive Disorder include:

Answer 40

Hysterical traits, multiple previous episodes, and delusions are associated with a poor response to the tricyclic drugs. The symptoms insidious onset of symptoms. weight loss, middle and late insomnia. along with psychomotor disturbances and other vegetative symptoms)

Question 41

A psychophysicist is measuring “just noticeable differences” while investigating the relationship between changes in the intensity of light and her research participants’ perceptions of those changes. The measuring scale being used has:

Name the three different Laws

Answer 41

psychologically equal intervals.
Psychophysicists use just noticeable differences (JNDs) and similar measurements to study the relationship between changes in physical stimuli and the psychological responses to those changes. JNDs are considered to be equal; however, the corresponding physical stimuli usually are not. For example, it may take only the addition of one pound to notice a difference when you start with ten pounds but the addition of ten pounds to notice a difference when you start with 100 pounds. In each case, the JND is equal to one, but the physical differences in weight are not the same.

Weber:

Question 42

An older adult in the middle (second) stage of Alzheimer’s disease is most likely to exhibit

Answer 42

1. Impaired attention and judgment, anterograde amnesia, and indifference or sadness
2. restlessness and agitation, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and flat or labile mood
3. These symptoms are characteristic of the third (late) stage of the disorder.

Question 43

Absence (petit mal) seizures appear to have their origin in which area of the brain?

Answer 43

Research with animals and humans indicates that petit mal seizures begin in the thalamus, which is considered the “gateway to consciousness.” For example, research with rats has linked an overabundance of GABA receptors in the thalamus to petit mal seizures.

Question 44

________ drugs are sometimes used to alleviate the extrapyramidal symptoms produced by an antipsychotic drug but are themselves associated with a number of undesirable side effects including dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and tachycardia.

Answer 44

Being familiar with the anticholinergic side effects of antihistamines, antidepressants, antipsychotics,
The common side effects of the anticholinergic drugs include those listed in the question. These drugs exert their effects by antagonizing the action of acetylcholine at muscarnic receptors.

Question 45

__________ is a neuroleptic-induced movement disorder that is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness accompanied by stereotypical motor movements such as fidgeting, pacing, or foot tapping.

Answer 45

The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of akathisia, which usually develops within a few weeks after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic drug.

Note: This is different from: Akinesia is one of the symptoms of neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism and involves a slowing or lack of normal motor function
Parkinsonism involves tremor, muscle rigidity, and akinesia.

Question 46

Anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events that occur before of after the event that caused the memory loss,

Answer 46

AFTER

Question 47

A 36-year-old woman has extensive deficits in declarative memory as the result of a severe head trauma. This means that she will have trouble recalling:

Answer 47

Episodic memory is memory for personally experienced events (e.g., what one had for dinner the previous evening). Semantic memory is memory for factual knowledge (e.g., the definition of amnesia). Extensive impairment in declarative memory would, therefore, involve both types of memory, so this is the best answer.

Question 48

Common side effects of ________ include stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and joint and muscle pain.

Answer 48

effects of naltrexone, which is an opioid receptor antagonist that blocks the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol.

Question 49

According to Selye (1956), during the ______ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which causes the adrenal cortex to release cortisol

Answer 49

Selye’s general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages – alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
The resistance stage occurs when stress persists and, as a result, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release ACTH which then activates the adrenal cortex to release the stress hormone cortisol.

Question 50

When determining a treatment plan for mild to moderate hypertension, it is important to keep in mind that:

Answer 50

blood pressure feedback is as effective training in general relaxation. While blood pressure feedback is effective, many studies have found that training in general relaxation is equally effective for mild to moderate cases.

Question 51

In the context of HIV, seroconversion refers to?

Answer 51

In the context of HIV, seroconversion refers to the conversion from HIV negative (seronegative) to HIV positive (seropositive) as the result of the presence of antibodies. Note that, because seroconversion often does not occur until several weeks after infection, an infected individual may develop symptoms of acute HIV infection while still having a negative HIV antibody test.

Question 52

___________ has been used as a pharmacologic model for Schizophrenia because drugs that alleviate the former also reduce the symptoms of the latter.

Answer 52

Research on amphetamine psychosis has provided support for the dopamine hypothesis for Schizophrenia: First, amphetamines exert their effects by altering dopamine activity. Second, a high dose of amphetamine produces symptoms similar to those associated with Schizophrenia, and amphetamines exacerbate the symptoms of Schizophrenia. Third, drugs that reduce dopamine levels alleviate the symptoms of amphetamine psychosis and Schizophrenia.

Question 53

Data from the National Health Care Survey (Raofi & Schappert, 2006) indicate that, in general, central nervous system drugs are most commonly provided, prescribed, or continued at ambulatory office visits by primary care physicians. An exception to this general rule are _________, which are most commonly provided, prescribed, or continued by practitioners in medical specialty offices.

Answer 53

antipsychotics and antimanics were the only ones that were provided or prescribed more often by practitioners in medical specialty offices (e.g., psychiatrists and neurologists) than by primary care physicians.

Question 54

Constructional apraxia is caused by damage to the

Answer 54

praxia involves an inability to perform skilled movements that are not due to muscle weakness, sensory loss, general intellectual deterioration, or lack of cooperation. Most forms of apraxia (including constructional apraxia) are caused by damage to the parietal lobe.

Question 55

According to ________________, physical stimulus changes are logarithmically related to their psychological sensations.

According to Weber’s law, the more intense the stimulus, the ________ the increase in stimulus intensity required for the increase to be perceived. A __________ is the minimum difference in stimulus intensity required for an individual to notice a difference from the previous intensity

Answer 55

Fechner’s law proposes that sensation is a logarithmic function of stimulus intensity - i.e., that a person’s experience of stimulus intensity increases arithmetically as the stimulus intensity increases geometrically.

• According to Weber’s law, the more intense the stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity required for the increase to be perceived.
• A just noticeable difference is the minimum difference in stimulus intensity required for an individual to notice a difference from the previous intensity. For instance, if you are in a room lit by a 120 watt light bulb, and you don”t notice a difference in brightness until the wattage is increased to 130, the just noticeable difference is 10 watts. Weber’s law states that the more intense a stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity must be for the increase to be noticed.

Question 56

_____________ is the major bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain, and damage to this structure reduces interhemispheric communication and can produce the behavior described in this question.

Damage to the visual association cortex can result in ____________ (an inability to recognize a familiar object by sight).

The prefrontal association cortex is involved in complex functions related to _____, _____, _________ and _______. Damage to this area may produce subtle _____ and _____ changes (e.g., apathy, impulsivity, inappropriate silliness).

The arcuate fasciculus connects the brain”s receptive language center or ________ with its expressive language center or __________. Damage to the arcuate fasciculus causes ___________aphasia.

Answer 56

1. The corpus callosum
2. visual agnosia
3. perception, emotion, memory, and thinking.
   - personality and behavioral
4. Wernicke’s area; (Broca’s area): conduction

Conduction aphasia is a type of aphasia in which the main impairment is in the inability to repeat words or phrases.

Question 57

What is a late-appearing side effect of the conventional antipsychotic drugs, is characterized by repetitive, involuntary tic-like movements of the face, eyelids, mouth, tongue, extremities, and/or trunk.

_________ is an early-onset side effect of the antipsychotics. Its primary symptoms are muscle spasms and slow abnormal movements, most often in the eyes, jaw, and tongue.

__________is an intermediate-onset side effect of the antipsychotic drugs. Its symptoms include muscle rigidity, impaired balance, gait changes, tremors, changes in facial expressions and speech, and muscle cramps.

__________ is another intermediate-onset side effect of the antipsychotics. It involves an uncomfortable sense of restlessness that may be accompanied by foot tapping, leg shaking, or pacing.

Answer 57

Tardive dyskinesia is a serious and potentially irreversible side effect of the antipsychotics (especially the conventional drugs),

2. Acute dystonia
3. Parkinsonism
4. Akathisia

Question 58

Contralateral neglect involves a lack of attention to or interest in one side of the body. It is usually results from damage to the_________lobe and involves the left side of the body.

Apperceptive agnosia (an inability to recognize the basic shape of objects) is caused by lesions in certain areas of the ______ lobe.

Receptive (Wernicke’s) aphasia is caused by damage to Wernicke’s area, which is in the ________ lobe.

Pseudodepression and pseudopsychopathy are caused by damage to certain areas of the ______lobe.

Answer 58

right parietal lobe

2. occipital
3. temporal
4. frontal

Question 59

A person with ____________ is unable to recognize familiar faces including, in some cases, his or her own face in a mirror or picture.

Answer 59

A person with prosopagnosia is unable to recognize familiar faces including, in some cases, his or her own face in a mirror or picture.

Question 60

Wernicke’s aphasia is?

Answer 60

Wernicke’s aphasia is also known as receptive aphasia and involves deficits in both production and comprehension of language. In terms of production, people with Wernicke’s aphasia exhibit speech that is rapid and fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.

Question 61

The long-term use of an antipsychotic drug - especially chlorpromazine or other conventional antipsychotic - can result in?

An acute hypertensive crisis is a potential side effect of ?

Anterograde amnesia is a potential side effect of?

Renal toxicity is associated with?

Answer 61

The long-term use of an antipsychotic drug - especially chlorpromazine or other conventional antipsychotic - can result in tardive dyskinesia, a neurological movement disorder involving involuntary movements of the lips, tongue, face, trunk, and extremities (e.g., facial grimacing, tongue protrusion, guitar and piano-playing movements).

An acute hypertensive crisis is a potential side effect of the MAOIs.

Anterograde amnesia is a potential side effect of triazolam and other benzodiazepines.

Renal toxicity is associated with the use of lithium

Question 62

A stroke involving the left middle cerebral artery is most likely to cause which of the following?

2. right-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, nystagmus, and vertigo
3. left-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, double vision, and facial paralysis
4. left-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, left-sided hyposthesia, and prosopagnosia

Answer 62

The middle cerebral artery provides blood to many regions of the brain, and the most common symptoms of stroke involving this artery include contralateral hemiplegia or hemiparesis and hyposthesia (lack of sensation). In addition, when the stroke involves the left cerebral artery, aphasia and apraxia may also occur.

2.
—Nystagmus and vertigo are signs of a stroke involving the vertebral artery.

3. Double vision and facial paralysis are signs of a stroke involving the basilar artery.
4. These symptoms would be caused by a stroke involving the right middle cerebral artery.

Question 63

Chronic stress due to depression or other factors may cause impairments in memory as a result of the effects of _______ and other stress hormones on the hippocampus.

Answer 63

Secretion of cortisol, a stress hormone, by the adrenal gland is influenced by the activity of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. It has been recently linked to memory impairments associated with stress.

Question 64

Complex partial seizures originating in the temporal lobe are most likely to cause which of the following symptoms?

Answer 64

Typical symptoms of seizure activity in the temporal lobe are a change in perception, a sudden alteration in emotions and/or a sense of déjà vu or jamais vu (a sense of familiarity or unfamiliarity, respectively).

Note: Speech arrest and other speech disturbances are a symptoms of frontal lobe seizures.

Question 65

Damage to Broca’s area produces _______________, while damage to Wernicke’s area results in ______________.

Answer 65

Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are the two primary language areas of the brain. Information on the types of aphasia produced by damage to these areas and other types of aphasia is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

Damage to Broca’s area causes an inability to produce language (expressive aphasia), while damage to Wernicke’s area is associated with an inability to understand written or spoken language with fluent but unintelligible speech (receptive aphasia).

Question 66

What syndrome is characterized by reduced fear, increased docility, compulsive oral behaviors, altered dietary habits, an inability to recognize visual stimuli, and hypersexuality. It is caused by lesions in amygdala, hippocampus, and certain areas of the temporal lobe.

Answer 66

Kluver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by reduced fear, increased docility, compulsive oral behaviors, altered dietary habits, an inability to recognize visual stimuli, and hypersexuality. It is caused by lesions in amygdala, hippocampus, and certain areas of the temporal lobe.

Question 67

Damage to the temporal lobe is most likely to result in:

Answer 67

he temporal lobe plays an important role in several important functions including auditory sensation and perception, language comprehension, and long-term memory.

Damage to the dominant temporal lobe may cause verbal memory loss, while damage to the nondominant temporal lobe may produce nonverbal memory loss.

Note:
Contralateral neglect is a possible consequence of parietal lobe damage.

Apraxia is caused by damage to the parietal or frontal lobe.

Question 68

Drowsiness (sedation) is most likely to be an initial side effect of which of the following antidepressants?

Answer 68

The tricyclic antidepressants are, in general, more sedating than the SSRIs.

Doxepin (Sinequan) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and drowsiness is one of the most common side effects of this drug (although it tends to decrease over time)

Question 69

Following abrupt cessation of a sedative after long-term use, REM sleep would be expected to:

Answer 69

Abrupt cessation of a sedative following long-term use typically results in a “REM rebound,” which is characterized by an above-normal amount or proportion of REM sleep.

Question 70

The prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis include?

What symptoms occur when an MAOI is taken in conjunction with an SSRI? and what is it called?

Answer 70

-headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating.
-A tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis may result when a person taking an MAOI consumes food containing tyramine.
These are the prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis. A person experiencing these symptoms should seek immediate medical attention because this condition can be life-threatening.

-Irritability, confusion, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmia: These are symptoms of serotonin syndrome, which may result when an MAOI is taken in conjunction with an SSRI.

Question 71

As a treatment for alcohol dependence, naltrexone:

Antabuse?

Answer 71

Naltrexone (ReVia) is an opioid receptor antagonist. Naltrexone blocks the reinforcing effects and craving (desire) for alcohol.

Antabuse reduces alcohol consumption by causing adverse effects when taken in combination with alcohol.

Question 72

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by:

Answer 72

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare, idiosyncratic reaction to neuroleptic drugs that may be caused by dopamine blockage in the basal ganglia.

These are the core symptoms of NMS. Other symptoms include painful joints, mutism, tachycardia, and urinary retention.

Question 73

Several subcortical structures are involved in the mediation of emotion. Studies of decorticate animals, for instance, suggest that the __________ is responsible for a violent rage response to even trivial stimuli.

Answer 73

he limbic system (especially the amygdala) is most associated with emotion, but other structures of the brain also play a role.

Answer A is correct: The hypothalamus is always a good guess since it’s involved in so many different functions. The studies have shown that decorticate animals tend to respond to even minor stimuli with extreme rage as long as the hypothalamus is left intact.

Question 74

An advantage of structural magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) over computed tomography (CT) is that the former:

Answer 74

Neuroimaging techniques are divided into two types - structural and functional. CT and MRI are both structural techniques.
MRI uses magnetic fields to produce detailed cross-sectional images of the brain. An important advantage of MRI over a CT scan is that MRI has better resolution.
-note Because MRI requires the patient to be completely still for a prolonged period of time, the patient may need to be sedated. A CT scan requires less time and, therefore, is less likely to require sedation.
-Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) provides information on the functional activities of the brain, but MRI is a structural technique that provides information on the structure of the brain only.
Note Regional cerebral blood flow is associated with the brain activity (functioning), and all but one of the brain imaging techniques listed in the responses are functional techniques. : PET, MRI, SPECT

Question 75

The principle of equipotentiality was proposed by Lashley and predicts?

Answer 75

The principle of equipotentiality was proposed by Lashley and predicts that, if certain parts of the cortex are damaged, other parts may assume the functions of the damaged parts.

Question 76

Propranolol hydrochloride is a beta-blocker that blocks the beta-adrenergic receptors which respond to what?
it treats?

Answer 76

epinephrine and norepinexphrine: Epinephrine and norepinephrine are two neurotransmitters that also serve as hormones, and they belong to a class of compounds known as catecholamines. As hormones, they influence different parts of your body and stimulate your central nervous system.
Epinephrine
Epinephrine, also called adrenaline, has powerful effects on the body. These include:

increased blood sugar levels
increased heart rate
increased contractility (how hard the heart squeezes)
relaxation of smooth muscle in the airways to improve breathing
These effects are designed to provide your body with extra energy. When you’re very stressed or afraid, your body releases a flood of epinephrine. This is known as the fight-or-flight response, or adrenaline rush.

Norepinephrine
Norepinephrine, also called noradrenaline, has effects similar to those of epinephrine, such as:

increased blood sugar levels
increased heart rate
increased contractility
Norepinephrine can also cause your blood vessels to narrow, which increases blood pressure.

The main difference
Both epinephrine and norepinephrine can affect your heart, blood sugar levels, and blood vessels. However, norepinephrine can also make your blood vessels become narrower, increasing blood pressure.

How are they used?
Epinephrine
In addition to being a hormone and neurotransmitter, epinephrine is also used as a medical treatment in its synthetic form.

Its main use involves the treatment of anaphylaxis. This is a severe allergic reaction that can affect a person’s breathing. An injection of epinephrine can help to open up your airway so you can breathe.

Other uses of epinephrine include:

Asthma attacks. An inhaled form of epinephrine can help treat or prevent severe asthma attacks.
Cardiac arrest. An epinephrine injection may restart your heart if your heart has stopped pumping (cardiac arrest).
Infection. If you have a severe infection and aren’t producing enough catecholamines, you may need to be given epinephrine through an intravenous line (IV).
Anesthesia. Adding epinephrine to local anesthetics can make them last longer.
Norepinephrine
Doctors sometimes use norepinephrine to treat septic shock, a severe infection that can lead to organ failure. This infection tends to cause dangerously low blood pressure. Norepinephrine given through an IV can help to constrict blood vessels, increasing blood pressure.

Although epinephrine can also be used for this purpose, norepinephrine is preferred due to its pure alpha receptor action.

Some people with ADHD or depression take medications that stimulate or increase the release of norepinephrine, including:

atomoxetine (Strattera)
serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, such as duloxetine (Cymbalta) and venlafaxine (Effexor XR)
The main difference
Epinephrine is used to treat anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe asthma attacks. Norepinephrine, on the other hand, is used to treat dangerously low blood pressure. In addition, medications that increase norepinephrine can help with ADHD and depression.

What happens if you have a deficiency?
Low levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine can contribute to a variety of physical and mental conditions, including:

anxiety
depression
fibromyalgia
hypoglycemia
migraine headaches
restless leg syndrome
sleep disorders
Chronic stress, poor nutrition, and taking certain medications, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin), can make your less sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine. These factors can also cause your body to start producing less epinephrine and norepinephrine.

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What happens if you have too much?
Having too much adrenaline or norepinephrine can cause:

high blood pressure
anxiety
excessive sweating
heart palpitations
headaches
Some medical conditions cause people to have too much epinephrine, norepinephrine, or both. These include:

pheochromocytoma, a tumor that forms in your adrenal glands
paranganglioma, a tumor that forms on the outside of your adrenal glands
obesity
Ongoing stress can also cause high levels of both epinephrine and norepinephrine.

The bottom line
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are very similar neurotransmitters and hormones. While epinephrine has slightly more of an effect on your heart, norepinephrine has more of an effect on your blood vessels. Both play a role in your body’s natural fight-or-flight response to stress and have important medical uses as well.

-Treats high blood pressure, angina, other cardiovascular disorders, migraine head aches, glaucoma, reduces heart palpitations, tremors, excessive sweating, and other physical symptoms associated with anxiety

Question 77

When an action potential occurs, a state of:

Answer 77

An action potential is generated by the movement of positively charged sodium ions into the cell, which creates a state of depolarization (i.e., the interior of the cell becomes less negative).

depolarization is created as positively charged ions enter the cell. the repolarization in which sodium channels close and potassium channels open which allows positively charged potassium ions to leave the cell

Question 78

Damage to the postcentral gyrus is most likely to impair which of the following?

Answer 78

sense of touch
The postcentral gyrus contains the primary somatosensory cortex.
a. CORRECT The primary somatosensory cortex mediates touch and other skin and muscle sensations for the contralateral (opposite) side of the body.

Question 79

In most people, the left hemisphere is dominant for which of the following functions?

Answer 79

In the majority of people, the left hemisphere is dominant for fine motor functioning, which is evident in the fact that most people are right-handed.

The correct answer is: controlling complex and precise movements

note:
The right hemisphere is responsible for understanding part-whole relationships - for example, recognizing familiar objects from incomplete pictorial data and perceiving whole shapes from parts.

The right hemisphere is also responsible for decoding emotion in facial expressions and language.

The right hemisphere predominates in the perception of depth, distance, direction, and orientation.

Question 80

A person with associative visual agnosia:

Answer 80

The term visual agnosia refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. Associative and apperceptive visual agnosia are two types of visual agnosia that you want to be familiar with for the EPPP.
a. Incorrect This is not characteristic of visual agnosia.

d. CORRECT This response describes associative visual agnosia, which occurs when visual and language areas become disconnected.

The correct answer is: cannot name a familiar object she sees but may know what it is used for and can copy or match a drawing of the object.

Note:
cannot name a familiar object she sees but may recognize it when it is placed in her hand and cannot copy or match a drawing of the object. the condition known as apperceptive visual agnosia.