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Physiology > Physio module 2 > Flashcards

Physio module 2 Flashcards

0
Q

Muscle cells that are cylindrical and branched, each with a single, centrally located nucleus, and that contract spontaneously are
A) cardiac muscle
B) skeletal muscle.
C) smooth muscle

A

A. Cardiac muscle cells are cylindrical and branched, each with a single, centrally located nucleus, and they contract spontaneously. Smooth muscle cells are spindle shaped, uninucleated, and under involuntary control.

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1
Q 
During contraction, muscles shorten \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ , and lengthen \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ .
	A)	forcefully, forcefully
	B)	forcefully, passively
	C)	passively, forcefully
	D)	passively, passively
A

B

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2
Q

__________ surrounds each muscle fasciculus, whereas __________ surrounds each muscle fiber.

	A)	Epimysium, perimysium
	B)	Perimysium, endomysium
	C)	Epimysium, endomysium
	D)	Endomysium, perimysium
	E)	Endomysium, epimysium
A

B

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2
Q

Radialis muscle is stimulated to produce mydriasis by what system?

A

Sympathetic nervous system ( mydRiasis= Radialis)

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2
Q

True or false. All skeletal muscle must have a signal with somatic nervous system to contract

A

True

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3
Q 
Which of these layers of a skeletal muscle is the same as the fascia?
	A)	sarcolemma
	B)	perimysium
	C)	fasciculus (bundle)
	D)	epimysium
	E)	endomysium
A

D. The epimysium, consisting of dense collagenous connective tissue, is the same as the fascia. The fasciculus is surrounded by a perimysium.

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3
Q

Neurotransmitter for somatic nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

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3
Q

True or false. All skeletal muscles Are Attached to skeleton

A

False. Ex tongue

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4
Q 
Each muscle cell is a
	A)	fasciculus.
	B)	sarcomere.
	C)	fiber.	
	D)	myofibril.
	E)	myofilament.
A

C. Each muscle cell is a fiber. Myofibrils are the protein structures composed of myofilaments found inside the muscle fibers (cells).

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4
Q

Cranial nerves for parasympathetic nervous system

A

10, 9, 7, 3

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4
Q

True or false. In relaxation phase, troponin and tropomyosin complex are activated

A

True. Contraction- inhibited

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5
Q 
Which of these is NOT a part of the actin myofilament?
	A)	actin
	B)	cisternae
	C)	tropomyosin
	D)	troponin
A

B

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5
Q

Primary adrenergic receptor for fat cells

A

Beta 3 receptor

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5
Q

Pre gAnglionic receptor of parasympathetic nervous system

A

Nicotine

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5
Q

Protein that holds actin and myosin in place

A

Titin

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6
Q 
Which of these locations has the ability to break down ATP, which releases energy?
	A)	globular actin molecule
	B)	head of myosin molecule
	C)	troponin molecule
	D)	tropomyosin molecule
	E)	troponin-tropomyosin complex
A

B

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6
Q

Prevents release of Ach in the synaptic vesicles

A

Botulinum toxin

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7
Q 
Troponin binds to
	A)	actin.
	B)	calcium ions.
	C)	tropomyosin.	
	D)	all of these
A

D

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7
Q

Autonomic nervous system used in Rest and Digest

A

Parasympathetic

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8
Q 
Most of the interior of muscle fibers is filled with
	A)	fasciculi.
	B)	myofibrils.
	C)	nuclei.	
	D)	sarcoplasm.
	E)	sarcoplasmic reticulum.
A

Most of the interior of muscle fibers is filled with myofibrils, the contractile proteins composed of myofilaments.

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8
Q

True or false. There are no cross bridge heads in the center of the myosin filament.

A

True

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9
Q 
Which of these units contains overlapping actin and myosin myofilaments?
	A)	A band
	B)	H zone
	C)	I band
	D)	M line
	E)	Z disk
A

A. The A band consists of overlapping actin and myosin myofilaments. The H zone consists of myosin myofilaments only.

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9
Q

Local potential of autonomic nervous system is called?

A

Excitatory / inhibitory post synaptic potential

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9
Q

True or false. Light chains of the myosin are part of the myosin body.

A

False. Part of the head

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10
Q 
Which of these units contains the Z disk?
	A)	A band
	B)	H zone
	C)	I band	
	D)	M line
A

C

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10
Q

Adrenal medulla produces how many % of epinephrine?

A

80

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10
Q

True or false. Inhibition of the troponin tropomyosin complex results to muscle relaxation

A

False

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11
Q 
Which of these regions shorten(s) during skeletal muscle contraction?
	A)	A band
	B)	I band	
	C)	H zone
	D)	both a and b
	E)	both b and c
A

E

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11
Q

Sweat glands is part of what ANS

A

Sympathetic

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12
Q

The resting membrane potential occurs when
A) sodium ions diffuse into the cell.
B) sodium ions diffuse out of the cell.
C) potassium ions diffuse into the cell.
D) potassium ions diffuse out of the cell.
E) large negative molecules diffuse out of the cell.

A

D

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12
Q

What ANS is responsible for excessive diarrhea?

A

Parasympathetic

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12
Q

Fast fibers have larger amount of mitochondria than slow fiber

A

False. Main metabolism is glycolysis ( cytoplasm)

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13
Q

If the permeability of the plasma membrane to Na+ ions increases, the result is
A) depolarization
B) repolarization
C) little, if any, change in the resting membrane potential of the plasma membrane.

A

A

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13
Q

What ANS is heightened during robbery?

A

Sympathetic

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14
Q 
In the neuromuscular junction, the axon is also called the
	A)	postsynaptic membrane.
	B)	presynaptic terminal.
	C)	synaptic cleft.
	D)	synaptic vesicle.
A

B. The axon is also called the presynaptic terminal in the neuromuscular junction. The postsynaptic membrane is the muscle plasma membrane at the neuromuscular junction.

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14
Q

A patient taking moclobemide, a MAO inhibitor is expected to have

A. Increase norepinephrine
B. decrease norepinephrine
C Increase acetylcholine
D. Decrease acetylcholine

A

A

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15
Q

Given these events:

  1. acetylcholine is released from synaptic vesicles
  2. an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal
  3. Ca2+ ions diffuse into the cell
  4. acetylcholine is secreted from the presynaptic terminal by exocytosis

arrangement that lists the events in the order they occur when an action potential travels through the axon of a motor neuron.

A

2 3 1 4

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15
Q

Given these events:

  1. acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
  2. acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine
  3. choline is reabsorbed by presynaptic membrane
  4. depolarization of postsynaptic membrane occurs
  5. ligand-gated Na+ ion channels open
A

15423

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15
Q 
Myosin has 4 binding site composed of;
A. 2 actin, 2 ATP binding site 
B. 2 calcium, 2 actin binding site
 C. 2 calcium, 2 ATP binding site 
D. 2 troponin, 2 ATP binding site
A

A

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15
Q

True or false. Fast fibers have greater amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum than slow fibers

A

True. They have more kc fast sila so need MADAMI calcium ions.

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16
Q

The drug atropine blocks neurotransmitter receptors on the postsynaptic terminal of the neuromuscular junction. This causes
A) flaccid paralysis.
B) spastic paralysis.
C) no change in muscle function.

A

A. Atropine causes flaccid paralysis by binding with the acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic terminal of the neuromuscular junction. Because acetylcholine cannot bind with the receptors, ligand gated Na+ ion channels are not opened, there is no action potential generated, and no subsequent muscle contraction.

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16
Q

A patient had to go undergo eye operation. What agent should be given to visualize the iris clearly?
A. Symphatomimetic agent
B. Symphatolytic agent

A

A

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17
Q 
The enlarged areas of the sarcoplasmic reticulum near the T tubules are the
	A)	sarcolemma.	
	B)	sarcomeres.
	C)	terminal cisternae.
	D)	troponin molecules
	E)	tropomyosin molecules.
A

C

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17
Q

Somatic nervous system is mostly found on what receptor

A

Nm ( nicotinic muscular receptor)

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18
Q

Visceral smooth muscle
A) responds in an all-or-none fashion to action potentials.
B) has slow waves of depolarization and repolarization.
C) has depolarization occur when the cell becomes
more permeable to Na+ ions and K+ ions.
D) requires a stimulus from a neuron or hormone.
E) produces strong contractions that only last for a
few milliseconds.

A

D

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18
Q

Respiratory center is found on what part of the brain?

A

Medulla

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18
Q

True or false. In isotonic contraction, there is an increase in muscle tension

A

False. Tension is constant. Muscle shortens

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19
Q

Which of these is correctly matched?
A) multiunit smooth muscle – spontaneous contractions
B) visceral smooth muscle – contracts when stretched
C) skeletal muscle – slower, longer lasting contractions than smooth muscle
D) multiunit smooth muscle – numerous gap junctions; autorhythmic
E) all of these

A

B

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19
Q 
Tear glands are controlled by: 
A. Sympathetic only 
B. parasympathetic only 
C. Both 
D. None of the above
A

B

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19
Q

Basis for naming slow fibers as red muscles

A

Myoglobin

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20
Q

Which of these is part of the contraction process of smooth muscle?
A) Calcium ions bind to troponin.
B) Caveolae bind with calcium to produce cross bridges.
C) Troponin and tropomyosin are moved.
D) Calcium ions bind to calmodulin, which activates an enzyme.

A

D. Calcium binding to calmodulin activates the enzyme myosin kinase, which allows the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to the head of the myosin and results in the formation of a cross bridge. There is no troponin associated with actin fibers in smooth muscle.

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20
Q 
A patient taking cocaine will cause 
A. Increase norepinephrine effect
B. decrease norepinephrine effect 
C. Increase acetylcholine effect 
D. Decrease acetylcholine effect
A

A

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21
Q 
Which of these characteristics is typical of a slow-twitch muscle fiber?
	A)	large number of mitochondria
	B)	few capillaries
	C)	low myoglobin content
	D)	largely anaerobic
	E)	b, c, and d
A

A

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21
Q 
Acute asthma attacks are best relieved by
A. Beta 1 agonist 
B. Beta 2 agonist 
C. Beta 1 antagonist
 D. Beta 2 antagonist
A

B

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21
Q

True or false. Slow fibers are dependent on anaerobic glycolysis

A

False

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22
Q 
Unlike neurons, muscle fibers have no
	A)	absolute refractory period.
	B)	action potentials.
	C)	resting membrane potential.
	D)	cell membrane.
	E)	mitochondria.
A

A. Muscle fibers have no absolute refractory period; relaxation is not required before a second action potential can stimulate a second contraction.

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22
Q 
People with myasthenia gravis is usually given pyridostigmine. Pyridostigmine is a?
A. Symphatomimetic
B. Symphatolytic
C. Parasympathomimetic
D. Parasymphatolytic
A

C

22
Q

Also called the mini brain

A

Enteric nervous system

23
Q

Fast-twitch muscle fibers
A) are more resistant to fatigue than slow-twitch fibers.
B) have a richer blood supply than slow-twitch fibers.
C) have a larger amount of stored glycogen than slow-twitch fibers.
D) have more mitochondria than slow-twitch fibers.
E) have more myoglobin than slow-twitch fibers.

A

C

24
Q 
Multiple-wave summation is caused by
	A)	stimuli of increasing size.
	B)	increasing number of nerves stimulated.
	C)	increasing frequency of stimuli.
	D)	complete relaxation between stimuli.
	E)	a subthreshold stimulus.
A

C

24
Q

Even though each muscle fiber responds in all-or-none fashion, a whole muscle can contract with varying force because of
A) different threshold values of each fiber.
B) total tetanus of the muscle.
C) multiple motor unit summation.
D) rigor mortis.
E) the lag phase of contraction.

A

C. A whole muscle can contract with varying force because of multiple motor unit summation. Stimuli of increasing strength can stimulate a greater number of motor units, causing a greater force of contraction.

24
Q

Clonidine, an alpha 2 agonist will cause:
A. Blood vessel relaxation
B. blood vessel constriction

A

A

24
Q

Muscarinic 3 receptor is associated with what G protein

A

Gq

24
Q

As you increase the force of contraction, larger fibers are stimulated A. Size principle B. asynchronous contractionc. Treppe effect D. None of the above

A

A

25
Q

Which of these is (are) required for the relaxation of a muscle fiber?
A) ATP
B) Ca2+ ion uptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) acetylcholinesterase activity
D) no additional stimulation of the neuron
E) all of these

A

E

25
Q

Constriction of urinary sphincter is done by what ANS?

A

sympathetic pa double check

25
Q

A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia is given Terazocin, an alpha 1 antagonist. This drug will exhibit its action by:
A. Increasing urine output
B. decreasing urine output

A

A

25
Q

True or false. Muscle fatigue is inversely proportional to depletion of muscle glycogen

A

False

26
Q

A motor unit is
A) all the fibers in one muscle.
B) all the fibers in one fasciculus.
C) all the muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron.
D) all the nerves that innervate one muscle fiber.

A

C

27
Q

Given these events:

  1. active sites on actin myofilament are exposed
  2. actin myofilament slides over myosin myofilament
  3. Ca2+ ion binds to troponin
  4. myosin heads move
  5. cross bridges form
A

31542

27
Q

Adrenergic receptor found mostly on the heart?

A

Beta 1 receptor

27
Q 
Tachycardia is relieved by administration of metoprolol to decrease the heart rate of the patient. Metoprolol is a:
A. Beta 1 antagonist 
B. Beta 2 antagonist 
C. Beta 1 agonist
D. Beta 2 agonist
A

A

27
Q

True or false. No more nerve regeneration can be seen after 3 months

A

False. 3 months - 1or 2 years

28
Q 
For cross bridge release, it is necessary for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to attach to the myosin head
	A)	a tropomyosin molecule
	B)	ATP
	C)	Ca2+ ions
	D)	a troponin molecule
	E)	the sarcolemma
A

B

29
Q

During muscle contraction, which of these processes requires ATP?
A) transport of calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) release of cross-bridges
C) formation of cross-bridges
D) active transport of Na+ and K+ ions
E) all of these

A

E

29
Q 
Ergotamine, an ergot alkaloid will: 
A. Increase norepinephrine effect
B. decrease norepinephrine effect
C. Increase acetylcholine effect
D. Decrease acetylcholine effect
A

B

29
Q

Sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, is given to a patient with erectile dysfunction. Erection is an action of what ANS

A

Parasympathetic

30
Q 
Cross bridges form during muscle contraction when myosin comes in contact with active sites on
	A)	troponin molecules.
	B)	tropomyosin molecules.
	C)	calcium ions.
	D)	acetylcholine molecules.
	E)	actin molecules.
A

E

31
Q

True or False: ANS only releases acetylcholine and norepinephrine.

A

False (neuropeptide Y, VIP, GRP, nitric oxide are also released.)

31
Q

True or false. You can live without the sympathetic nervous system

A

True

32
Q

Scopolamine, an agent used for motion sickness. It competes with Ach at which receptor

A

Muscarinic

32
Q

True or false. You can live without the parasympathetic nervous system

A

False

33
Q

Reserpine will inhibit the release of norepinephrine out of the vesicles. This drug is use to :
A. Increase blood pressure
B. decrease blood pressure

A

B

33
Q

Choline transport needs what ion

A

Sodium

34
Q

Important ion in muscle contraction

A

Calcium

35
Q

Which is more excitable?
A. Small motor units
B. large motor units
C. Both has the same threshold

A

A

36
Q 
Impairment in the transverse tubules will cause: 
A. Less calcium ion going out the SR
B. More calcium ion going out theSR
C. Less calcium going in the SR
D. More calcium ion going in the SR
A

A

37
Q

True or False: No muscle is contracted during muscle relaxation

A

False ( muscle tone)

38
Q

Walking is an example of
A. Isometric contraction
B. Isotonic contraction

A

B

39
Q 
A patient with deficient tyrosine synthesis will have
 A. Decrease Ach 
B. Increase Ach 
C. Decrease norepinephrine
D. Increase norepinephrine
A

C

40
Q

Also called the thin filaments

A

Actin

41
Q 
A hypertensive person with asthma should be given: 
A. Beta 1 selective agonist 
B. Beta 2 selective agonist 
C. Beta 1 selective antagonist 
D. Beta 2 selective antagonist
A

C

42
Q

Post gAnglionic neurotransmitter of parasympathetic nervous system

A

Ach

43
Q 
A side effect of atropine is; 
A. Bradycardia 
B. increase salivary secretion
 C. Diarrhea 
D. Mydriasis
A

D

44
Q

True or false. Urinary sphincter is contracted during parasympathetic stimulation

A

False

45
Q

True or false. Bladder detrussor is contracted during sympathetic stimulation

A

False

46
Q

Pharmacologic antidote of organophosphate poisoning

A

Pralidoxime

47
Q

Physiologic antidote of organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

48
Q

Antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine / pralidoxime

48
Q

All the muscle fibers innervated by a single nerve fiber are called

A

Motor units

49
Q

What ANS is more active when a person is about to give a speech in front of an audience

A

Sympathetic

52
Q

When the rate of decay of the contractile proteins is more rapid than the rate of replacement, it leads to _____

A

Muscle atrophy

55
Q

How many calcium ion can maximally bind to troponin c

A

4

56
Q

Sarcoplsmic reticulum is a specialized

A

Smooth er

58
Q

True or false. Skeletal muscle is called actin linked contraction

A

True. Smooth muscle - myosin linked

82
Q

Which of the following is False
A. Skeletal muscle needs action potential to contract
B. Smooth muscle needs action potential to contract
C. Skeletal muscle can contract without action potential
D. Smooth muscle can contract without action potential

A

C. Skeletal dapat Lagi may action potential. Smooth muscle pwd wla.. Ex. Pwd hormone or neurotransmitters mag stimulate sa knila para mag contract

84
Q 
the strength of contraction increases to a plateau 
A. Size principle 
B. asynchronous contraction
C. Treppe effect
 D. None of the above
A

C

87
Q

Best Treatment for anaphylactic shock. Why?
A. Epinephrine
B. norepinephrine
C. Isproterenol

A

Epinephrine. Kc xa un more potent beta 2 receptor. If anaphylaxis Ang pine prevent is Bronchoconstriction

89
Q

What type of troponin binds to actin

A

I
C- calcium
T- tropomyosin

90
Q

Antibodies develop in myasthenia gravis attacks A. Ach receptor
B. Ach ion gated channel receptor
C. Ache
D. All of the above

A

B

94
Q

_________ can strongly inhibit muscle contraction A. Depolarization
B. repolarization
C. Hyperpolarization
D. All of the above

A

C

96
Q 
The skeletal muscle are innervated by 
A. Small, myelinated nerve fibers 
B. small unmyelinated nerve fibers
C. Large myelinated nerve fibers
D. Large unmyelinated nerve fibers
A

C

97
Q 
Myosin must cross bride with actin 
A. Fenn effect
B. walk along theory
 C. Sliding filament theory 
D. Any of the above
A

B

99
Q

Which of the ff statements is not true about neurotransmitters
A. Ach is responsible for skeletal muscle contraction
B. Ach and NE can be transmitted in a single fiber C. Ach is utilized by the sweat glands preganglionic and postgsnglionic
D. ACh is the primary NT of ANS

A

B.

100
Q 
Myosin is composed of 
A. 2 heavy chain, 4 light chain
 B. 3 heavy chain, 3 light chain
 C. 4 heavy chain, 2 light chain 
D. 5 heavy chain, 1 light chain
A

A

103
Q

The following can cause vasodilation except
A. Inc O2
B. Inc H conc.
C. Inc CO2

A

A

105
Q 
Tropomyosin is seen in the 
A. Myosin
B. sarcomere
C. Actin
D. Titin
A

C

106
Q

Which has a longer effect neostigmine or diisopropyl phosphate

A

Diisopropyl phosphate. Neostigmine persist for hours, while diisopropyl phosphate persists for weeks

109
Q

Which last longer
A. Skeletal muscle contraction
B. Smooth muscle contraction

A

B

111
Q

Mouth of the Ach receptors are _____ charged
A. Positively
B. Negatively

A

B.

112
Q 
Skeletal muscle have \_\_\_\_ number of calcium channel, \_\_\_ number of sodium channel than smooth muscle 
A. More, more
B. more, less
C. Less, more
 D. Less, less
A

C

113
Q 
The following can be used as a muscle relaxant
 A. Botulinum toxin 
B. tubocurarine
 C. Atropine
D. None of the above 
E. all of the above
A

E

117
Q 
Release of Ach needs except
A. Calcium ion influx
B. synaptobrevin
C. Synaptotagmin 
D. None of the above
A

D

118
Q 
Overdose of alpha agonist drug would result to
 A. Tachycardia
B. bronchidilation
C.mydriasis
D. Vasodilation
A

C. All other are beta effect w

119
Q

Minoxidil is a powerful arteriolar vasodilator. It DO NOT have an effect on the ANS. what is the most likely effect
A. Tachycardia and inc cardiac contractility
B. tachycardia and dec cardiac output
C. Dec MAP, inc salt and water excretion
D. Dec MAP, dec cardiac contractility
E. no change

A

A

120
Q 
Full activation of the sympathetic nervous sys would lead to
 A. Bronchoconstriction
 B. inc intestinal motility 
C. Dec renal blood blow
D. Miosis
E. bradycardia
A

C.. Para un Iba

121
Q 
What would cause blockage of preganglionic nerve ending 
A. Botox
B. reserpine
C. Cocaine
D.  Tyramine
A

A. All preganglionic are Ach.. So dapat Ach blocker, other choices for NE

122
Q 
Nicotinic receptor sites do not include which of the ff sites
A. Bronchial smooth muscle
B. adrenal medullary cells
C. Parasympathetic ganglia
D. Skeletal muscle end plate
E. sympathetic ganglia
A

A. Do process of elimination

123
Q 
Botulinum toxin poisoning would result in the except 
A. Bronchospasm
B. cyclopegia
C. Diarrhea
D. Skeletal muscle spasm
E. hyperventilation
A

B. all are increased muscle contraction except cyclopegia which is blurring of vision

124
Q 
Which of the ff accommodates the release of NE A. Ach
B. amphetamine
 C, Botox
D. Dopamine
E. Epinephrine
F. Metyrosine
G. Norepinephrine
H. Reserpine
A

B

125
Q 
Contraction of ciliary muscle uses what secondary messenger
 A. cAMP
B. DAG
C. cGMP
D. IP3
A

D
IP3 - contraction of smooth muscle
DAG- secretion

126
Q 
Patients with myasthenia gravis was given neostigmine. Which of the ff is the side effect 
A. Bronchodilation
 B. cyclopegia
C. Diarrhea
D. Reduced gastric acid secretion
 E. irreversible inhibitor of AchE
A

C

127
Q

Actions and clinical uses of muscarinic cholinergic receptor agonist
A. Bronchidilation in asthma
B. decreased GI motility in diarrhea
C. Improve aqueous humor drainage in glaucoma
D. Increased sweating in fever
E. decreased neuromuscular transmission and relaxation of skeletal muscle

A

C. PANS, Bronchoconstriction , inc GI motility, Skeletal muscle for somatic nervous sys not ANS, Sweating is sympathetic nervous sys

128
Q 
Which of the ff can be blocked by atropine 
A. Dec BP by hemicholinium
B. increase BP by nicotine
C. Inc skeletal strength by neostigmine
D. Tachycardia by infusion of Ach
A

D

129
Q

Administration of arrow poison ( active ingredient curare) to a person would result in
A. Increase Muscle contraction
B. decrease muscle contraction

A

B. mechanism of action. Competitive inhibition of Ach in the receptor

130
Q

Administration of diisopropyl flurophosphate may cause
A. Increase muscle spasm
B. decrease muscle spasm

A

A. it is a Ache inhibitor

132
Q

Uses of ATP in muscle contraction
A. Forming of crossbridges
B. return of calcium ions to sarcoplamic reticulum
C. Maintenance of ionic environment for action potential to take place
D. All of the above

A

D

133
Q 
Greater contraction requires greater amount of ATP needed
A. Fenn effect
B. walk along theory 
C. Sliding filament theory 
D. Any of the above
A

A

134
Q 
Secretory vesicles are made in \_\_\_\_, Ach are made in \_\_\_\_
A. RER, mitochondria
B. Golgi App, Mitochondria 
C. RER , cytosol
D. Golgi app, cytosol
A

D

136
Q 
the Z discs have been pulled by the actin filaments up to the ends of the myosin filaments
A. Fenn effect
B. walk along theory 
C. Sliding filament theory
D. Any of the above
A

C

137
Q 
First source for reconstitution of ATP
A. Glycolysis
B. phosphocreatine
C. Oxidative mechanism 
D. Krebs cycle
A

B
Second- glycolysis
Third -oxidative metabolism like Krebs

140
Q

If the calcium pumping ability of the sarcoplasmic reticulum were impaired (but not abolished),
(A) Muscles would relax more quickly because less calcium would be pumped
(B) Contraction would be slowed, but the muscle would relax normally
(C) The muscle would continue to develop force, but its relaxation would be slowed
(D) Activation of the muscle would no longer be possible

A

The answer is C.A reduction in the calcium-pumping ability of the sarcoplasmic reticulum would leave a higher concentration of calcium ions in the myofilament space for a longer time. The diffusion of calcium away from the regulatory proteins would be slower, and crossbridges would detach less rapidly; consequently, the muscle would relax more slowly. Activation processes would not be as affected because they do not directly depend on the effectiveness of the calcium pump

Physiology (9 decks)

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