Industrial Organizational Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Needs theorist of motivation

Cognitive Theory of motivation

A

Needs: Maslow : 5 basic needs instinctual
Two Factor Theory: lower level needs -hygiene factors-dissatisfiers: when there not necessary unsatisfied: context-surrounds the job- supervisor, working condition, pay. relationship with co workers: if all met does not lead to satisfaction/motivation but will keep them satisfied
High: (motivators/satisfiers); content; what you are actually doing on the job- need to achieve, opportunity. increase satisfaction and motivation. if not met then neutral not dissatisfied; formed the idea of job enrichment
ERG
McCellands” Need Theory : achievement, power, affiliation: High nACH: moderate goals (don’t want to mess-up but not be bored)

Cognitive Theory: how we think about things
-VIE: expectancy (think it is possible to succeed), instrumentality ((operant conditioning: Instrumentality refers to the belief that good performance will be rewarded. expect rewards), and valency (value of the rewards- will how value to you) will succeed on EPPP, reward-license- value-practice independently. money
Equity theory: (effects motivation but how we think of things-does it appear to be fair or not) self inputs (effort put in the job) and self outcome (what you get out of it, pay, rewards) related to other’s output and other’s outcome (Social Comparison)
Goals Setting Approach- set specific goals, intermediate to high level to difficulty, feedback, accept goals–
(Reinforcement Model - people will do things that have rewarding outcome, nothing do not continue, punish then stop)

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2
Q

What is the difference between the Hawthorne effect, Halo effect , central tendency error and contrast effect?

A

Hawthorne” improvement in job performance resulting from participating in a study

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3
Q

Methods of training are classified as either on the job or off the job techniques. Which is more widely used and what are the advantageous/ disadvantages of both?

What are some of the techniques?

A

On-the-job techniques are most widely used and have more advantages. They permit active participation, ongoing feedback, have job relevance, and provide maximum opportunities for transfer of training. : job rotation and cross-training

Off the job tech.; provide more opportunity to focus on and practice specific job elements, provide supplemental information, and to use professional trainers, and flexibility to tolerate learning errors. -Disadvantage: low trainee motivation, restricted transfer of training, higher costs.
–vestibule training, Behavioral learning (Bandura/ take downs)

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4
Q

job enrichment impacts? how does this vary?

What is the difference between job enrichment and job enlargement?

A

Job satisfaction
Varied- impacts more: young educated, skills to do the job, high needs of achievement (nACH)
Anxiety provoking: Low nACH,

enrichment- vertical loading give more higher level jobs
enlargement- horizontal loading-increasing tasks variety of tasks but not responsibility or more autonomous
Both targets upper level needs- reduce boredom.

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5
Q

Why would you be committed to working in an job performance, personal stress and family organization?

A

affective commitment: emotionally attached to the company
Continuance commitment: social and monetary cost of leaving: lose coworker friendships (no happy hour) and loss of income.
Normative Commitment: feel obligated to stay: only worked for 1 month need to stay on for at least 4 months before leaving.
Affective commitment : I hate this company- more turnover, absenteeism, personal stress and family, job performance,
continuance commitment-turnover.

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6
Q

Aderfer ERG means

A

Existence, relatedness and growth: not hierarchical at the same level, just because you meet a need you do not move on to the next- like to do creative things, write a book which inspires you to be more creative.

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7
Q

Examples of centralized communication network

A
The wheel (all subordinates hear command s from one superior, the Y and the Chain (top to bottom flow of communication-one way flow of communication: CEO to Manager to worker) are examples of centralized networks because all communication passes through one person: More efficient for simple tasks and less satisfaction. 
Decentralized: (circle meet all members of the group, all channels) information flows more freely and does not go only through one person- better for complex tasks and higher job satifiaction
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8
Q

What are the four commonly used data collection methods in organizational development

A
  • interviews, questionnaires/survey (identify values, attitudes and beliefs) , observations (overt behaviors and interactions), and secondary (archival) sources (productivity and performance).

Nadler recommends using multiple methods to ensure that the collected data is complete and unbiased. However, of the four techniques, questionnaires are most useful for collecting quantitative data from a large number of individuals.

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9
Q

Why would you be committed to working in an organization?

A

affective commitment: emotionally attached to the company
Continuance commitment: social and monetary cost of leaving: lose coworker friendships (no happy hour) and loss of income.
Normative Commitment: feel obligated to stay: only worked for 1 month need to stay on for at least 4 months before leaving.
Affective commitment : I hate this company- more turnover, absenteeism, personal stress and family, job performance,
continuance commitment-turnover.

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10
Q

The ____________ hypothesis is also known as the Yerkes-Dodson Law predicts that, for every activity, there is an optimum level of arousal and that arousal above or below that level has a negative impact on performance. In other words _________ levels of arousal are associated with the _____ levels of performance

A

inverted-U theory

moderate: highest

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11
Q

What are the types of organizational justice?

A

Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the ways in which procedures and policies are implemented. perceive how “goods” were allocated- credit for work/ bonus: how much money was set aside by the organization not individually distributed

Interactional justice refers to how people feel about the quality and content of interpersonal interactions. The interpersonal treatment received by individuals as the “justice” is carried out–boss response

Distributive justice refers to the fairness of the outcomes of organizational procedures and policies. Fairness in what they received. the individual: bonus amount

Retributive justice refers to rectifying a wrongdoing in a way that is proportionate to the wrongdoing.

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12
Q

A person-organizational fit is achieved primarily through?

A

person-organizational fit- match between the employee’s values, needs, preferences ect. and the culture of the organization. -values of the individual match values of the culture of the company : linked to enhanced satisfaction motivation (nACH, High level needs) and organizational commitment (affective, continuance, normative)

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13
Q

What are some formal methods for resolving conflict?

What are the types of arbitration?

A

Formal methods to resolve conflict: Bargaining (most common)
-Bargaining: (negotiation) effectiveness depends on participant’s overview of the bargaining process as either win lose or win win- ( benefits for both sides are maximized)
-Mediation: Neutral third party (the duck) can offer recommendations but has no formal power- role is to clarify issues and open lines of communication: mediation process involves: setting the stage, problem solving, and achieving a workable agreement
-Arbitration: more authority: controls both process and outcome:
—-Binding arbitration: two side agree in advance to accept the settlement
—-Voluntary: agree only to the arbitration process
—-Conventional: arbitrator is free to choose any settlement solution
—-Final offer arbitration: arbitrator must select one of the final offers made by the disputants.
-

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14
Q

How do you evaluate training programs? What are the approaches?

A

Kirkpatrik’s Four level criteria- reaction, learning, behavior, and results
Utility Analysis: mathematical equation to estimate gains and losses
Formative vs. Summative evaluations-formative (while it is forming) being developed Summative (summed up) after the program has been implemented. determine how much learned and cost

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15
Q

In the context of Holland’s theory of vocational choice, a high degree of differentiation means what?

A

Holland used the term differentiation to describe the extent to which a person has clearly defined interests. A person who scores high on one of his interest scales and low on all other scales is highly differentiated.

According to Holland, the importance of a good “fit” between a person’s interests and the characteristics of the job is most important for those who are highly differentiated. -
High degree of differentiation suggests an increase predictability of a person environment interaction

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16
Q

A comprehensive needs assessment includes?

A

A comprehensive needs assessment includes an analysis of the job requirements, the people performing the job, and the goals of the organization.

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17
Q

What are the three types of organizational justice related to fairness in organizational change?

A

In fairness research, there is a focus on what a person receives (distributive justice) and how perceived “goods” are allocated (procedural justice), and then there is the interpersonal treatment received by individuals as the “justice” is carried out (interactional justice). For the most part, organizational justice is concerned with the ways in which employees decide if they been treated fairly in their jobs and the conditions in which those determinations influence other work-related variables.

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18
Q

What are the effects of poor job satisfaction?

Is job satisfaction a good predictor of job performance?

A

poor performance-this relationship is weak
job satisfaction DOES NOT mean good job performance
Turnover, absenteeism, and tardiness, strongest relationship is between satisfaction and turnover moderated by unemployment-
Physical and mental health- emotional burnout: lowered self esteem, depression and anxiety

-NO: Job satisfaction is a good predictor if longevity and mental and physical health but not job performance, Good predictor of health but NOT performance

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19
Q

The research indicates that decentralized networks, in which no one individual has greater access to information, are best for what types of tasks. Centralized networks, on the other hand, are better for _____ tasks.

A

The research indicates that decentralized networks, in which no one individual has greater access to information, are best for_ complex, unstructured tasks that have a number of different solutions. Centralized networks, on the other hand, are better for _simple, structured tasks.

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20
Q

Transformational Leader
What is a transactional leader

What did Ohio figure out?

A

Transformational leaders recognize the need for change (transformation) and are able to communicate that vision to their followers and gain their commitment to it.
One characteristic of transformational leaders is that they attempt to raise the level of consciousness, awareness, and commitment of their followers and to strengthen their ability to control their own destinies. As well as appeals to morality and justice–using framing: to defining the organizations goals and activities in a way that is meaningful.
–Seek to empower their workers

Use legitimate status to gain compliance and appeals to the self interest of the followers: focuses on stability and change, emphasizes behaviors that are normal related work behaviors and rely on reward and punishment and appeals to the self interest of the workers.

There are 2 basic leadership behaviors 1- considerate: warmth, concern, rapport and support–person oriented 2— Initiating structure: defines, directs, and structures- task oriented

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21
Q

What is criterion deficiency

What is criterion contamination?

A

the extent to which a criterion measures do not assess all aspects of the ultimate (accurate and complete) criterion

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22
Q

Herbert Simon has proposed that Rational decision-making in organizations most often fails because?

A

rational decision-making often fails because the decision-maker often “satisfices” (rather than “maximizes”); i.e., he/she chooses the first satisfactory alternative rather than continue to search for the optimal alternative due primarily to inadequate information about the problem and alternative solutions, to a lack of time and money, and to limits on the decision-maker’s own intelligence.

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23
Q

Krumboltz’s social learning theory of career decision making is based off of what theory? and claims that a person’s career decisions are influenced by what 4 factors? Unlike the other theories, Krumboltz theory did not focus on matching an individual to their job but on _______________

A

reinforcement theory and the work of Bandura
genetic
environmental conditions and events
learning experiences,
task approach skills that are the result of the interact between the other three

Continual learning and self development. Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned and that career decisions are based primarily on what we have learned, especially from our interactions with others

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24
Q

What are the worker characteristics of job satisfaction in relation to disposition, age, race/ethnicity, Gender, Occupational Level, and life satisfaction?

A

Disposition: there is a genetic factor to job satisfaction
Age: U shaped relationship where job satisfaction is high when people begin their career, decreases with and rises with increased age.
Race/Ethnicity: minorities report lower levels of job satisfaction compared to whites. Most consistent with African Am. compared to Whites.
Gender: similar However, women less when experience exploitation, in lower level positions, and comparable worth
Occupational level: increases with occupational level
Life Satisfaction: positive correlation between job and life satisfaction: why mostly likely income, personality traits, and other variables

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25
Q

Name some different methods used for job selection

A

General Mental Cognitive Ability tests:
Highest validity coeff.
Job Knowledge Test:
Personality Tests:
Interest Inventory: susceptible to faking- more valid for predicting job choice, satisfaction and persistence.
Biodata: best predictor of future behavior is past behavior Biographical Information Blank: a empirically derived form. that contained multiple choice questions that assess history , family history health and attitudes - lacks face validity - applicants may think it is an invasion of privacy
interviews: lack reliability and validity- can be improved when interviewer is trained to observe interpersonal skills, structured interview is used, or in combination with another predictor (GMA). Behavior descriptions interviews focus on an actual situation in the past instead of a hypothetical situation. multiple interviews thought single interviewer with a structured interview is better
Work Job Samples: intdividual must perform the task similar to or identical to that on the job- mechanical in addition already skilled workers, this can also predict trainability for newly skilled or untrained workers. - in this situation, workers will be included in structured learning and evaluation. –trainable tests. -Also, work sample use a realistic job preview_ video or written job description which reduces unrealistic expectations of the job- increase commitment and satisfaction and lower turnover rates.
Assessment centers

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26
Q

What is social affiliation?

A

Social facilitation occurs when performance on a task is improved as the result of the presence of other people.

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27
Q

According to Locke and Latham’s goal setting theory, employee’s are likely to accept goals assigned to them when?

And that ____ goals produce higher levels of ? and this is strongest for ______ tasks.

Goals setting and feedback are superior to improving ____ then either goal setting or feedback alone.

A

Employees are likely to accept goals assigned to them when they consciously accept and then are committed to those goals.

Moderate goals produce higher levels of productivity and this is strongest for simple tasks. The less complex the task, the stronger the link between goal difficulty and productivity .

productivity

Commitment: goal performance is strongest when people are committed, and even more so when said goals are difficult. Given the commitment to a goal, if an individual discovers their performance is below that which is required, they are likely to increase their effort or change their strategy in order to attain it. When we are less committed to goals – particularly more challenging goals – we increase the likelihood of giving up.
Clarity: Specific goals put you on a direct course. When a goal is vague, it has limited motivational value. Goal clarity was positively related to overall motivation and satisfaction in the workplace. Set clear, precise and unambiguous goals that are implicit and can be measured. When a goal is clear in your mind, you have an improved understanding of the task at hand.
-Goals must be challenging yet attainable. Challenging goals can improve performance through increased self-satisfaction, and the motivation to find suitable strategies to push our skills to the limit. Conversely, goals that are not within our ability level will not be achieved, leading to feelings of dissatisfaction and frustration. We are motivated by achievement and the anticipation of achievement. If we know a goal is challenging yet believe it is within our abilities to accomplish, we are more likely to be motivated to complete a task.
Taks complexity: Overly complex tasks introduce demands that may mute goal-setting effects. Overly complex goals that lie out of our skill level may become overwhelming and negatively impact morale, productivity, and motivation. The timescale for such goals should be realistic. Allowing sufficient time to work toward a goal allows opportunities to reassess the goal complexity, whilst reviewing and improving performance. Even the most motivated of people can become disillusioned if the task’s complexity is too great for their skills.
Goal setting is more effective in the presence of immediate feedback

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28
Q

Of Mc Clellenad’s needs theory, Need for Achievement nACH was studied the most. Research found that? choose what types of tasks and why? They prefer frequent concrete feedback and view money as what?
Also, they prefer personal responsibility and recognition which makes them good____ and not _____? Cross cultural studies show that nACH is related to economic growth

A

People high on nACH prefer moderate difficulty and risk because success on these tasks depends more on effort than uncontrollable factors.
require frequent concrete feedback and money is viewed as a source of feedback.
They make good salespeople and entrepreneurs but poor managers.

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29
Q

What are the Motivation Theories?

A

MOTIVATION THEORIES
-Maslow’s Needs Theory (motivation is the result of 5 basic needs)
-ERG Theory: reduced Maslow’s theory to existence, relatedness, and growth- people are motivated by more than one need at a time.
McCelland’s Need Theory: three needs act as motivators- Need for achievement (goal and task), Need for power (to control or influence others), need for affiliation (need to est. warmth and close relationships.
Herzberg’s two factor theory which looks at motivation and satisfaction: separates satisfaction and dissatisfaction_ lower level needs (hygiene: context/pay): dissatisfaction when unfulfilled little effect on satisfaction/motivation: High-level (motivators: responsibility): increase job satisfaction and motivation no dissatisfaction when unfilled
-Goal Setting Theory: motivated to achieve own personal goals
-Equity Theory: social comparison on motivation: input and output ratio
-Expectancy (VIE) Theory: motivation is a pultiplicative function of expectancy (high effort= successful performance) Instrumentality (good performance leads to reward) positive valence (rewards have value)
-Social Cognitive Theory: : self regulation of behavior- goal setting, self observation (monitor goals behavior), self eval, self reaction

THEORIES OF LEADERSHIP
-Fielder’s contingency theory: effectiveness is based off of leadership style (LPC) and favorableness (influence and power a leader has) of the situation
-Cognitive Resource Theory’s stress and cognitive resources
- Path Goal Theory (House’s): effective leader can help a subordinate find a path that leads to their goals.
-Hersey and Blanchard: situational leadership model ( telling, selling, participative, delegating)
-Vroom-Yetton-Jargo Normative (DECISION) making model-11 situation factors and 5 decision strategies ( A1 Autocratic; make decisions alone, (AII) considers input from employees. (CI (consult) explains problem individually and makes decision: CII explains as a group, but make decision: G, Group- explains to group and group decides.
Transformational leaders and transactional leaders
-

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30
Q

According to Fiedler’s contingency model the most effective leader is determined by what?

A

Fiedler’s contingency model distinguishes between two types of leaders - high-LPC and low-LPC. High LPC leaders are person-oriented and are concerned primarily with maintaining good interpersonal relationships, while low LPC leaders are task-oriented and are most concerned about successful task performance.
Fiedler’s contingency model predicts that task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the situation is extreme - that is, when the leader has either low or high situational control, while person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. As defined by Fiedler, situational control is determined by three factors: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power

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31
Q

What are some different elements for learning in training

A

identical elements: Transfer of training: similarity between the learning and performance environment
Overlearning- practice past the point of mastery
elaborative rehearsal: making new information meaningful by relating it to previously acquired information

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32
Q

The research has shown that, after participating in a group discussion, group members are likely to advocate more extreme positions than they would have advocated if they had not participated in the discussion. This phenomenon is referred to as?

What is the difference between this concept and risky shift?

A

group polarization.

The risky shift is like group polarization but includes only the “risky” end of the decision continuum.

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33
Q

What is the deepest level of Schien’s levels of Organizational Culture? And what are the cognitive defense mechanisms of the group?

A

First- observable artifacts-dress code, stories and rituals and annual reports
Second- Espoused values and beliefs (organizational norms, goals and ideologies)
third deepest- basic underlying assumptions- unconscious taken for granted perceptions, beliefs, thoughts and emotions - defense mechanism and
can impede change

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34
Q

The person-organization fit refers to the match between the employee’s values, needs, preferences, etc. and the culture of the organization. A good P-O fit has been linked to several benefits including? A good P-O fit is achieved primarily by?

A

enhanced satisfaction, motivation, and organizational commitment and reduced stress and turnover.

Selection and socialization have been identified as the primary opportunities for ensuring a good person-organization fit (e.g., Chatman, 1991): Selection helps identify individuals whose characteristics match the characteristics of the organization, while socialization (e.g., behavioral modeling by and feedback from the supervisor, participation in work-related social events (ice cream party)) helps employees acquire the skills, knowledge, and attitudes that are compatible with the organization’s culture.

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35
Q

What is situational specificity

A

Occurs when validity information is specific to a particular circumstance and does not generalize to other circumstances.

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36
Q

Organizational Development interventions are implemented mostly to improve productivity but other reasons include responsiveness to customers, enhancing companies competitiveness and employee moral.

What is a process consultant? What behaviors do they target?

Another Organizational Development intervention self-managed work teams (SMWTs): what are they? What is the difference between SMWT, Quality-Work-Life Programs (QWL) and Quality Circles (QC) and Total Quality Management (TQM)

A

Process consultants focus on processes (interactions) between people and how these processes interfere with the achievement of their goals. They alter processes that are undermining their ability to interact with one another.
-behaviors that relate to communication, leadership, decision-making, conflict resolution, and member’s roles in groups.-Gary_

SMWTs are made up of employees who work together as a unit, with leadership usually rotating from one member to another. Members of SMWTs make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were previously made by managers.

-QWL: emphasizes employee empowerment, Unions, EAP-lower-level employees
Quality circles are an example of parallel structures. -(QC) Quality circles consist of small groups of 13-15 employees who volunteer to meet periodically, usually once a week for an hour or so, to identify and solve productivity problems. These group members make recommendations for change, but decisions about implementation of their proposals are reserved for management. Research has shown that parallel structures and quality circles do play an important role in employee productivity and job satisfaction.
SMWT_ autonomous group that makes management decisions.
TQM: A core definition of total quality management (TQM) describes a management approach to long-term success through customer satisfaction. In a TQM effort, all members of an organization participate in improving processes, products, services, and the culture in which they work. (Designer chairs)

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37
Q

Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is a function of three beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence

What does the beliefs Expectancy, Instrumentality and Valence refer to?

A

Expectancy: refers to the belief that good performance will be rewarded.
Instrumentality: performance leads to a reward
Valence: the reward has value

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38
Q

Do peer evaluations provide accurate and useful information?

A

Peer evaluations are not often used in organizations, but the research indicates that they can provide accurate and useful information and indicate a promotion

Peer evaluations have been found valid for certain purposes and appear to be particularly accurate in predicting training success and subsequent promotions.

The research suggests that peer and supervisor ratings agree more with each other than they do with self-ratings.

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39
Q

Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model distinguishes between 4 leadership styles that are characterized by different combination of task and relationship orientation: appropriate style depends on subordinates______ which is a combination of ability and willingness to take responsibility. what are the 4 leadership styles and what is the appropriate style for each?

followers who are comparatively low on maturity should benefit from high structuring combined with low consideration. As the follower gains maturity, the need for leader structuring declines, but the need for supervisory supportiveness actually increases. At the highest levels of follower maturity, the need for both leader structuring and social supportiveness declines further, such that at the highest levels of follower maturity, leader structuring and consideration are irrelevant to follower performance

A

Telling
Selling
Participating
Delegating

  • Telling: high task(directive), low relationship style (supportive): low ability and low willingness: Leader A leader’s primary concern lays with the task delivery and less with the personal needs of the subordinates. Typical behaviour for a S1 leadership style, is offering step-by-step instructions, clear explanation of the consequences of non-performance and close supervision. In such a situation, it is important that the task is clearly defined and the stages of the process are easy to follow. This is important because the leader believes that the follower (R1) either does not know what to do or is unwilling and requires therefore a certain degree of coercive power. (R1) A follower with a R1-status is unable to complete the required task, because they do not possess the necessary set of skills to perform well. Moreover, they are either unwilling to deliver the required task or lack self-confidence
  • -Selling: high task/directive and high relationship/supportive = low ability and high willingness: The leader’s style should therefore be concerned with increasing the confidence and skills of followers so that they can ultimately take on more responsibility for their actions. this style is necessary for D2 followers, who used to be highly enthusiastic in the beginning but who lost confidence because their competences are failing them: follower unable to perform a certain task, but in contrast to a R1 follower, willing to try anyway. In other words: they are motivated to attempt the task even though they lack the skills, knowledge and/or ability to do so. This follower style is often seen with new employees who are keen to impress their supervisor, but still lack the work experience to be productive right from the start.
  • Participating: Low task (directive) and High relationships (supportive) = High ability Low willingness (unwilling/ low commitment) likely to be able to perform well on their task, since they have developed the necessary skill set. The problem, however, is that they are unwilling to do so. The reason for this behavior are twofold: followers could be un-motived to comply with the leader’s request or could (still) be nervous about performing the task without enough support and encouragement from the leader
  • -Delegating: Low task (directive) and Low relationship (supportive) = High Ability and High Willingness they are ready, able and willing to perform. This means that followers are experienced at the required task and comfortable with their own ability to do it well and independently. They are able and willing to not only do the task, but to take responsibility for it
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40
Q

What correlates to job satisfaction?

A

Job satisifaction refers to the employee’s cognitive, affective, and evaluative reations to his or her job:

Job satisfaction is an adequate predictor of good health but not job performance

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41
Q

As predicted by the Taylor-Russell tables, the incremental validity of a selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will be the greatest when:

A

the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50.
The Taylor-Russell Tables provide information on a test’s incremental validity for various combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients.

A test with even a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).

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5
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42
Q

What type of consultant would help board members, staff, and teachers identify and modify the ways in which their behaviors are inconsistent with their goals.

A

Process consultants focus on processes (interactions) between people and how these processes interfere with the achievement of their goals. Process consultation focuses on identifying and altering the overt behaviors that are interfering with normal social processes. It is based on the assumption that behavior change is the priority and precedes attitude change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In his well-known 1973 study, Rosenhan had several “pseudopatients” admit themselves to psychiatric hospitals with complaints of auditory hallucinations. Which of the following is most useful for explaining the results of Rosenhan’s study?

A

In Rosenhan’s study, mental health professionals responded to (“rated”) pseudopatients on the basis of their original diagnoses regardless of their subsequent behaviors. The response of mental health professionals in this study can be interpreted as a rater bias.

The halo effect is a rater bias that occurs when a rater’s ratings of an individual on one or several dimensions are affected by his or her rating on another dimension. The halo effect does explain the response of mental health professionals in this study; i.e., the mental health professionals continued to “rate” pseudopatients on the basis of their first ratings (diagnosis), regardless of the patients’ subsequent behaviors.

44
Q

____________ program evaluation focuses on identifying and evaluating the benefits gained by participation in a program, and is typically used for evaluation of non-profit programs.

____________ evaluations focus on how well the program is achieving set objectives.

________ evaluations regard the effectiveness of the program’s systems and structures.

A

Assistance-based

Goals-based

Process-based

45
Q

Ohio State University identified two basic and independent dimensions of leadership behavior. What are they?

A
  • Consideration: warmth, concern rapport and support__ PERSON oriented.
  • Initiating structure: the extent to which a leader defines, directs, and structures his/her own role. and the role of the subordinates:– leaders high on initiating structure+ TASK oriented
46
Q

Needs theorist of motivation

Cognitive

A

Needs: Maslow : 5 basic needs instinctual
Two Factor Theory: lower level needs -hygiene factors-dissatisfiers: when there not necessary unsatisfied: context-surrounds the job- supervisor, working condition, pay. relationship with co workers: if all met does not lead to satisfaction/motivation but will keep them satisfied
High: (motivators/satisfiers); content; what you are actually doing on the job- need to achieve, opportunity. increase satisfaction and motivation. if not met then neutral not dissatisfied; formed the idea of job enrichment

47
Q

The major advantage of using a forced-choice method as an employee performance appraisal technique is that:

A

When using the forced-choice technique, the rater chooses the behavior from two or more behaviors that best describe the employee, with behaviors being paired or grouped so that they are similar in terms of social desirability.

This technique was developed specifically to reduce rater biases, and there is some evidence that it accomplishes this goal.

A drawback of this technique is the difficulty of its development.

The forced-choice technique is considered more useful for obtaining an overall rating of performance than for obtaining the information needed to give employees feedback about their performance.

The forced-choice technique is a subjective measure of job performance.

48
Q

Research shows that a Compressed workweek, Flextime and Shiftwork strongly impacts or does not strongly impact what factors?

A

Compressed workweek: increase performance, job satisfaction, satisfaction with work schedule that effects attitude.– most attitude
Disadvantage: does not strongly impact performance and absenteeism

Flextime: positive effects on productivity, overall job satisfaction, and work schedule, and absenteeism but Does not strongly impact performance.

Shift-rotating is the worst- disrupts circadian rhythm, increases fatigue, sleepiness, lack of concentration, and accidents. swing shift impacts family roles and social life while graveyard-family, social, physical health and work related problems.

49
Q

A low selection ratio and a moderate base rate are useful for:

A

A predictor is most likely to increase decision-making accuracy (i.e., have good incremental validity) when there are many applicants to choose from (a low selection ratio) and when the current technique produces a moderate number of correct decisions (moderate base rate).

50
Q

Three approaches to program evaluations

______ program evaluation focuses on identifying and evaluating the benefits gained by participation in a program, and is typically used for evaluation of non-profit programs.

_______ evaluations focus on how well the program is achieving set objectives.

________ evaluations regard the effectiveness of the program’s systems and structures.

A

Outcomes-based: benefits gained by the participant

Goals-based: focus on how the program is achieve goals

Process-based: program’s systems and structures

51
Q

Is job satisfaction stable over time?

what are the top 5 factors that contribute to job satisfaction?

There has been a myriad of research investigating the relationship between job satisfaction and various measures of job performance. The most consistent finding is that job satisfaction is inversely related to?

A

The studies have found that job satisfaction is relatively stable over time and across jobs.

One explanation for the stability of job satisfaction is that it is strongly related to a tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic: In other words, people with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work, while those with positive affect tend to be satisfied.

  • job satisfaction is genetic
  • has a U shape relationship with age: high when start a new job, and decrease till older age
  • Satisfaction increases with occupational level
  • maybe a reciprocal relationship between job and life satisfaction.

5 factors to job sati. job security, opportunities to use skill (over qualified=job dissatisfaction, higher turnover, poorer physical and mental health), organizations financial stability, relationship with supervisor, compensation pay (equal pay more important)

absenteeism and turnover (inverse relationship–high the satisfaction the lower the absentee)
(job satisfaction tends to increase with age.
and individuals with higher levels of education tend to have higher levels of satisfaction.

52
Q

What are the three approaches to Program Evaluations?

What are the approaches to evaluation of training programs? “did it work?”

A
  • Outcome based program evaluations: benefits received by client participation in a group-enhancing learning or conditions -non for profit-
  • Goal-based evaluations: how well the program is achieving it’s set goals
  • Process- based evaluations: effectiveness of the program’s systems and structures
  • — program output is not considered evaluation—–

-Kirkpatricks: four levels of criteria
Reaction-were they satisfied with the program
Learning: what was learned
Behavioral: was there a change in behavior
Results: did it meet the organization’s goals
-Utility Analysis: gain or loss
-Formative and summative

53
Q

What are the JOB factors that contribute to job satisfaction?

A

job security, opportunity to use skills, organizations financial stability, relationship with immediate supervisor, compensation/pay
Opportunity to use abilities and skills is most commonly linked. and over-qualification is linked to dissatisfaction, higher turnover rates, and poorer physical and mental health.
Relationship of pay to job satisfaction is questionable. Most studies suggest that other factors, of job interest, relationships and security, but pay impact job fairness and equitably (compensation)

54
Q

What does Activation Theory Purpose

A

Activation theory proposes that energy expenditure and performance are positively related to stimulus variability. Enriched jobs provide stimulus variability and therefore should increase activation (motivation) level and performance.

55
Q

Brouseau and Driver’s decision dynamics career model emphasizes a person’s _______. Their model distinguishes between 4 career paths which are ?

A

Career concept or how a person envisions her career path.
Linear career concept- progressive upwards movement towards authority
expert career concept: lifelong commitment to a career specialty
Spiral Career Concept: periodic movements across occupational specialties
Transitory career concept- ideal career involves frequent job changes to unrelated fields.

56
Q

in terms of training program evaluation, Kirkpatrick contends that – criteria are the most important criteria to evaluated but are often the most difficult to develop and therefore the most infrequently used. and why?

A

For levels of evaluation criteria
Reaction
Learning: how much the trainees learned
Behavior: change in performance
Results- the fourth level criteria and assess the value of the training program in terms of organizations goals-the higher the level of evaluation the more difficult and costly the evaluations will be but also the most significant .
Correlation between levels are low- need to assess more than one level to get a better picture of what is going on.

57
Q

What are the two models of individual decision making proposed by Herbert Simon (1979)?

A

Herbert Simon (1979) identified two models of individual decision-making: the rational-economic model _ decision makers maximize benefits by systematically searching for it and considering all alternatives. this model assumes they have all the information and are able to process alternatives in an unbias way.

-The other is_ the bounded rational (administrative) model. According to Simon, limited time and resources require decision-makers to be less than totally rational. Specifically, rather than considering all alternatives before making a decision, they consider alternatives only until they encounter one that meets minimum requirements of acceptability. satisfices rather than optimizes or maximizes -make the solution that becomes first available and select the solution the meets the minimum criteria.

58
Q

What are the different methods of training?

What are the psychological factors that affect training

A
trainings-nonparticipative (watching lecture) participative (individual: programmed instruction-booklets, software can train individuals all at the same time) 
Off the job
simulation training-vestibule training
On the job 
Job rotation: management
Cross Training

Individual differences: trainability (cog. test, biodata) difference between trainees will intensfy- more skilled individual get more skills
certain expectations
self efficacy: idea that you can do it and expectation that you will succeed
Motivation: can be improved by involving in decisions in training program
Locus of control- internal affects motivation
active vs. passive practice
Massed vs. space practice- spaced better
whole and part learning
Transfer of training: over learning ( learning past the point of mastery and identical elements

59
Q

Chin and Benne (1976) identified three strategies for overcoming resistance to change in organizations:

A

-rational-empirical strategy– Providing employees with information about the change when resistance to change is due to a lack of knowledge

Normative-reeducative __ is based on the premise that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are effective methods for promoting change. Therefore, having employees work together to accomplish change is likely to be part of this strategy.

Power-coercive strategy: Relying on a strong leader to gain cooperation and by using rewards to encourage employees to comply with plans for change

60
Q

Aderfer ERG means

A

Existence, relatedness and growth: not hierarchical at the same level, just because you meet a need you do not move on to the nex- like to do creative things, write a book which inspires you to be more creative.

61
Q

Path-goal theory is classified as a ________ theory because it proposes that the best style depends on the nature of the situation.

According to path-goal theory, the best leadership style depends on ?

What are some leadership styles based on this theory?

A

contingency (reinforcement and Bandura)

certain characteristics of the task (e.g., level of ambiguity, structure) and of the workers (e.g., traits, abilities)

(directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on certain characteristics of the task and the subordinates.

62
Q

House’s path-goal theory distinguishes between what four leadership styles:

When a task is difficult and the workers are experienced and prefer control over their work, what would be a good leadership style?

On the other hand, when a task is unstructured and the workers are inexperienced what style would be more effective?

A

House’s path-goal theory distinguishes between four leadership styles: directive, supportive, participative, and achievement-oriented.

According to path-goal theory, the optimal leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the worker (e.g., self-confidence and locus of control) and the work situation (e.g., degree of task challenge and ambiguity).

Path-goal theory identifies worker and situational characteristics as determinants of the optimal leadership style

  • Achievement oriented
  • directive
63
Q

What is the difference between Ultimate vs. Actual Criterion?

A

Ultimate (concept)

Actual ( measure)

64
Q

Research investigating the relationship between leader intelligence and leader effectiveness has found a __________ relationship between these two variables.

A

Perhaps surprisingly, the research has found that scores on cognitive ability tests are poor predictors of leader effectiveness.

F. Fiedler and T. Link note that prior reviews of the research report median correlations of .20 to .30 between various measures of intellectual ability and leadership and managerial performance –weak positive

65
Q

Research on Night, swing and day shifts found that?

A

the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates, but the swing shift has the most detrimental impact on social relations.
Studies comparing the impact of the various work shifts have not produced entirely consistent results. However, it does appear that the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates and lowest performance, apparently as the result of sleep deprivation. In contrast, the swing shift has the most negative impact on family and other social relationships.
Freedom of choice: those individuals who choose to work the nightshift has fewer physical and psychological problems

66
Q

Peer evaluations have been found to be accurate in predicting training success and subsequent promotions

A

allows for a better idea of individuals strength, immediate feedback and accountability

67
Q

Organizational Development Interventions are based on behavioral science principles and are techniques to facilitate planed change. What are some commonly used interventions?

A

Quality of Work Life Program: programs that are designed to humanize work and the work environment- emphasize employee empowerments -enable workers to set own goals, decisions and resolve problems (limited) focus on participation and involvement- lower level jobs
Quality Circles; small volunteer group that discuss on the job problems and solutions. impacts attitude but not job performance. QCs consist of a small team of employees who work together on a particular job and meet voluntarily to discuss solutions to job productivity problems. They make suggestions to management about solutions to work-related problems.
Self-Management Work Teams: autonomous work groups that have skills and training to perform the group task. Work together as a unit with leadership rotating from one member to the next. do: hiring, budgeting, and other decisions made by managers. Makes decisions not suggestions- trained in teamthink: encouraged divergent views, discuss doubts, and ethical determinations.
Process Consultation: optimizes interactions with on another_ consultant observes employees during meetings and shares info to help improve their social interactions. looks at behaviors and targets behaviors related o communication, leadership, decision-making, conflict resolutions, and roles.
Survey Feedback -Data collection, Data feedback, and action planning
Total Quality MANAGEMENT: Focuses on COSTUMER satisfaction, employee involvement and empowerment, continuous improvement in quality of goods and services and ongoing measurement of performance. emphasis teamwork and decision making in all department- flatter (horizontal) hierarchy more work teams and less managers.

68
Q

Work-Family conflict is when the role demands of career and family are incompatible because work interferes with family. Conflicts between work and family results in?

What are some gender differences?

Do women benefit from working outside of the home?

A

reduced job, marital and work satisfaction, job burnout, job turnover, decrease productivity, and mental and physical health problems.

conflict is more stressful for women
men experience more work family conflict associated with work expectations
women- family expectations

Women benefit from working outside of the home-

69
Q

How does training program development begin? And what are the four elements involved?

A

program training development begins with a needs assessment (needs analysis) .

Four elements of a needs assessment are: organizational analysis to identify goals and determine if training is needed (2) task (job) analysis identify what must be done to perform the job (3) person analysis to determine which employees need training and the knowledge skills and abilities to do the job (4) demographic analysis- to identify training needs of different groups.

70
Q

What are the three types of organizational commitment?

what does research indicate?

A

Affective: emotional attachment
Continuance: cost of leaving ( income and discounted childcare)
Normative: sense of obligation (help the family)
Research found that: affective commitment is most consistently related to turnover, absenteeism, organizational citizenship, job performance, personal stress, and work and family conflict
continuance: turnover.

71
Q

What are the effects of poor job satisfaction?

A

poor performance-this relationship is weak
Turnover, absenteeism, and tardiness, strongest relationship is between satisfaction and turnover moderated by unemployment-
Physical and mental health- emotional burnout: lowered self esteem, depression and anxiety

72
Q

Theories of career choice and development can be categorized in terms of four basic types. The theories of Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963) and Tiedeman and Miller-Tiedeman (1984) are examples of the __________

A

Developmental –

73
Q

Group (response) polarization occurs when

__________effect suggests that people reduce their effort on a group task when they observe that their contributions to a group are dispensable and that the group will succeed without them

Groupthink?

____________ is like group polarization but includes only the “risky” end of the decision continuum and becomes a potential problem when employees work together to derive a work-related decision

A

Group (response) polarization occurs when a person makes a more extreme decision in a group than he/she would have made alone.

The free-rider effect suggests that people reduce their effort on a group task when they observe that their contributions to a group are dispensable and that the group will succeed without them.

Groupthink refers to a suspension of critical and objective thinking that can occur under certain circumstances in group decision-making. Although groupthink can result in more extreme decisions, this isn’t necessarily so.

The risky shift is like group polarization but includes only the “risky” end of the decision continuum. The risky shift is the tendency for decisions made by a group to be less conservative (more risky) than the decisions made by individuals working alone. For additional information on the risky shift and related phenomena,

74
Q

What is one of the problems with job enrichment?

A

Job enrichment involves redesigning a job so that it provides workers with opportunities to satisfy their motivator needs - e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, recognition, and advancement.

The research suggests that there are individual differences with regard to the acceptance and effectiveness of job enrichment. For example, young, well-educated employees are likely to respond favorably to job enrichment, while employees preferring stability and security to responsibility are likely to respond unfavorably.

75
Q

What are the theories and models of leadership,

A

Contingency Theory–leadership effectiveness depends on their interaction with leader’s style (which is fixed and can be assessed with the LPC scale: relationship oriented or task oriented and favorableness of the situation- (positive relationships = greater power), nature of task-(more structured, greater influence)- leader’s position on power- (greater the rewards he/she can offer- more influence): Fiedler’s LPC scale categorizes leaders as “high LPC” (person-oriented) or “low LPC” (task-oriented). His theory proposes that high LPC leaders are most effective when the situation is moderately favorable, while low LPC leaders are best when the situation is highly favorable or unfavorable.
Cognitive Resource Theory
Path Goal Theory; best leader can help a subordinate find a path that allows them to fulfill their goals.
Situational Leadership: leadership style that characterized by different combinations of task and relationship orientation.
Vroom-Yetton_Jargo Normative Decision making model- 11 situational factors and 5 basic decisions: The Vroom-Yetton-Jago model distinguishes between autocratic, consultative, and group decision-making leader styles and proposes that the best one depends on certain characteristics of the situation including time constraints, the importance of subordinate commitment to the decision, and the structure of the task. The model includes a decision-tree to help leaders choose the optimal style for their situation

76
Q

High levels of job stress is related to what?

Karasek’s demand-control (job strain) model identifies job demands and job control as primary contributors to job stress. Job demand and job control refer to?

What produces the most stress?

A

reduce job productivity, increase sabotage, absenteeism, and turnover, reduce job satisfaction.

Job demand refers to requirements of the job in terms of work load, time pressures, and responsibility.

Job Control: or decision latitude: refers to worker’s autonomy, and discretion for using different skills.

combination of High job demand and Low job control produce the most stress; associated with job satisfaction, emotional exhaustion, depression and other health problems: example-nurse, service industry.

77
Q

job enrichment impacts? how does this vary?

What is the difference between job enrichment and job enlargement?

A

Job satisfaction
Varied- impacts more: young educated, skills to do the job, high needs of achievement (nACH)
Anxiety provoking: Low nACH,

enrichment- vertical loading give more higher level jobs
enlargement- horizontal loading-increasing tasks variety of tasks but not responsibility or more autonomous
Both targets upper level needs- reduce boredom.
job enrichment, enlargement and job rotation eliminate boredom and alienation

78
Q

What is the difference between the Hawthorne effect, Halo effect , central tendency error and contrast effect?

A

Hawthorne” improvement in job performance resulting from participating in a study
Halo effect- error in reasoning in which an impression formed from a single trait or characteristic is allowed to influence multiple judgement or ratings of unrelated factors. (thorndike: taller more attractive officers where rated higher: Asch: primacy effect: positive traits presented first where rated more positive, negative first, more negative))

79
Q

The Americans with Disabilities Act:

A

Although ADA permits only post-offer, pre-employment medical exams, it explicitly excludes drug testing as a medical exam. In other words, drug testing is not prohibited at any time during pre-employment or employment.
permits drug testing before or after a job offer has been made.

80
Q

Expectancy theory (Porter, Lawler)
High expectance means:
High instrumentality means:
Positive valence:

A

Expectance: belief that high effort leads to successful task performance
performance leads to reward
rewards are desirable (value)

81
Q

Five participants in a research study work individually at computer terminals to generate solutions to novel problems. Each participant in the study simultaneously reviews the suggested solutions of other participants while entering his or her own solutions. The purpose of this study is to assess the effects of technology on:

A

Brainstorming

Brainstorming was originally developed as a way to improve group performance on difficult or novel tasks. Although the research on brainstorming has generally found that people come up with more and better solutions when working alone than when working as a group, there is some evidence that brainstorming by computer improves its outcomes.

82
Q

How do you evaluate training programs? What are the approaches?

A

Kirkpatrik’s Four level criteria- reaction, learning, behavior, and results
Utility Analysis: mathematical equation to estimate gains and losses
Formative vs. Summative evaluations-formative (while it is forming) being developed Summative (summed up) after the program has been implemented. dtermine how much learned and cost

83
Q

Expectancy Theory

Belief»>

A

High expectancy: belief high effort equal successful performance
Successful performance leads to rewards
rewards have value

84
Q

A personnel director decides to raise a selection test’s cutoff score when using the test to assist in hiring decisions. Most likely the personnel director has made this decision in order to:

A

Raising the predictor cutoff score decreases the number of true and false positives and increases the number of true and false negatives.

Most likely, a personnel director would raise the predictor cutoff to decrease the number of false positives since these individuals “cost the company money” (i.e., they would be hired on the basis of their test scores but would be unsuccessful on the job).

85
Q

What are Maslows 5 needs?

A

physiological, safety, social, esteem, self-actualization

86
Q

_____ and ___________distinguish between the four career concepts listed in the question and describes them in terms of three dimensions: frequency of job change, direction of change, and type of change in job content.
They described a career concept as ____, _____, ____ or __________

A

Brousseau and Driver

a person’s career concept can be described as linear, expert, spiral, or transitory.

87
Q

Subjective Criterion Measures are categorized into Relative (comparative) techniques and Absolute techniques. Relative _____ while absolute _____.
What is an advantage of the relative technique and what is a disadvantage? Are subjective techniques most susceptble to rater bias?

Name some relative techniques?

A

Relative techniques require the rater to compare. While absolute provide information on the ratee’s performance without reference or comparison.
advantage of relative is it can help alleviate rater bias. however, the disadvantage is that is forces the rater to place some ratee’s at high or low performance even when all or most employees are performing at about the same level– they are prohibited by law for most federal jobs, most employees do not like them, and they are less useful than absolute measures for obtaining information needed to provide employee’s specific feedback.
- yes
Relative techniques; pair comparison-rater compares each ratee with every other ratee in pairs on one or more dimensions of jib performance: cumbersome to use as ratees increase
Forced Distribution
Absolute:
Critical Incident Technique: provides useful feedback, disadvantage: development requires close supervision of employees and accurate record keeping. it address only critical (extreme) job behaviors and does not indicate frequency or degree.
Forced-Choice rating scale: rater considers two or four alternatives that are considered to be about equally in terms of desirability and rater selects the one that best describes the ratee. reduces rater bias, time consuming to develop and disliked by raters
Graphic Rater Scale: likert scale that ranges from excellent to poor, highly susceptible to rater bias improved accuracy with anchored points.
Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)

88
Q

What are the principles of effective training?

What conditions need to be met to have improved on the job performance?

A
  • Provide feedback as soon as possible
  • Foster overlearning: good for information that is recalled infrequently or under stress
  • Provide frequent opportunities for active practice: to apply info and practice skills
  • Provide opportunities for Distributed Practice: practice that is spaced over time. good for tasks involving motor skills and memorizing
  • Choose appropriate learning focus: whole learning- low complexity and high organization; Part learning high complexity and low organization
  • Promote transfer of training:
  • —–promotes improved on the job training and occurs when degree of similarity between learning and performance environment are maximized: identical elements, training includes exposure to a variety of examples, skills acquired through training are reinforce on the job
89
Q

What are the different theories and approach to Career Development and career choice?

The vocational identity theory proposed by Tiedeman and colleagues as well as Super’s theory represents a ___________approach.

While, Parson’s (1939) and Holland’s (1988) theories are ______________ approaches.

Roe’s (1984) theory emphasizes the role of ____________ and __________. A person’s occupational choice is the result of genetic factors and __________. She distinguishes what 3 types of parent child relationships? Roe suggests that early relationship with one’s parents produces a basic orientation?

A

The vocational identity theory proposed by Tiedeman and colleagues is classified as a developmental approach. (Super’s theory also represents this approach.

Parson’s (1939) and Holland’s (1988) theories are trait-oriented approaches.

Roe’s (1984) theory emphasizes the role of personality and Maslow’s basic needs.
early childhood experiences
1-emotional concentration (demandedness and overprotectiveness)
2- avoidance (neglect or rejection)
3- acceptance (loving and casual)

“toward other people” and “not toward other people”

90
Q

Janis (1972) coined the term _______ to describe the suspension of critical thinking that occurs in highly cohesive groups.

How do you mitigate the effect of this?

A

Janis (1972) coined the term “groupthink” to describe the suspension of critical thinking that occurs in highly cohesive groups. Groupthink is associated with illusions of invulnerability and superior morality, strong pressure toward uniformity, and insulation from outside input.

Groupthink occurs most often in highly cohesive groups when members feel a need to achieve consensus and, therefore, disregard and discourage consideration of alternative actions. -Actively encouraging dissent and criticism would help disrupt the pattern of communication and problem-solving that characterizes groupthink.

91
Q

When is group decision making superior to individual decision making?

How does group think occur? According to Janus group think is characterized by? How can your reduce groupthink?

Group polarization is?

A

When the group is heterogeneous, and when the task is complex
Group think is likely to occur when the leader is highly directive and when the group is working under stress/cohesive.

Group think is characterized by: illusions of invulnerability and unanimity (agreement by all involved); collective rationalization; unquestioned morality; excessive negative stereotyping; strong pressure to conform; self appointed “mindguards”; self censorship to dissenting views

Can reduce groupthink: encourage skepticism and dissent; devils advocate, bring in an outside opinion, reduce time pressure, not stating opinion before coming to a group decision.

Group polarization is the tendency for groups to make more extreme decisions in the direction of the group then they would of made individually, – contributed to social comparison, mutual reinforcement and diffusion of responsibility. (risky shift– direction of riskiness)

92
Q

Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of Work Adjustment describes satisfaction, tenure and other job outcomes as the result of correspondence between worker and his work environment on what two dimensions?

A

satisfaction (degree to which characteristics of the job meet the needs and values of the worker
satisfactoriness ( extent to which the worker’s skills meet job skill demands)

93
Q

Criterion deficiency refers to?

Contamination? how can this occur and what is the result?

A

Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure fails to measure all aspects of the ultimate (conceptual) criterion.
A criterion measure can have high reliability but low validity - i.e., it can give consistent results but measure only some aspects of the ultimate criterion.
Contamination: limits relevance and occurs when actual criterion assess factors other than those it was designed to measure.
Can occur when the rater knows the employee’s predictor performance
likely to artificially inflate the predictor’s criterion related validity coeff.
.

94
Q

What level of personal is assessed usually through assessment centers? And what are some of the techniques used?

What is the best situational test?

A

Evaluate managerial level personael usually to determine if lower level managers can be effective high level managers. or identify a manger’s needs for training and development.
usually evaluated by a team on a number of dimensions (organization, decision-making, flexibility)

Techniques: structured interviews, written tests and situational tests

in the basket is best known situational test as well as leaderless group discussion. -having 5 or 6 participants work together without a leader to solve a job related problem

95
Q

In regard to career decision and development, Roe focuses on?

Tiedman and O’Hara theory of career focuses on?

Krumboltz?

Brousseau and Driver look at emphasize a person’s career concept in the decision making dynamics. Career concept refers to? Their model distinguishes between 4 career concepts that vary in 3 dimensions of frequency of job change, direction of change and type of change in job content: what are the names of the 4 career concepts?

Dawis and Lofquist: Theory of Work Adjustment: job decisions should be based off of satisfaction and satisfactoriness which are? According to Dawis, England, and Lofquist’s (1964) theory of work adjustment, the probability that a person will be forced out of the work environment is inversely related to his or her:

A

Roe (1972) focuses on the impact of basic needs on career development.

Ego identity development is a focus of Tiedeman and O’Hara’s (1963) theory of career development.

Krumbolts: social learning theory of career decision making: reinforcement and Bandura’s theory: development requires exposure to learning experiences and decisions are influenced by;_ genetic (special abilities-art),_ environment (job opportunities), _learning experiences (instrumental; learning based on rewards) and associative ( classical conditioning) and _Task-approach skills that are the result of interaction between the other three. Does NOT match individual to job characteristics but focuses on continual learning and self development

Brouasseau and Driver :a person’s career concept refers to how a person envisions his/her ideal career path. Linear career concept: progressive upward movement; Expert Career lifelong commitment, specialty focused; _Spiral Career concept: envisions periodic moves across occupational specialty: _ Transitory career concept: ideal career as involving frequent job changes in unrelated fields.

Satisfaction: degree to which the job matches the needs and values of the individual
Satisfactoriness: extent to which the workers skills match the skill demand of the job.
-The theory of work adjustment predicts that job tenure is a joint function of satisfaction and satisfactoriness. Satisfaction refers to the correspondence between an employee’s vocational needs and values and the reinforcement systems provided by the job, while satisfactoriness is a function of the correspondence between an employee’s abilities and the ability requirements of the job.

-satisfactoriness is the extent to which an employee is able to perform a job. When an employee cannot perform the job because his/her abilities do not meet ability requirements of the job, the employee is likely to be fired.

96
Q

What are the different methods of training?

What are the psychological factors that affect training

A
trainings-nonparticipative (watching lecture) participative (individual: programmed instruction-booklets, software can train individuals all at the same time) 
Off the job
simulation training-vestibule training
On the job 
Job rotation: management
Cross Training

Individual differences: trainability (cog. test, biodata) difference between trainees will intensify- more skilled individual get more skills
certain expectations
self efficacy: idea that you can do it and expectation that you will succeed
Motivation: can be improved by involving in decisions in training program
Locus of control- internal affects motivation

97
Q

OF the big 5 personality traits which most predicts job performance and why?

A

Conscientiousness: level of responsibility, dependability, persistence, self-control and achievement motivation. best predictor of job performance across different jobs, job settings and criterion measures.

98
Q

What are the three concepts to Super’s theory of career development?

What are the five stages of Life Span in Super’s theory?

According to Tiedman, and O’Hara’s career decision-making model, vocational identity is an ongoing process and tied to ______? and described in terms of _______ psychosocial stages which involves a repetitive process of __________ and ________?
Further they propose that their are two phases to the decision making process which are? which of these stages includes: induction, reformation, and integration? Career counseling is to helping people become aware of factors that contribute to their decisions they make in each stage so they are better at making choices.

A

Self-Concept: changes over the life span but becomes more stable with age.
Life Span:
Life Space: Roles of the RAINBOW

Life Span
1-Growth (0-14)
2-Exploration (14 to 25)
3- Establishment (25 to 45)
4- Maintenance (45 to 65)
5- Disengagement (65 over)
G>E>E>M>D

Tied to Ego: Erickson; differentiation and integration.

Anticipation phase-exploration, crystallization, choice and specification: explores career possibilities and makes a choice
implementation and adjustment phase: which consists of the three stages: induction, reformation, and integration - becomes an established worker: achieves a balance between demand of work and his/her needs
–they are reversible.

99
Q

What are some approaches to evaluating the effectiveness of the training program?

A

Krikpatrick’ s four levels of criteria:
1- Reaction Criteria: did they like it? are reactions to the program linked to job performance?
2- Learning criteria: how much did they actually learn
3- Behavioral criteria: did performance change once they were back on the job
4- Results criteria: did it meet the organization’s goals: financial/non financial

Utility Analysis: Utility refers to the cost effectiveness of training and can be calculated using the following formula: $U = T x N x d x SD - N x C where:$U = utility measured in terms of dollar value T = number of years duration of the training program’s effects on performance N = number of people trained d = effect size of the training program SD = standard deviation of job performance in dollars C = per person cost of training: T x d x C is part of the formula for calculating utility or dollar values according to the formula.

Formative and Summative Evaluation: Formative- conducted while being developed: can make modification before implemented.
Summative: after the program was implemented- can determine how much learned and cost

100
Q

What are the different types of work schedules and how do they impact the employee? positive and negative

A

Compressed work week: decrease number of days but increase number of hours

positive: supervisor ratings of work performance, employee overall job satisfaction and employee satisfaction with work schedule.
- does not strongly impact objective measures of job performance or on absenteeism (lower but moderated by physical and emotional exhaustion)

Flextime: choice between when to begin and end work with a core time of when all employees must meet.
positive effect on employee’s productivity, overall job satisfaction and satisfaction with work schedule. and absenteeism does not have a direct impact on self ratings: less stress and decreased work-family conflict.

Shift work: set work shifts are preferred over rotating shifts. as rotating shift disrupt circadian rhythm and increase fatigue, sleepiness, concentration and cause more errors.
Of the three shifts, the swing shift is the most negative ( 3:00 to 11:00 impact on social roles and family. However, the night shift is associated with the most health social and work related problems which is partially attributed to sleep deprivation. – employees who choose to work the night shift have better health.

101
Q

In terms of work, high levels of stress not only reduce job productivity but?

Karasek’s demand-control (job strain) model identifies what two contributors of job stress.

What are the two most stressors that create more stress then experiencing a traumatic event?

A

are also linked to increase sabotage, absenteeism, and turnover and reduced job satisfaction.

Karasek- Job Demand: requirements of the job in terms of work load, time pressures, and responsibilities
Job Control: decision latitude and refers to the worker’s autonomy and discretion for using different skills.
the combination of high job demand and low job control produces the most stress and is associated with job satisfaction, emotional exhaustion, depression and other health problems. –machine pace jobs and service jobs

Most stressful: marriage (death of spouse, divorce, marital separation) most- everyday hassle.

102
Q

In terms of incremental validity, which of the following situations most supports the use of a new predictor?

A

The degree to which a new selection technique will increase decision-making accuracy depends on several factors including the base rate (proportion of correct decisions without the new technique) and the selection ratio (ratio of applicants to job openings).

A moderate base rate suggests that there’s room for improvement and, therefore, that a new predictor is likely to increase decision-making accuracy. Also, the situation is optimal when there are many applicants to choose from (a low selection ratio).

103
Q

The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is useful for:

A

The Position Analysis Questionnaire provides information on six dimensions of worker activity (e.g., mental processes, relationships).

The PAQ is a quantitative, worker-oriented method of collecting data for the purpose of job analysis.

conducting a job analysis.

104
Q

Krumboltz’s (1996) theory of career decision-making emphasizes which of the following?

A

Krumboltz’s social learning theory differs from other prominent theories of career development and decision-making in that it does NOT focus on matching an individual’s characteristics to the characteristics of the job.

Krumboltz emphasizes the importance of continual learning and self-development, which enable individuals to respond effectively to constantly changing work environments.

105
Q

A primary assumption underlying the use of survey feedback as a method of organizational development is that:

A

Survey feedback involves collecting data about an organization, providing the information to employees in small group meetings, and then having employees analyze the identified problems and find solutions to them.
A primary assumption underlying the technique known as survey feedback is that, for change to occur, employees must be familiar with the organization’s strengths and weaknesses. For this reason, it involves including employees in all steps of the process.

106
Q

Intercept bias is occurring when scores on a predictor:

A

Intercept bias is another name for unfairness, which is identified in the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures as a cause of adverse impact.
In a scatterplot, the intercept is the point at which the regression line intersects the Y-axis. An intercept bias occurs when the regression lines for different groups of examinees intersect the Y-axis at different points, which means that the predictor systematically overpredicts or under predicts the performance of members of a specific group.

note:
slope bias which is another name for differential validity and is another potential cause of adverse impact. related to the criterion performance of one group of examinees but not of another group.

107
Q

In conflict resolution, the primary role of a mediator is to:

A

-help disputants consider alternative solutions to the problem.
Disputants are often inflexible with regard to their own idea of the best solution to a problem, and an important task for a mediator is to increase disputants’ flexibility regarding alternatives. One way to achieve this goal is to suggest alternatives.
-third person comes in when bargaining deadlocks: a neutral party. _duck clarifies the issues and opens lines of communication-
Three stages:
setting the stage (clarifying ground rules and collecting information)
problem solving (posing issues and generating alternatives)
achieving a workable agreement ( pressuring the parties to reach an agreement)