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Prueba 1 > Physical Security (25%) > Flashcards

Physical Security (25%) Flashcards

1
Q

CPTED

What are the 8 Main categories of Physical Security Measures

A
  1. CPTED (Crime-Prevention Through Environmental Design
  2. Physical barriers & site hardening
  3. Physical entry & access control
  4. Security Lighting
  5. Intrusion Detection
  6. Video Surveillance
  7. Security Personnel
  8. Security policies & procedures
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2
Q

CPTED

What can lead to a reduction in the opportunity fear & incidence of predatory, stranger-to-stranger type crime?

A

Proper design & effective use of the built environment

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3
Q

CPTED

¿Qué puede también resultar en una mejora de la calidad de vida: cómo y dónde vivimos, trabajamos y jugamos?

A

CPTED

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4
Q

CPTED

CPTED should be integrated into…?

A

The design & function of the buildings or location

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5
Q

CPTED

All Human Space…

A

Has some designated purpose

Has social, cultural, legal or physical definitions that prescribe the desired & acceptable behaviors

Is designed to support & control the desired & acceptable behaviors

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6
Q

CPTED

CPTED is the design or redesign of a venue to reduce crime opportunity & fear of crime through?

A

Natural Means

Mechanical Means

Procedural (organizational) means

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7
Q

CPTED

At its core, CPTED is based on common sense & a heightened awareness about how people use their space for legitimate & criminal intentions

A
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8
Q

CPTED

3 Classes of CPTED Strategies

A
  1. Mechanical measures
  2. Organizational measures
  3. Natural or architectural measures
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9
Q

CPTED Strategies

A

Natural access control

Natural surveillance

Natural territorial reinforcement

Management & maintenance

Legitimate activity support

Compartmentalization

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10
Q

CPTED

Methods for implementing CPTED

A

Organized methods (staffing)

Mechanical methods (technical products)

Natural methods (site planning, design, landscaping, signage)

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11
Q

CPTED

Once the first window is broken, vandalism and/or other crime quietly follow if it is not prepared

A

Broken Window Theory

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12
Q

CPTED

CPTED is congruent with the 3 D’s

A

Deterring

Detecting

Delaying aggressors

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13
Q

CPTED

Preventing crime & losses is inherent in many human functions behaviors & activities

A
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14
Q

CPTED

CPTED security standards focus on 4 categories

A
  1. Perimeter & exterior security
  2. Entry security
  3. Interior security
  4. Security planning
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15
Q

CPTED

Types of CPTED Security Zones

A
  1. Unrestricted zones
  2. Controlled zones - authorized personnel in these general areas
  3. Restricted zones - authorized personnel in these specific areas
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16
Q

CPTED

Deterrence is achieved through…?

A

Measures that potential adversaries perceive as too difficult to defeat

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17
Q

CPTED

For the security professional, CPTED is a set of management tools targeting…?

A

Places

Behavior

Design & Use of Space

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18
Q

CPTED

What is more cost-effective than making changes after construction starts

A

Integrating CPTED during the initial planning

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19
Q

CPTED

Whenever possible, security planning should begin during…?

A

Site Selection

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20
Q

CPTED

CPTED is intended to be integrated throughout the construction process

A

Programming

Schematic Design (SD)

Design Development (DD)

Construction documents or working drawings (CD)

Bids for construction & selection of contractor (RFP)

Security needs should be addressed int he programming phase

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21
Q

CPTED

Establish a secure perimeter around the building as far out as possible… setbacks how far?

A

100 ft. is suggested

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22
Q

CPTED

Where should you position concrete flower planters etc…?

A

Near curbs less than 4 ft between them to block cars

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23
Q

CPTED

Locate parking as far from the building as practical & place it within view of occupied rooms or facilities

A
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24
Q

CPTED

Landscaping Considerations

A

Low growing plants should be set back 1 yard from the edge of paths or walkways

Low-growing shrubs should be kept no higher than 32” in height

Tree canopies should be trimmed up to 8’ to provide a clear line of the site & reduce hiding spots

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25
Q

CPTED

Parking garages should be equipped with what?

A

  • 3 ft. or higher shrubs/trees should be 10-15 ft. from the structure
  • Booths should have 360 degrees visibility & a means of communication
  • No public restrooms but should be within view of the booth
  • One vehicle entry/exit should be used if possible (based on traffic volume)
  • Open-walled, upper levels to allow natural surveillance & permit hearing of calls for help
  • Egress only exterior pedestrian doors
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26
Q

CPTED

Parking Garages (ctd…)

A

  • Potholes in solid walls for visibility
  • Stairwells & elevators in a central location visible from both
  • Stairwells visible from exterior & offering no hiding place & no roof access
  • Elevators with glass for exterior visibility along the exterior of the facility
  • Access only to the lobby from the garage elevators or stairs
  • Adequate lighting
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27
Q

Access Control

Refers to the process of managing databases or other records & determining the parameters of authorized entry, such as who or what will be granted access when they may enter where access will occur

A

Access Control

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28
Q

Access Control

Categories of Access Control

A

Manual

Machine Aided

Automated

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29
Q

Access Control

Types of attacks used to defeat access controls

A

Deceit

Direct Physical Attack

Technical Attack

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30
Q

Entry Control

An entry control subsystem includes the following performance measures…

A

Throughout

Error Rates

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31
Q

Entry Control

An Entry Control Subsystem

A
  • is not an access control system
  • Is part of the detection system
  • Allows the movement of authorized personnel & material into & out of facilities
  • Detects & possibly delays movement of unauthorized personnel & contraband
  • Refers to the physical equipment used to control the movement of people or material into an area
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32
Q

Entry Control

Objections of an entry control system used for physical protection are…

A
  • To permit authorized persons to enter & exit
  • To detect & prevent the entry or exit of contraband material (weapons, explosions, unauthorized tools, or critical assets)
  • To provide information to security personnel to facilitate assessment & response
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33
Q

Entry Control

Verification of authorization of personnel to enter a controlled area is usually based on…

A
  1. Carrying a valid credential (what you have)
  2. Knowing a valid PIN (what you know)
  3. Possessing the proper, unique physical characteristics on file (who you are)
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34
Q

Badge Technologies

Magnetic Stripe (“mag stripe”)

A
  • Widely used in commercial credit/debit cards
  • Low-coercivity (“LoCo”) cards are 300 oersteds; easy to erase; typical of credit/debit cards
  • High-coercivity (Hi - CO) cards are 2500 to 4000 oersteds; hard to erase, but can be done with rare_earth magnets; typical of company badges
  • Easily forged, duplicated (can use proprietary encoding schemes but not common)
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35
Q

Access & Entry Control

Badge Technologies

A
  • Magnetic Stripe
  • Bar Code
  • Proximity
  • Smart Card
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36
Q

Access/Entry Control

Badge Technologies Proximity…

A
  • Small RF transponder/transmitter is powered by an onboard battery (active) or it is energized by the card reader (passive)

- Low-frequency badges are in the 125 KHz range

  • High-frequency badges range from 2.5 MHz to over 1 GHz
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37
Q

Access/Entry Control

Badge Technologies - Smart Card

A
  • Gold contacts on the surface of the card allow for communication with a reading device
  • Contactless smart cards use RF communications & do not have the gold contacts
  • Main advantages: Large memory & its high degree of resistance to forgery or compromise
  • Ability to encrypt communications
  • Can be prohibitively expensive
  • Homeland Defense Presidential Directive (HSPD 12)
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38
Q

Access/Entry Control

Personal Identity Verification System

Biometrics

A
  • Corroborate claimed identities on the basis of one or more unique physical biometric characteristics of the individual
  • Can differentiate between: verification & recognition
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39
Q

Access/Entry Control

Personal identify verification systems

All personal identity verification systems consider 3 things

A
  • The uniqueness of the feature used for identification
  • The variability of the characteristic
  • The difficulty of implementing the system that processes the characteristic
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40
Q

Personal identity verification systems

Type 1 error rate:

A

False rejection of a valid user

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41
Q

Personal identity verification systems

Type II Error rate

A

False acceptance of an invalid user

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42
Q

Access/Entry Control

Personal identity verification systems

Equal error rate

A
  • Cross-over point where Type 1 & Type 2 errors are equal

- Not necessarily the point at which the device should be operated

- Not the lowest point for either type of error

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43
Q

Access/Entry Control

Personal identity verification systems

Finger Prints

A
  • Still considered one of the most reliable means of distinguishing one individual from another
  • Most systems use image processing & pattern recognition

Minutia points

Ridge endings

Bifurcations

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44
Q

Access/Entry Control

Personal identity verification systems

Hand/Finger Geometry

A
  • Characterizes the shape of the hand
  • Measures 3-dimensional features of the hand such as the widths & lengths & the thickness of the hand
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45
Q

Personal Identity Verification System

Eye Pattern

A
  • Imaging of iris by a video camera
  • Operates in the recognition mode
  • 10 - 12” read distance (no physical contact)
  • 2% of population cannot be enrolled due to blindness or other eye issues
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46
Q

Personal identity verification system

Face

A

- Utilize distinguishing characteristics of the face

- Captured with video camera or thermal image

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47
Q

Personal identity verification system

Voice

A
  • Speech measurements: waveform envelope, voice pitch period, relative amplitude spectrum, resonant frequencies of the vocal tract
  • Low security, easily deployed, more public acceptance (low distrust)
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48
Q

Personal identity verification system

Handwriting

A
  • Used for many years by the bank
  • Signatures can be easily forged
  • Handwriting dynamics include displacement velocity & acceleration
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49
Q

Access/Entry Control

Access control barriers include…

A

Doors

Gates

Turnstiles

Elevators

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50
Q

Access/Entry Control

Vehicle access controls are…

A

Manual

Electronic

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51
Q

Access/Entry Control

Electro-Mechanical Lock Types

A
  • Electric deadbolts
  • Electric latch
  • Electric strike
  • Electric lockset
  • Exit device
  • Electromagnetic lock
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52
Q

Access/Entry Control

Device unlocks upon loss of power (but may stay latched - “positive latching”)

A

Fail Safe

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53
Q

Access/Entry Control

Device locks upon loss of power

A

Fail Secure

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54
Q

Access/Entry Control

Single action / motion egress

A

One action/motion required to release door to exit

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55
Q

Alarm Communications & Display (AC&D)

The part of a PPS that transports alarm & assessment information to a central point & presents the information to a human operator

A

AC&D: Alarm Communication & Display

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56
Q

The most important measure of AC&D Effectiveness?

A

How well it quickly & clearly communicates alarm data from sensors to the system

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57
Q

AC&D

Two critical elements of alarm communication & display

A
  • Transportation or communication of data

- Presentation or display of that data to a human operator in a meaningful manner

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58
Q

AC&D

When an alarm occurs, the AC&D system must communicate to the operator the following information

A

- When an alarm has occurred

- What or who caused the alarm

- When the alarm happened

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59
Q

AC&D

Security communications require the following assurances

A

- The integrity of the communications medium (availability of the message path)

- The integrity of the message (complete & errorless transmission of the data)

- Timeliness of the transmission (data communication within an appropriate time frame)

- Message security (accessibility of the communication to authorized persons only)

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60
Q

AC&D

Communications Security - Line Protection

A

- Outside lines should be installed underground

- Inside wiring should be encased in conduit

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61
Q

AC&D

Communication Security - Line Supervision

A

Simplest line supervision: End-of-line (EOC) resister (detects open circuit, ground, wire-to-wire short)

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62
Q

AC&D

Communication Security - Scramblers

A
  • Disguise interceptible communications
  • 2 characteristics of voice that can be scrambled

frequency (pitch of voice) (most typically scrambled)

Amplitude (loudness)

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63
Q

AC&D

Transmission of Alarm Signals

A

Alarm signals may be transmitted on an unshielded pair of direct current (DC) Conductors

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64
Q

AC&D

Signals also may be transmitted on…

A

Lines installed to carry electric power

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65
Q

AC&D

Optical Fiber

A

A strand of high-purity, spun glass, typically about the thickness of a human hair

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66
Q

AC&D

Optical fibers can be used to carry…

A

- Voice-grade signals

- Video signals

- Digital or data grade signals

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67
Q

AC&D

Optical fibers differ from a conventional metal wire in several ways

A
  • Not affected by (EMI) or (RFI)
  • Don’t carry electrical current nor radiate signals
  • Can carry many more multiplexed messages
  • Much smaller & lighter than conventional
  • Flexible & can take an irregular course from P to P
  • Not vulnerable to interception by acoustical or inductive coupling
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68
Q

AC&D

Optical Fiber

A

Optical fiber is less expensive than copper

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69
Q

AC&D

Video Transmission Methods

A

Coaxial Cable

Telephone Lines

Optical Fiber

Dedicated Twisted Pair

DC Wire

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70
Q

AC&D

Video Transmission Methods

A

No processing required if transmission distance is short enough, typically 1,000 ft.

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71
Q

Video Transmission Methods

The transmission distance without amplification is 1 mile or more

A

Optical Fiber

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72
Q

AC&D

Good performance can be achieved at wire distances of up to 4,000 ft.

A

Dedicated Twisted Pair

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73
Q

AC&D

Video signals cannot be transmitted directly on DC lines

A

DC Wire

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74
Q

AC&D

3 Types of line transmission used in electronic protection systems

A

Loop

Point-to-Point

Multi-plexed

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75
Q

AC&D

Two methods used to separate multiplexed signals

A
  • Time division multiplexing (TDM)
  • Frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
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76
Q

AC&D

A wireless communication requires

A
  • A transmitter to furnish radio frequency energy
  • An antenna to radiate the energy into the atmosphere
  • A receiver
  • Power for the transmitter & receiver
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77
Q

AC&D

Wireless Transmission

A

Any unscrambled or unencrypted communication transmitted by wireless technology should be considered available for interception

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78
Q

AC&D

Voice radio (2-way radio) cost & power are determined by

A
  • The distance required to communicate
  • Barriers in the transmission path
  • Signal interference in the area
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79
Q

AC&D

Microwave Transmission

A

- Operates between 30 - 300 GHz

- Requires microwave generator, power, amplifier, modulation, antenna

- One-way & two-way communications

- Often require FCC licenses

- Penetrates rain, fog, snow & man-made noise

- Used in television, multiplexed telephone, multiplexed alarm & high-speed data transmissions

- Line-of-sight (LOS) required

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80
Q

AC&D

Laser Communication

A

- Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation (LASER)

- Laser light is modulated at a very rapid rate

- A photo-detector at the receiver demodulates the laser

- Virtually impossible to intercept without detection

- A 4-mile transmission line of sight

- Reflected can be used but the resolution is reduced

- interference from snow, fog, and rain

- No FCC license required

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81
Q

AC&D

Most common causes of wireless interference

A

- Signals from other transmitters

- Industrial & atmosphere noise

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82
Q

Intrusion Detection

The process of detecting a person or vehicle attempting to gain unauthorized entry into an area

A

Intrusion Detection

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83
Q

Intrusion Detection

Considerations for intrusion detection systems

A

- Should meet security needs of the facility

- Should operate in harmony with other systems

- Should not interfere with business operations

- Should be cost effective

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84
Q

Intrusion Detection

Basic building blocks of an intrusion detection systems

A

Sensors

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85
Q

Intrusion Detection

Detection criteria for a sensor or sensor system includes

A

- What will be detected

- What actions are expected

- Weight or speed of movement

- Probability of detection required

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86
Q

Intrusion Detection

3 main characteristics of intrusion sensor performance are…

A

- Probability of detection (PD)

- Nuisance Alarm Rate (NAR)

- Vulnerability to Defeat

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87
Q

Intrusion Detection

If the sensor is inappropriate for the operating environment or threat, or not installed, operated, maintained & tested properly, the output of an entire system, is severely limited, becoming a greater burden than a benefit - sensor selection must match the application & environment

A
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88
Q

Intrusion Detection

Probability of Detection

A
  • Perfect is a “1” - reality is always less than “1”
  • Confidence Level (CL) is often described in conjunction with PD - unstated CL implies a 90% or better confidence level
  • PD is always conditional
  • PD also varies by the sophistication of threat
  • When high PD is required at all times & all weather conditions, use of multiple sensors
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89
Q

Intrusion Detection

Probability of Detection

PD depends primarily on these facts:

A
  • Target to be detected (walk, crawl, tunneling etc…)
  • Sensor hardware design
  • Installation conditions
  • Sensitivity adjustment
  • Weather conditions
  • Condition of the equipment
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90
Q

Intrusion Detection

A nuisance alarm is any alarm not caused by an intrusion

A
  • The NAR identifies the number of nuisance alarms over a given period (ideally zero, but not realistic)
  • Alarm assessment is needed to preserve manpower without assessment, detection is incomplete
  • Natural causes: vegetation, wildlife, weather conditions, etc…
  • Industrial causes: ground vibration, debris moved by wind, electromagnetic interference, etc..
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91
Q

Intrusion Detection

A false alarm is a nuisance alarm generated by the equipment itself

A
  • Acceptable false alarm rate (FAR) should also be specified
  • Poor design inadequate maintenance or component failure
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92
Q

Intrusion Detection

Vulnerability to Defeat

A
  • All sensors can be defeated
  • The objective is to make the system very difficult to defeat
  • Two general ways to defeat the system

Bypass: going around the detection

Spoof: passing through sensor’s normal detection zone without generating the alarm

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93
Q

Intrusion Detection

Occurrence of a potential intrusion event…

A

Intrusion

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94
Q

A change in the condition being monitored

A

State

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95
Q

Intrusion Detection

Loss of electrical power: or failure of the sensor itself

A

Fault Event

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96
Q

Intrusion Detection

Opening, shorting, or grounding of the device circuitry, the enclosure of control panels

A

Tamper

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97
Q

Intrusion Detection

Five ways of classifying intrusion sensors

A
  1. Passive or active (interior & exterior)
  2. Covert or overt (interior & exterior)
  3. LOS or Terrah following (exterior only)
  4. Volumetric or line detection (point) (interior & exterior)
  5. Application (interior & exterior)
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98
Q

Intrusion Detection

Two types of passive sensors

A
  1. Detect target-generated mechanical energy (walking climbing vibration)
  2. Detect target-emitted energy in a natural field of energy (heat, sound, magnetic field etc…)
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99
Q

Passive Sensors

A
  • Sensors are harder to locate by aggressors because they do not emit energy
  • Safer to use in an explosive environment
  • Passive infrared, mechanical activity (walking climbing) vibration etc…
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100
Q

Active Sensors

A
  • Transmit energy & detect changes to it
  • Includes transmitter & receiver (bi-static)
  • Create fewer nuisance alarms
  • Microwave, infrared, RF etc..
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101
Q

Separate Transmitter & Receiver

A

Bistatic

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102
Q

Transmitter & Receiver are Combined

A

Monostatic

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103
Q

Detect interruption at a fixed, or volume of space

A

Volumetric Sensors

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104
Q

Detect intrusion at a specific point or alarm time

A

Line or Point Sensors

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105
Q

Intrusion Detection

Types of motion detectors

A

Microwave

PIR

Dual Technology

Ultrasonic

Beam Detectors

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106
Q

Intrusion Detection

Video Motion Detectors (VMD)

A
  • Passive, covert, line-of-sight
  • Exterior or interior applications
  • Sufficient lighting & resolution required
  • Nuisance alarms can be plentiful - flickering lights, vegetation movement, animals, rain, camera noise
  • Analytics improve NAR
  • Digital is more sophisticated but analog is less expensive
  • Most VMDs susceptible to very slow movement
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107
Q

VMD

Video Motion Detection is based on pixel changes

A
  • Changes in brightness or contrast
  • Local movement across adjacent cells
  • The speed of motion across all cells
  • Size of objects within cells
  • Global changes across most or all cells
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108
Q

Wireless Sensors

A

Operate in the 300 MHz or 900 MHz bands

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109
Q

Issues with wireless sensors include

A

- Collisions: multiple messages received at the same time causing none to be read

- Fading: degradation of the signal due to distance

- Interference: other signals overpowering the sensor’s signals

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110
Q

Line supervision techniques

A
  • Reverse polarity
  • Sound monitoring
  • Radio class C
  • Steady direct current class B
  • Tone
  • Digital classes A & AB
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111
Q

Exterior application sensors are divided into 3 categories

A

Buried Line

Fence-associated

Free Standing

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112
Q

Exterior perimeter intrusion sensors

A
  • Typically used by government, nuclear, & correctional facilities
  • Ported coaxial cables
  • Fence disturbance sensors
  • Sensor fences
  • Electric field or capacitance
  • Bistatic microwave sensors
  • Exterior video motion detectors (VMDs)
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113
Q

Ported Coaxial Cables

A

- “Leaky Coax”

- Active, covert, terrain-following

- Buried underground

- Respond to objects with high dielectric constant or high conductivity (humans, vehicles, etc)

- Outer jacket of cable is “ported” to allow the signal to leak out

- Range is 1.5 to 3 ft above the surface & about 3 - 6 ft wider than the cable separation

- Nuisance alarms sources include metals, water, utility lines, large quantities of salt or metals in soil

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114
Q

Fence Disturbance Sensors

A
  • Passive visible terrain-following
  • Attached to fence
  • Detect motion or shock
  • One of several technologies: fiber-optic, strain-sensing vibration-sensing
  • Nuisance alarm sources are common, including wind rain/hail, nearby vibrations
  • Can be defeated by crossing over the fence w/o touching it or tunneling under
  • Fence posts should flex/move no more than .5” against a 50 lb. force at 5 ft height

- Fence fabric should flex/move no more than 2.5” against a 30 lb. force centered between posts

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115
Q

Sensor Fences

A
  • Passive, visible, terrain-following
  • Sensor cables form the fence itself
  • Horizontal-stretched high tension wires at 4” or less apart
  • Includes taut-wire fences
  • Designed to detect climbing, separation of wires or cutting
  • Less susceptible to nuisance alarms - requires about 25 lbs. of force to activate the alarm
  • Can be defeated by crossing over the fence w/o touching it, or tunneling under the fence
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116
Q

Electric field or capacitance sensors

A
  • Active, visible, terrain-following
  • Detects change in “capacitive-coupling” in wires isolated from the fence itself
  • Range can extend to 3.3 ft (more nuisance alarms)
  • Susceptible to lightning, rain, small animals, motion of the fence itself
  • Requires good electrical grounding
  • Less susceptible to crossing over or tunneling under fence
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117
Q

Free-Standing Infrared Sensors

A
  • Active, visible, line-of-sight, free standing
  • .9 micron wavelengths - invisible to the human eye
  • Beam is transmitted through a “collimating” lens & received by a “collecting” lens
  • Multiple beams required for higher security applications (typically a 2” x 6” detection range)
  • Nuisance alarm sources include snow, fog, dust, vegetation, etc…
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118
Q

Bistatic Microwave Sensors

A
  • active, visible, line-of-sight, freestanding
  • 10 GHz or 24 GHz spectrum
  • “Vector Sum”: Direct & reflected microwave energy received by the receiver
  • Susceptible to crawling or rolling under beam if the ground is not very flat or distance between antennae is more than 120 yds.

Offset Distance: zone of no detection about 10 yds. out from the transmitting antenna - requires overlapping zones of 20 yds

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119
Q

Bistatic Microwave Sensors (Ctd..)

A
  • Sensor bed surface is composed of 4” of 1.5” or smaller gravel to eliminate nuisance alarms from standing water
  • The largest detection zone is midway between sensors - approximately 4 yds wide x 3 yds high
  • Nuisance alarm sources include vegetation higher than 1-2”, loose chain link fabric, heavy snow
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120
Q

Exterior, perimeter intrusion sensors

Perimeter detection systems should use protection-in-dept philosophies,** relying on **two or more simultaneous lines of detection, especially in high-security facilities

A
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121
Q

Exterior, perimeter intrusion sensors

Complimentary sensors may also be considered to increase the effectiveness of a sensor deployment

A
  • each sensor brings its own strengths & weaknesses to the overall security plan - complementary sensors do not have the same nuisance sources & probability of detection under each possible scenario
  • Sensors should be prioritized for assessment purposes - higher PD sensors have first priority
  • Configuration of multiple sensors should be arranged to provide overlapping coverage AND separate lines of coverage
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122
Q

Exterior, perimeter intrusion sensors

Sensor combinations operate in two ways

A
  1. OR basis: Either sensors trigger the alarm high PD, higher NAR
  2. AND basis: Both sensors are required to trigger the alarm, lower PD, lower NAR
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123
Q

Perimeter-in-depth philosophies

Clear zones bounded by fences on both sides are preferable for perimeter detection systems

A

No sensors should be mounted on the outside fence

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124
Q

Exterior, perimeter intrusion sensors

Physical & environmental conditions affecting perimeter detection system

A

Topography (gullies, slopes, water, etc)

Vegetation (motion from wind, sources of concealment/cover)

Wildlife (large animal interference with sensors, small animal burrowing & chewing

Background noise (wind, traffic, EMI, seismic activity)

Climate & weather

Soil & pavement (soil conductivity, seismic conductivity)

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125
Q

Exterior, perimeter intrusion sensors

Barriers designed to delay intrusion should be placed along the inner fenceline of a dual-fence line clear zone, to prevent tampering with the barriers without first traversing the detection zone

A
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126
Q

Exterior, perimeter intrusion sensors

A clear zone “compromise” width between 10 & 15 yds. facilities reduction of nuisance alarms (wide) & high resolution for alarm assessment by cameras (narrow)

A
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127
Q

Interior intrusion sensors

Interior application sensors are divided into 3 categories

A

Boundary - penetration

Interior - motion

Proximity - sensors

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128
Q

Interior intrusion sensors

Two important physical conditions that affect sensor performance

A

Building or room construction

Equipment & objects that occupy the space

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129
Q

Interior intrusion sensors

Electromechanical Sensors

A
  • Passive, visible, line/point sensors
  • Magnetic reed switches (doors, windows, etc..)
  • Balanced magnetic switches (BMSs) or bias magnets higher sensitivity than reed switches, less susceptible to spoofing
  • Hall effect switch detects field of magnet-no moving parts - measures charge separation & polarity - most advanced switch
  • Continuity/break wire - wires embedded or attached to surface, activated by cutting (security screens) low NAR (may use optic fibers instead)
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130
Q

Interior intrusion sensors

Vibration Sensors

A
  • Passive visible or covert
  • Jiggle switches
  • Inertial switches: a metal ball mounted on metal contacts - detects vibration frequencies between 2-5 KHz
  • Piezoelectric sensors: sensing element that flexes at frequencies between 5-50 KHz
  • Fiber-optic cables detect micro-bending caused by vibration
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131
Q

Glass-break Sensors

A
  • Glass-mounted, passive (vibration activated); detect > = 20 KHz vibrations
  • Glass-mounted, active; generate vibrations received by another device elsewhere on the glass (lower NAR)
  • Ceiling-mounted, passive; listen for the frequency of breaking glass; volumetric by design; not vibration activated
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132
Q

Interior Motion Sensors

A
  • Monostatic microwave (common)
  • Passive infrared (PIR) (Common)
  • Dual Technology
  • Video motion detection (VMD)
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133
Q

Interior intrusion sensors

Passive Infrared (PIR)

A
  • Passive to human heat approximately equal to heat from the 50-watt incandescent light bulb
  • Responds to infrared energy in the walkthrough band between 8 & 14mm
  • Minimum Resolvable Temperature: Difference in heat between target & background (can be as low as 1-degree Celsius)
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134
Q

Interior intrusion sensors

Microwave

A
  • Active, visible, volumetric
  • 10 GHz frequency range: senses doppler shift of the returned frequency
  • Best positioned to sense aggressors moving towards or away from a sensor; slow-moving targets may spoof microwave sensors
  • Microwave horn, printed circuit planar, or phased array antenna
  • Various detection patterns available; concave portion of detection zone is vulnerable
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135
Q

Microwave

A
  • Penetrates most glass & normal wall materials (not metal)
  • Immune to high air turbulence & temperature /changes; susceptible to “pattern drift”
  • Often used in automatic door openers; multiple microwave sensors in the same area must be on different frequencies
  • Ionized gas in fluorescent lighting can reflect microwaves & cause nuisance alarms
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136
Q

Proximity Sensors

A
  • Pressure Mats
  • Capacitance Sensors
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137
Q

Pressure Mats

A
  • Largely obsolete - replaced by motion detectors
  • Detected weight 5-20 lbs per sq. ft
  • Still used in security portals (man traps) to prevent tailgating - based on valid user’s weight in database
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138
Q

Capacitance Sensors

A
  • Large, electrical condenser that radiates energy
  • Detects changes in capacitive coupling between antenna & the ground
  • Target touches protected object & absorbs some of the radiated energy generating on alarm
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139
Q

CPTED

Should be divided into smaller, more clearly defined areas or zones

A

Defensible space, per Oscar Newman

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140
Q

Video surveillance systems

When selecting a video surveillance

A

Uses a systems approach rather than a components approach

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141
Q

Video surveillance systems

The following parameters determine the effectiveness of a video assessment subsystem

A
  • Minimum time between sensor alarm & video display
  • Complete video coverage of the sensor detection zone (called the assessment zone when sensors & video are integrated)
  • Ability to classify a 1 ft. target at the far edge of the assessment zone
  • Vertical field of view at the far edge of exterior detection zone = height of a standard fence & person climbing it
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142
Q

Parameters Ctd…

A
  • Continuous operation, 24/7
  • Minimal sensitivity to environmental conditions, for all cameras
  • Minimal obscuration of the assessment zone (such as trees, fences, furniture, etc)
  • Camera FOV & recording system integration displays the alarm source to an operator
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143
Q

Video Surveillance

3 reasons for cameras in security applications

A
  • Obtain visual information about something that is happening (most important)
  • Obtain visual information about something that has happened (most important)
  • Deter undesirable activities
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144
Q

Video Surveillance

Primary uses of video surveillance systems

A

Detection of Activities

Recording of Incidents

Assessment of Alarms/Incidents

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145
Q

Video Surveillance

Main elements of video surveillance systems

A

Field of View (FOV)

Scene

Lens

Camera (including mounting hardware)

Transmission Medium

Monitor

Recording Equipment (analog/digital)

Control Equipment

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146
Q

Video Surveillance

Three main components of an analog video surveillance system

A

Camera

Transmission Cable

Monitor

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147
Q

Video Surveillance

3 main components of a digital video surveillance system

A

Camera

Digital electronic signal center

PC with software

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148
Q

Video Surveillance

In designing a video surveillance application security managers should keep in mind

A
  • Video surveillance is a visual tool of security & should be applied accordingly
  • Video surveillance systems should always be designed with future growth or changes to the needs of the application in mind
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149
Q

Designing Video Surveillance Ctd…

No matter what, the equipment of the system will become obsolete

A
  • Obsolete does not necessarily mean ineffective or out of date for the application
  • If a system is obsolete but performing well, its because the original application was correctly designed to meet performance needs
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150
Q

Key points for designing VS systems

A
  • Once simplified the most complex electronic system can be managed by almost anyone
  • The application drives the choice of equipment not the other way around
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151
Q

Video Surveillance

Simple Rules For Design

A

Keep system in perspective

Design generically

Design for best options first (budget after)

Don’t feel driven to build the system all at once

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152
Q

Video Surveillance

Steps for design

A
  • Define the system’s purpose
  • Define each camera’s purpose
  • Define the area to be viewed by each camera
  • Choose a camera style
  • Choose the proper lens
  • Determine best transmission method
  • Layout control area
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153
Q

Video Surveillance

Resolution is determined by the following in order

A
  1. Camera
  2. The transmission method
  3. The weakest link in the video system interface
  4. The reproduction capability of the storage system
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154
Q

Limiting Factors

A
  • Analog video recorders average a playback of 225 horizontal lines (very low)

- DVR’s digitize analog signals, dropping 25% of the resolution

- Sloppy installation or cheap coaxial cable costs 10 - 15% resolution

  • Digital compression also reduces the resolution
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155
Q

Video Surveillance

All IP cameras measure resolution as a multiple of the Common Intermediate Format (CiF) about half the average 325 horizontal lines; not recommended as a usable standard for storage

A
  • 1/4 CIF = 176 x 120 (3,520 pixels or .003 MPX)
  • CIF = 352 x 240 (84,480 pixels or .08 MPX)
  • 4 CIF = 704 x 480 (337,920 pixels or 0.3 MPX)
  • 16 CIF = 1408 x 960 (1,351,680 pixels or 1.3 MPX)
  • 32 CIF = 2816 x 1920 (5,405,720 pixels or 5.4 MPX)
  • A 4 mp camera = resolution of 400 ASA film
  • A 6mp camera = resolution of 100 ASA film
  • most effective & current standard for digital video compression is the H.264 compression algorithm
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156
Q

3 Considerations when determining video surveillance field & view (FOV)

A

Target (person, vehicles, etc…)

Activity (assault, slight of hand)

Purpose (identification vs. general monitoring)

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157
Q

Video surveillance systems are designed to be only two things

A

Visual assessment (what’s happening now)

Visual documentation (What happened previously)

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158
Q

3 Theoretical identification views of an analog VSS

A

1. Subject identification

2. Action identification

3. Scene identification

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159
Q

VS - Fields of view (FOV)

Theoretical identification views of a digital VSS

A

General: Can’t distinguish clothing & color - pixelated zoom (5 pix/ft)

Monitor: General vehicle/human traffic flows - no serious detail on zoom (7 pix/ft)

Detect: Detect but not identify person-sized object - no significant detail on zoom (4 pix/ft)

Observe: Clothing/colors gain distinction - no good detail on zoom (18 pix/ft)

Recognize: High degree of accuracy identifying & separating known individuals - good detail on zoom (35 pix/ft)

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160
Q

ID views of a digital VSS

A

Subject ID: Establish identity beyond a shadow of a doubt - the excellent detail on zoom (48 pix)

License Plat ID: ID of license plates - excellent detail on zoom (70 pix)

Facial Recog: Extreme details - excellent detail on zoom (88 pix)

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161
Q

VS - FOV

Identification of an object in video means…

A

The ability to differentiate between people’s identity

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162
Q

VS - FOV

Classification of an object in video means…

A

The ability to differentiate between humans animals etc…

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163
Q

VS - FOV

Cameras should not be required to view more than one major and one more minor objective

A
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164
Q

VS - FOV

Cameras should not auto-pan more than how many degrees left or right of the major focus

A

45 Degrees

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165
Q

VS - Cameras

Major Types of Cameras

A

Analog

Digital / IP

Infrared

Thermal

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166
Q

VS - Cameras

4 Main Types of Cameras

A
  1. Standard analog CCD cameras
  2. IP address
  3. Infrared cameras
  4. Thermal cameras
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167
Q

VS - Cameras

3 basic styles of IP Cameras

A
  1. Standard
  2. Megapixel
  3. Smart (edge analytics etc.)
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168
Q

VS - Cameras

Infrared cameras require…?

A

IR Source

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169
Q

VS - Cameras

Which cameras do not require an IR source?

A

Thermal Cameras

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170
Q

VS - Cameras

Camera selection criteria, in order of importance

A
  1. Sensitivity (light)
  2. Resolution (image quality)
  3. Features (WDR, IR, analytics, etc)
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171
Q

VS - Cameras

Placement of cameras is dictated by

A

Angle of View

Pixels Per Foot

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172
Q

VS - Cameras

3 Basic sensitivities of cameras

A

Full - Light

Lower - Light

Low - Light

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173
Q

VS - Cam Lenses

The camera is selected before the lens

A

The lens is selected based on its ability to provide the desired identification information

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174
Q

VS - Cameras

The lens is one of the few elements of a video system not converting to digital

A

Various functions of the lens can be automated (auto-iris, zoom/varifocal, focus)

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175
Q

VS - Cameras

5 Main types of lenses

A
  1. Wide angle (best for 0 to 15’ ranges)
  2. Standard (best for 15 to 50’ range) equivalent to the view from the human eye)
  3. Telephoto (best for > 50’ range)
  4. Varifocal
  5. Zoom
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176
Q

VS - Camera lens

2 Differences between zoom & varifocal lenses

A
  • The range of focal length is small in the varifocal
  • Varifocal lenses do not have a tracking mechanism to align focal length with focus
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177
Q

VS - Video storage / recording

When storing & using security video, it is important to decide whether the system’s purpose is to…

A

Verify information

Prove information

Aid a prosecution with the information

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178
Q

VS - Surveillance / Recording

Types of Recorders

A

DVR: Analog inputs only, converted to digital in the box, stored on hard drive or external media

NVR: Analog or digital inputs, analog converted to digital, stored on hard drive or external media

Server / Cloud: Digital inputs stored on network storage devices

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179
Q

Locking Systems - Locks

  • Most widely used methods of controlling physical access
  • Among the oldest of security devices
  • Should not be relied upon as the only means of physical protection for important assets
  • Should always be used with complimentary protection measures
A
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180
Q

Locks

2 Classes of Locks

A

Mechanical

Electro-Mechanical

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181
Q

Locks

2 Major components of most mechanical locks

A
  • A coded mechanism (key, cylinder, wheel pack, etc…)
  • The fastening device (bolt, latch, etc…)
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182
Q

Locks

4 Component / Assembles of Locks

A
  1. Bolt or latch
  2. Keeper or strike
  3. Tumbler array
  4. Key
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183
Q

Locks

Vulnerabilities of mechanical locks

A

Attack by force (spreading, forcing, twisting, etc…)

Surreptitious attack (picking, raking, bumping, etc…)

Impressioning & try keys

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184
Q

Locks

- Warded (1st type, very weak security, skeleton keys, old houses, antiques)

- Lever (18th century, more security than warded locks, master keyable, safe deposit boxes)

- Pin tumbler (19th century, Linus Yale, most widely used, can be high security, residential/office locks, master-keyable

- Wafer tumbler (sometimes double-bitted boys, mostly furniture locks, lower security than pin tumblers, master-keyable

  • Dial Combination (safes, mechanical or electronic
A
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185
Q

Locking Systems

Without ? security will usually degrade to more privacy

A

Lock Planning

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186
Q

Locking System Considerations

A
  • Total number of locks
  • Major categories of sectors of the system
  • Security objectives
  • Size & turnover of populations
  • Related or supportive security subsystems
  • Intelligence or information requirements
  • Criticality of asset exposure
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187
Q

Locks

Proper lock planning requires…?

A

Combination of the “totality” of the area (strengths of doors & walls, drop ceilings, etc..)

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188
Q

Locks

Locking policy should do the following

A
  • Require a systematic approach be taken to the use of locks for security purposes
  • Assign specific responsibility for the development of the lock program
  • Make all persons responsible for compliance with the program requirement
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189
Q

Locks

Lock Change Methods

A
  • Re-arrange or rotate the locks among doors
  • Re-key the locks (most effective
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190
Q

Locks

Master Keying

3 Major security difficulties

A
  1. Effective master key accountability
  2. Manipulations are easier
  3. Additional maintenance
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191
Q

Lighting

3 Primary functions of security lighting

A
  1. Deter criminal activity
  2. Life safety functions
  3. Support of video surveillance
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192
Q

Lighting

Typical Lighting Costs

A

Capitol (upfront costs) approx. 8%

Energy (approx. 88%

Maintenance (4%)

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193
Q

Lighting

Major components of a lighting system

A

Lamp (bulb)

Luminaire Hardware

Electrical Power

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194
Q

Lighting Terms

Quantity of light emitted by a lamp

A

Lumen

A typical 100-watt incandescent bulb outputs about 17000 lumens

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195
Q

Lighting Terms

The concentration of light over a particular area

A

Illuminance

  • Floodlight generating 1k lumens illuminates 50’ away
  • Spotlight generating 1k lumens illuminates a small area 50 ft away
  • Both lights output the same lumens
  • Each light generates a different level of illuminance from the same distance
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196
Q

Lighting Terms

The US measures of illuminance (lumens per sq. ft)

A

Foot Candles

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197
Q

Lighting Terms

Metric measure of illuminance (lumens per sq. meter) 1 FC = 10.76 lux (approximately 10:1 ratio)

A
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198
Q

Lighting Terms

Illuminance level of the scene

A

Scene Illuminance

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199
Q

Lighting Terms

Illuminance of the camera lens

A

Faceplate Illuminance

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200
Q

Lighting Terms

Lumens/watts (output divided by consumption)

A

Efficacy

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201
Q

Lighting Terms

Initial, cold start time of the light fixture

A

Strike Time

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202
Q

Lighting Terms

Re-Start time at a warm

A

Re-Strike Time

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203
Q

Lighting Terms

The percentage of light reflected from a scene which depends on the incident light angle, and the texture & composition of the reflecting surface

A

Reflectance

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204
Q

Lights - Color

Color rendition index (CRI)

A
  • The scale of 0 to 100
  • 70 to 80 CRI is good; above 80 is excellent 100 is daylight
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205
Q

Light Coverage

The measurement of variation in lighting levels

A

Uniformity

  • Working environments are 1: 0.7
  • A pedestrian walkway is 4:1
  • A roadway is 10:1
  • Higher uniformity levels provide better depth perception & greater perception of security
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206
Q

Light Uniformity & Coverage

What ration is preferred for a parking structure?

A

4:1 Uniformity Ratio

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207
Q

Landscaping environments can be expensive to light due to the numerous area of potential concealment

A

Lighting should be focused from the ground up into trees & shrubs to deter concealment

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208
Q

Lighting ratios in parking lots should not exceed…?

A

4:1

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209
Q

Lighting

A bright white, horizontal strip along the interior walls of parking structures provides higher contrasts & facilitates object identification

A
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210
Q

Lighting

Along with building facades where individual exterior objects cannot be adequately lit, providing a high contrast will give good identification of shape & movement - flood lights work well for this purpose

A
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211
Q

Lighting

What should the height of light poles in parking areas be to reduce shadows & dark spots?

A

12 - 14 Feet

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212
Q

Lighting

What kind of lighting is preferred outdoors because?

  • Broader, more natural light distribution
  • Requires fewer poles
  • Is more aesthetically pleasing
A

High Mast Lighting

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213
Q

Lighting implications to video surveillance

The successful deployment of even the simplest VSS requires an understanding of…

A
  • Relative levels of the scene illumination produced by natural sources
  • The amount of light reflected from typical scenes
  • The resultant faceplate illumination levels required by the variety of image tube & solid-state imagers
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214
Q

Light

Lighting considerations for video surveillance

A
  • CRI
  • Reflectance of materials
  • Directionality of reflected light
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215
Q

The two most important parameters of a lighting system for video surveillance are its…?

A
  • Minimum intensity
  • Evenness of illumination
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216
Q

Light

Cameras are light-averaging devices - All lighting in the camera’s FOV must be…

A

Even, not just the target areas

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217
Q

Lighting

The sensitivity of a CCTV camera can be defined as the minimum amount of illumination required to produce a specified output signal

The following factors are involved in producing a video signal

A
  • Illuminance level of the scene
  • Spectral distribution of the illumination source
  • Object reflectance
  • Total scene reflectance
  • Camera lens aperture
  • Camera lens transmittance
  • Spectral response of the camera imager
  • Video amplifier gain, bandwidth, & signal-to-noise ration
  • Electronic processing circuity
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218
Q

Lighting

Minimal output video signal is usually?

A

1 Volt peak-to-peak (VPP)

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219
Q

Lighting

Camera sensitivity may sometimes be overstated based on these two, commonly used factors

A
  • Higher scene reflectance than normally encountered
  • Greater transmittance than is commonly available in standard auto-iris lenses with neutral density spot filters
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220
Q

Lighting

A minimum of 1.5 fc is required for a camera system using on f / 1.8 or faster lens & a solid-state imager

A
  • This assumes reflectivity of 25%
  • This also assumes a light; dark ratio of no more than 4:1
  • 4:1 ratio is allowed to creep to 6:1 as materials age
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221
Q

Protective Lighting

Protective Lighting Types

A
  1. Standby
  2. Continuous
  3. Moveable
  4. Emergency
  5. Glare projection
  6. Controlled
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222
Q

Lighting

General security lighting equipment

A

Streetlight

Searchlight

Floodlight

High Mast Lighting

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223
Q

Lighting

The number of luminaires required to cover an area is a function of…

A
  • The area to be covered
  • Light levels required
  • The height of the luminaires & their design
  • Type of lighting used
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224
Q

Lighting

Rule of thumb for outside lighting

A

You should be able to read a driver’s license or newspaper with some eyestrain

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225
Q

Lighting

The general rule for lighting levels with regard to Identification of subjects

A
  • Detection (someone is there) - 0.5 fc
  • Recognition (recognizing the person) - 1.0 fc
  • Identification (evidentory) - 2.0 fc
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226
Q

Perimeter fence = 0.50 FC

Outer perimeter = 0.50 - 2.00 FC

Open area = 2.00 FC

Open parking lot = 0.20 - 0.90 fc

Covered parking lot = 5.00 fc

Pedestrian walkway = 0.20 fc

Pedestrian entrance = 5.00 fc

Vehicle entrance = 10.00 fc

A

Building facade = 0.50 - 2.00 fc

Gatehouse = 30.00 fc

Loading dock exterior = 0.20 - 5.00 fc

Loading bay = 15.00 fc

Office general = 30.00 - 50.00 fc

Office task = 50.00 - 30.00 fc

Interior public area = 10.00 - 20.00 fc

Retail store = 50.00 fc

Bank - lobby = 20.00 fc

Bank - teller = 50.00 fc

Bank - ATM = 15.00 fc

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227
Q

Lighting

Typical Reflectance Levels

A
  • Asphalt = 5%
  • Concrete (old) = 40%
  • Concrete (new) = 25%
  • Red bricks = 25%
  • Grass = 40%
  • Snow = 95%
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228
Q

Lighting

Lighting levels may cause a light trespass onto adjoining properties, including sidewalks & roadways

A
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229
Q

Lighting

Light trespass must not cause glare or excessive contrast to drivers & pedestrians, both on and off the organization’s property

A
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230
Q

Lighting

A dirty environment may result in a reduction of up to 20% per year in light output due to dirty lighting

A
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231
Q

Lighting

Lighting output in an office or other clean environment declines by 3 - 4% each year due to dirt accumulation on lighting fixtures & bulbs

A
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232
Q

Barrier Purposes

A
  • Physically & psychologically deters the undetermined
  • Delays the determined
  • Channels authorized traffic
  • Discourages unauthorized traffic that takes place by Accident Force Stealth
  • Explicitly defines territorial boundaries
  • May be used to preventing views of the facility
  • May be used to preventing placement of listening devices
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233
Q

Barrier Notes

A
  • Should be supported by interior clear zone whose width depends on the threat
  • Should be supplemented by sensors and/or other security measures
  • Should not provide concealment opportunities
  • Should not obstruct lighting, video surveillance, or intrusion detection
  • Should not facilitate observation of the facility
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234
Q

A dirty environment may result in a reduction of up to 20% per year in light output due to dirty lighting

A
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235
Q

Recommended Light Cleaning Cycle

A

Every 3 Years

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236
Q

Barrier Types

A

Natural

Structural

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237
Q

If a barrier’s effectiveness is uncertain it should be considered a potential obstacle

A
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238
Q

Selection & placement of barriers depend on the adversary’s objective

A
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239
Q

Balanced Design

What provides equal delay - No weak links?

A

Layered Barriers

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240
Q

Balanced Design

Barrier penetration begins how many feet in front of the barrier & ends how many feet beyond it

A

2 FT & 2 FT

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241
Q

Barriers

Fences & Walls

A
  • Are the most common perimeter barriers
  • Define areas & give notice of a protected property line
  • Demonstrate commitment to security & may stop a casual trespasser
  • Channel traffic & reduce the required number of security personnel
  • Provide intrusion detection and/or video surveillance zone
  • Force intruders to demonstrate intent
  • Must be maintained
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242
Q

Barriers - Walls

Walls are generally more resistant to penetration than the doors, windows, vents, & other openings

A
  • Most can be breached with the right tools
  • Using explosives & cutting tools and adversary can make a “crawl hole” through 18” reinforced concrete in under 5 min.
  • Increasing wall thickness usually adds only a moderate delay against explosives, even though the amount of explosive needed increases substantially with a wall thickness
  • Ordinary reinforced concrete walls can be penetrated quickly because they are generally designed to support structural loads, not to thwart or delay penetration
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243
Q

Walls ctd…

A
  • Placing two or more reinforced concrete walls in series results in longer penetration delays than using one wall that is thick as the two walls combined
  • Removing the rebar often takes longer than removing the concrete; delay can be increased by using additional rebar; increasing rebar size, or decreasing rebar spacing
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244
Q

Walls ctd…

A
  • Use earth cover or other overburden to delay access to the wall itself
  • Hardening a normally constructed building against forcing penetration for a significant period is rarely practical or cost-effective
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245
Q

Fences

Wire toppers on fences do not prevent intrusion but rolls of barbed tape on or near them can increase delay…

A
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246
Q

Fences

One of the most cost-effective additions to a fence?

A

Attach a roll of barbed tape to the outriggers

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247
Q

Fences

Where are barbed-tape rolls normally placed

A

Inside an outer-perimeter fence & outside on inner (double) fence

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248
Q

Fences

Which direction should outriggers point in order to eliminate the hand grip used by intruders when climbing over the fence

A

Towards the inside

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249
Q

Fences

Inner-fence-lines (double fence areas such as prisons) are spaced how far from the outer fence-line?

A

10 - 20 Ft

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250
Q

Electrified Fencing

What is the design of most industrial electrified fences?

A

8 ft. tall with 20 wires fitted to the inside of the chain link perimeter fence

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251
Q

Fences

Electrified fences pulses electrical energy 45 times per minute

A
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252
Q

Fences

2 Types of Electrified Fences

A
  1. All live wire “deterrent” fence (less common)
  2. “Monitored” fence (more common)
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253
Q

Fences

4 Basic Types of Expanded Metal

A

Standard / Regular

Grating

Flattened

Architectural or Decorative

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254
Q

Barriers - Gates

A
  • Establish points of entry & exit to an area defined by fences & walls
  • Limit or prohibit the flow of pedestrian or vehicular traffic
  • Establish a controlled traffic pattern
  • Should provide equal levels of delay as perimeter
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255
Q

Barriers - Doors

While walls may be hardened, doors tend to be a weak link in a structure because of their functional requirements & associated hardware

A
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256
Q

Barriers - Doors

If the door assembly cannot be sufficiently enhanced it may not be cost-effective to upgrade the building structure

A
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257
Q

Barriers - Doors

Most common exterior doors are 1.75” thick with 16 or 18 gauge steel surface sheets, usually, hollow or filled with composite material

A
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258
Q

Barriers - Doors

How long does it take to defeat exposed hinges & remove the door from the frame

A

1 Minute

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259
Q

How can a door vulnerability be mitigated?

A

By welding the hinge pin heads to the hinge knuckles, using the hidden “stud-in-hole” method, or affixing a z-strip to the rear face of the door

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260
Q

Barriers - Doors

Door Classifications

A
  • Standard industrial doors
  • Personal doors
  • Attack- and bullet - resistant doors
  • Vehicle access doors
  • Vault doors
  • Blast-resistant doors
  • Turnstile gates
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261
Q

Barriers - Doors

Unnecessary external doors should be eliminated as well as unnecessary, external (exposed) door hardware

A
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262
Q

Barriers - Doors

How can doors be reinforced?

A

Steel plates on their surfaces, heavy duty hinges, and filling frames with concrete

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263
Q

Barriers - Doors

What increases the delay time for thermal cutting tools by 3x or 4x?

A

Installing wood cares in metal doors especially using redwood

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264
Q

What only requires 1/2” to 3/4” of space to defeat the lock?

A

Prying or spreading the jamb from the door

How can it be mitigated? Welded 2” wide metal strips, concrete - filled frames and high security deadbolts

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265
Q

Barriers - Windows

How can windows be hardened?

A

Additional or heavier fasteners in the frames, or by welding the frames

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266
Q

Barriers - Windows

Transparent plastic glazing

A
  • Some types are combustible & their use may be restricted by fire codes
  • Acrylic plastic like Lucite & Plexiglass, if less than one inch thick, can be broken with hand tools in less than 10 seconds
  • Polycarbonates resist impact about as well as bullet-resistant glass
  • Lexan in 1/2” thickness resists hand-tool penetration for up to 2 minutes
  • Thermal tool attacks require about one minute but cause combustion & the release of toxic gases
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267
Q

Barriers - Windows

Glass/polycarbonate composite glazing contains a tough core of what?

A

Polycarbonate between 2 layers of glass

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268
Q

Windows

Glass/polycarbonate composite glazing is developed for use in prisons

A
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269
Q

Windows

The thickest panels of glass/polycarbonate lasted 10 minutes against miscellaneous steel tools

A
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270
Q

Barriers - Windows

Used often in fire doors & fire windows?

A

Wire Glass

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271
Q

Windows ctd…

Wire Glass is made up of…?

A

1/4” material fabricated with diamond, square, or hexagonal wire patterns

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272
Q

How fast can wire glass be penetrated with hand tools?

A

20 Seconds

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273
Q

Laminated Glass

A
  • Made of two or more panes of annealed float sheet, or plate glass
  • Bonded to a layer or layers of plastic
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274
Q

Windows

Safety glass that is 1/4” thick can be penetrated in…?

A

30 Seconds

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275
Q

Security glass that is 9/16” thick requires 15 minutes of work w/ hand tools to produce a crawl-through hole

A
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276
Q

Barriers - Utility Portals

Openings other than doors & windows, through which maintenance & other functions might be performed

A

Utility Ports

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277
Q

Barriers - Roofs

Can be enhanced in several ways (new & existing)

A
  • Enhancing membranes w/ embedded screen
  • Added several inches of rigid insulation
  • Using concrete reinforced with deformed steel bars & expanded steel mesh
  • Forming larger rebar into several rows or layers for reinforced concrete
  • Increasing the number of fasteners & adding structural members to corrugated roofs
  • Using mechanical fasteners or joints & a continuous weld & heavier gauge material on metal roof systems
  • Using larger rebar to strengthen the flange area of precast concrete tee beams
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278
Q

Barriers - Roofs

Contemporary roof types’ include the following

A
  • Prestressed concrete tee beam
  • Metal subdeck & reinforced concrete
  • Metal roof deck with lightweight concrete
  • Metal roof deck with insulation
  • Metal Roof
  • Reinforced concrete beam & slab
  • Wood sheathing with membrane
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279
Q

Barriers - Roofs

Which roof improvements provide the best value

A
  • Penetration tests suggest that barriers placed below the roof may be more effective against penetration than those in the roof itself
  • The optimal distance between the roof & the secondary barrier is 10” to 12”
  • Earth coverings of both roofs & walls are effective delay barriers
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280
Q

Vehicle Barriers

Types of barrier methodologies

A
  • Vehicle arrestor (slows vehicle to a stop)
  • Crash cushion (cushions the impact that stops a vehicle) (moderate distance)
  • Inertia device (rigid, heavy moveable objects)
  • Rigid device (fixed devices) { a very short distance - almost immediate }
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281
Q

Vehicle Barriers

A moving vehicle possesses kinetic energy, which must be dissipated by the vehicular barrier

A
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282
Q

Vehicle Barriers

Optimum vehicular barrier height?

A

Almost 30” but can vary depending on threat vehicles

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283
Q

Vehicle Barriers

Since cable barriers are easy to defeat with hand-held tools, they should be used only in areas well patrolled or monitored with sensors or cameras

A
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284
Q

Vehicle Barriers

DOD “K - ratings” for barriers / barricades

A
  • K4 stops a 15,000 lb. vehicle at 30 mph
  • K8 stops a 15,000 lb. vehicle at 40 mph

K12 stops a 15,000 lb. vehicle at 50 mph

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285
Q

Vehicle Barriers

Vehicle barriers outside the detection & assessment zone are not recommended

A
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286
Q

Vehicle Barriers

Private vehicles should be kept in secured areas as much as possible

A
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287
Q

Barriers - Dispensible Barriers

Typically includes the following elements

A
  • Process for deciding when to activate the barrier
  • Command & control hardware
  • Material deployed to delay access or incapacitate an aggressor
  • Dispensing mechanism
  • Security officers on-site
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288
Q

Dispensible Barriers

Barriers isolate the aggressor….?

A

Visually

Acoustically

At Location

(or any combination of these)

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289
Q

Dispensible Barriers

Passive dispensable barriers have no command and control component making them less expensive (but riskier)

A
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290
Q

Dispensible Barriers

Systems last 10 to 25 years, and active systems require routine maintenance

A
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291
Q

Safes & Vaults

Safes weighing less than 750 lbs are considered portable & UL standards require they be anchored in place

A
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292
Q

Safes & Vaults

Burglary resistant safes do not generally protect against fire

A
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293
Q

Safes & Vaults

Burglary / Fire Resistant Containers

A

Some containers can achieve UL rating for burglary & fire resistance

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294
Q

Fire - Resistant Safes

UL Classifications

A

350-4 (formerly A)

350-2 (formerly B)

350-1 (formerly C)

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295
Q

Fire Resistant Safes

Classification / Testing process also includes

A

A drop-test & harsher temperature test than filling devices

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296
Q

Insulated filing devices UL Class

A

350 - 1 (formerly D)

350 - 2 (formerly E)

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297
Q

Fire Resistant Safes

Classification / Testing process does not include a drop test

A
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298
Q

Different types of safes designed for records protection

A
  • Fire-resistant safes & record containers
  • Insulated filing devices
  • Containers to protect magnetic media
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299
Q
  • Electronic media containers are designed to protect contents to 125 or 150 degrees & 80% humidity for 1, 2, 3 & 4 periods (125-1, 150-1, 125-2, 150-2 etc)
  • Different types of safes designed for records
    1. fire-resistant safes & record containers
    2. Insulated firing devices
    3. Containers to protect magnetic media
A
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300
Q

Safes

  • The minimum thickness of a 4-hour vault wall is 12” for brick & 8” for reinforced concrete
  • The minimum thickness for a 6-hour vault wall is 12” for brick and 10” for reinforced concrete
A
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301
Q

Fire Resistant Vaults

Construction Standards

A
  • Reinforced concrete with steel rods at least 1/2” diameter, spaced 6” on center & running at right angles in both directions
  • Rods are wired securely at intersections not over 12” apart in both directions & installed centrally in the wall or panel
  • A brick protection used is filled solidly with the steel with concrete
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302
Q

Burglary Resistant Vaults

A
  • Avoid exterior wall location
  • All 6 surfaces of a vault should give equal protection
  • Unreinforced concrete should never be penetrated

(vaults are designed to resist penetration for a defined period)

  • # 4 (1/2”) rebar & smaller diameters can be cut w/ hand tools
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303
Q

Contraband

Methods of Contraband Detection

A

Manual search

Metal detectors

Package searches (x-ray, etc)

Explosives detection (bulk and trace)

Chemical and biological agent detection

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304
Q

Contraband

Advantages to a manual search

A

Low hardware investment, flexibility

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305
Q

Contraband

Disadvantages to manual search

A

Slow throughput, higher labor costs

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306
Q

Metal Detectors

A

Magnetometer

Continuous wave

Pulsed field

Handheld

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307
Q

Contraband

Materials with low atomic numbers (“Z-numbers”) materials starting with hydrogen and ending with Z-number 26, Aluminum

A

Low-Z Materials

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308
Q

Contraband

Bulk Explosives Detection

A
  • Macroscopic, detonable amounts of explosives
  • Targets specific threat amounts of explosives
  • Usually uses ionizing radiation that is not safe for use on people
  • Measures X-ray absorption coefficient, X-ray backscatter coefficient, dielectric constant, gamma or neutron interaction, or microwave or infrared emissions
  • Can determine calculated mass, density, nitrogen, carbon, oxygen content, and effective atomic Z number
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309
Q

Bulk Explosives Detectin (ctd…)

A
  • Multiple-energy X-rays and backscatter X-rays more readily identify low Z-number materials
  • Hi-energy X-rays are large, fixed mechanisms designed to scan large cargo containers
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310
Q

What may be combined with backscatter X-ray technology for detection of low Z-number materials?

A

High-energy X-rays

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311
Q

What devices can use gama rays or neutrons for detection (very high penetrating)?

A
  • Thermal neutron activation (TNA)
  • Pulsed fast neutron absorption (PFNA)
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312
Q

Detects the presence of nitrogen through gamma wavelengths

A

Thermal Neutron Activation (TNA)

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313
Q

What determines carbon and oxygen content?

A

Pulsed Fast Neutron Absorption (PFNA)

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314
Q

Determination of nitrogen, carbon and oxygen content lends more accuracy to separating explosives from foot items

A
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315
Q

Food items/cargo cannot be irradiated at energy levels of more than 10 milli-electron volts (MeV) (international law)

A
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316
Q

Bulk Explosives Detection

What is safe for humans, producing 10 microrem per dose?

A

Low-dose backscatter X-ray technology

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317
Q

Bulk Explosives Detection (ctd…)

CT scans spin sensors on a gantry around the package and produce a 3D image that detects small threat masses; may be subject to high NAR’s

A
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318
Q

Quadruple resonance (QR) technology uses…

A

pulsed low-energy radio waves to detect nitrogen-rich materials

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319
Q

What uses laser interrogation and analysis of the spectrum of scattered light to identify threat materials?

  • Cannot see through opaque packaging - designed for clear package searches
A

Raman Analysis

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320
Q

This detection is still under research and development - experiements with distance detection of explosives with infrared cameras, passive and active millimeter-wave imaging systems, and lasers sensing fluorescence or atomic emissions

A

Stand-off Detection

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321
Q

Trace Explosive Detection

A

Particles and vapor residues associated with handling explosives

-

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322
Q

Trace Explosives Detection

Key Performance Metrics

A
  • Limit of detection (smallest detectable amount) (may be as low as < 1 nanogram)
  • Selectivity (ability to distinguish one material from another)
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323
Q

Trace Explosives Detection

Sampling Methods

A
  • Swipe (most efficient)
  • Vapor (puffing) (less invasive)
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324
Q

Trace Explosives Detection

Challenges

A
  • Low vapor phase concentrations of several common high explosives (parts per billion and parts per trillion)
  • Packaging of explosives with oil-based gel or solvent
  • Absorption of explosive molecules upon most materials at room temperature and decomposition upon moderate heating or exposure to high energy, and thus loss of significant sample material in collectin and transport
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325
Q

Trace Explosives Detection (ctd…)

Techologies

A

Low mobility spectrometry (IMS)

Colorimetry

Chemiluminescence

Mass Spectrometry

Fluorescence

Canine Olfaction

Trase Explosives Detection Portals

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326
Q

Contraband Detectin

Methods

A

Chemical agent detection

Biological agent detection

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327
Q

Contraband Detection

Chemical Agent Detection

A

Uses point sensors at perimeters

Goal is early warning

NAR is a serious consideration (due to high response level)

May not be appropriate for checkpoint screening

May use optical sensing methods

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328
Q

Contraband Detection

Biological Agent Detection

A

Different from chemical detection in two ways:

  1. Most biological agents are not immediately lethal, impacting necessary response times
  2. Usually requires several hours for collection and analysis of air samples
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329
Q

Physical Protection Systems (PPS) Deployment Methodology

The primary objectives of a PPS are…

A

Detection

Delay

Response

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330
Q

PPS Deployment Methodology

Biggest causes of vulnerabilities in a PPS…

A

Improper component selection

Improper installation and maintenance

Improper operation

Improper integration

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331
Q

PPS Deployment Methodology

A collection of products, processes or both combined to provide a solution to a problem or goal

A

System

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332
Q

PPS Deployment Methodology

Systems, not components, are optimized to yield the most effective design to the problem

A
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333
Q

PPS Deployment Methodology

A logical method for problem solving in which a comprehensive solution is developed in relation to a problem having several dimensions

A

ASIS definitionof “systems approach to problem solving”

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334
Q

PPS Deployment Methodology

In the security context, a system is a combination of…

A

equipment, personnel, and procedures, coordinated and designed to ensure optimum achievement of the system’s stated objectives

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335
Q

PPS Integration

The combination of a variety of components sucha as people, technology and procedures

A

Integration

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336
Q

PPS Integration

Who should engineer the PPS by using the building blocks of people procedures, and technology?

A

Security Manager

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337
Q

PPS Integration

In general, a well-designed, integrated PPS is more effective against lower-level threats than high-level threats

A
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338
Q

PPS Integration

“Delay-in-depth” = “Protection-in-depth”

A
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339
Q

PPS Integration

Access delay barriers types

A

Passive (walls, fences, locks, etc…)

Security Officers (most flexible, but expensive)

Dispensible (fogs, foams, etc)

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340
Q

PPS Integration

An effective PPS combines the following into an integrated system

A

People

Equipment (technology)

Procedures

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341
Q

PPS Integration

Regardless of how the investigation tool is used; it is an important design element in a PPS and should be used when appropriate

A
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342
Q

PPS Integration

Procedural changes can be cost-effective solutions to physical protection issues, although when used by themselves they will only protect assets from the lowest threats

A
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343
Q

PPS Analysis

Analysis of the PPS provides two key benefits

A
  1. It establishes the assumptions under which a design was formed
  2. It relates system performance to threats and assets, making possible a cost-benefit decision
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344
Q

PPS Analysis

Analysis evaluates whether the PPS’ people, procedures, and technology are achieving the PPS functions of detection, delay, and response

A

Also referred to as a site survey or vulnerability assessment

May be qualitative or quantitative

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345
Q

PPS Analysis

Qualitative Analysis

A

Lower-security applications

i.e. retail, restaurants, small businesses, etc…

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346
Q

PPS Analysis

Quantitative Analysis

A

Higher-security applicaitons

Unacceptably high impact, despite level of probability

ie. museums, refineries, airports, etc…

Require immediate, onsite response to events

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347
Q

PPS Analysis

Two basic analysis approaches are used in a vulnerability assessment (VA)

A

Compliance-based (Qualitative)

Performance-based (Quantitative)

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348
Q

PPS Analysis

What system is evaluated on the performance and cost-effectiveness of individual measures in

A

…Countering threats

…Reducing vulnerabilities

…decreasing risk exposure considered as an integrated whole

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349
Q

PPS Analysis

PPS performance measure are:

A

Detection

Response

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350
Q

PPS Performance Measures

Detection

A

Probability of detection

Time for communication and assessment

Frequency of nuisance alarms

Delay

Time to defeat obstacles

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351
Q

PPS Performance Measures

Response

A

Probability of accurate communication to response force

Time to communicate

Probability of deployment to adversary location

Time to deploy

Response force effectiveness

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352
Q

PPS Analysis

Interruption

A

Arrival of responders at a deployed location to halt adversary progress, which may lead to neutralization

Probability of Interruption (PI)

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353
Q

PPS Analysis

Neutralization

A

Defeat of the advesaries by responders in a face-to-face engagement

Probability of Neutralization (PN)

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354
Q

PPS Analysis

PPS Effectiveness (PE) = PI x PN

A
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355
Q

PPA Analysis

An ordered series of actions against a facility, which, if completed, results in compromise of assets

A

Adversary Path

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356
Q

PPS Analysis

Adversary Sequence Diagram (ASD)

A

A functional representation of the PPS at a fcility that is used to describe the specific protection elements present

Illustrates the paths that adversaries can follow to accomplish sabotage, theft or other harm

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357
Q

Adversary Sequence Diagram

There are three basic steps in creating an ASD for a specific site

A
  1. Describing the facility by separating it into adjacent physical areas
  2. Defining protection layers and path elements between the adjacent areas
  3. Recording detection and delay values for each path element
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358
Q

ASD

The biggest mistake in ASD is…

A

To follow a single path from off-site to the largest location and only do an analysis on that path

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359
Q

ASD ctd…

The best method for creating an ASD is…

A

To walk or drive around the exterior of the area, then repeat the same inside

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360
Q

ASD ctd…

Sabotage incidents require…

A

Evaluation of only entry paths, as exit paths become irrelevant once the damage is done

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361
Q

ASD ctd…

ASD’s should be executed for…

A

Day/night, open/closed, and other contradicting conditions fo the facility

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362
Q

ASD ctd…

Sometimes used as a substitute for defined threats in the ASD process, but this can lead to gaps in analysis

A

Scenario Analysis

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363
Q

ASD ctd…

Preferred Approach

A

Analyze PPS using defined threats and path analysis, then generate scenarios by looking at weak paths

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364
Q

ASD ctd…

Scenario analysis must also consider the possibility of concurrent attacks on multiple assets, concurrent threat objectives (i.e.. theft and sabotage, etc…), and attack by multiple threat teams

A
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365
Q

ASD ctd..

PPS response includes personnel and the communications system they use

A
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366
Q

ASD ctd…

The systems design process is a serial process

A
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367
Q

PPS Design

What is the most important element in the defense against dynamic threats and potential catastrophic losses?

A

Proper use and application of the integrated security systems design process

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368
Q

PPS Design

A well-engineered PPS exhibits the following characteristics

A

Protection-in-depth

Minimum consequence of component failure

Balanced Protection

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369
Q

PPS Design

The design process can be based on two criteria/approaches

A

Performance criteria (preferred method)

Feature criteria (“checlist” method that may ignore performance goals)

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370
Q

PPS Design

4 Elements of Physical Design

A

Deter

Detect

Delay

Respond

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371
Q

PPS Design

Important factors in system design are…

A

The environment and unique needs of the facility

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372
Q

PPS Design

The best PPS solutin is designed by considering

A

Threats

Risks

Vulnerabilities

Constraints

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373
Q

Systems Design Process

Systems Design Process Phases

A

Planning and assessment

Design and documentation

Procurement

Installation

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374
Q

PPS Design - Phase 1

Task 1, Identification of

A

Critical assets

Potential threats

Subsequent vulnerabilities

Likely risks

Functional requirements

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375
Q

PPS Design - Phase 1

Task 2

A

Analyze security requirements and formulate solutions or countermeasures concepts to reduce or eliminate vulnerabilities and mitigate risks

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376
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

The first phase of any security design project

A

Planning and Assessment Phase

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377
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

In the architectural process its referred to as…

A

Programming or Schematic Design (SD) phase

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378
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

Consists of gathering all relevant pre-design asset information and analyzing it in terms of project requirements and constraints

A
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379
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

Culminates in a security “basis of design”

A

The basis of design is the first and most important output of the design process

Focuses on specific project requirements and a conceptual design solution based on those requirements

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380
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

the planning and assessment phase results in a conceptual design solution that categorizes vulnerabilities by their criticality and identifies the most preferred and cost-effective protection scheme to mitiage or eliminate asset risks

A
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381
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

Another important outcome of the planning phase is the development of the business case for the new or upgraded security systems

A
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382
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

Security design is just as dependant on collecting good data leading to informed decisions by knowledgeable people as is any other analytical process where a solution is engineered and constructed

A
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383
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

The basis of design becomes the designer’s means to obtain consensus from the design tema on…

A

The goals and objectives of the project

What will constitute the project

How the project will secure the assets

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384
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

Implementing the basis of design is not the time to identify engineering details, prepare budgets, or identify and debate specific countermeasures

A
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385
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

The Conceptual Design, also called a Design Concept, is the last task of Phase 1 Planning and Assessment

A
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386
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

A design concept’s detail should never be more than a top-level description of the various anticipated security system elements, subsystems, and support systems

A
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387
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

From an architectural perspsective, the Design Concept is usually referred to as the initial conceptual design or schematic development (SD) phase

A
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388
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

Most security designers identify four principal security strategies - prevention, detection, control and intervention - as the most important functional requirements of security design

A

Homeland security features five principal strategies: Preparation, prevention, detection, response, and recovery

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389
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 1

The importance of having a redundant security system (multiple layers of security) is based on the 10 principles of probability developed by the French mathematician and astronomer Marquis de Laplace (1749 - 1827)

A
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390
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

Design and Documentation may be split into two phases in the construction idustry

A

Design Development (DD)

Construction Documents (CD)

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391
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

Design Development (DD)

A

Generally DD includes a preliminary design (30-35%) following the conceptual design and concludes with a 50%-60%

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392
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

Construction Documents (CD)

A

Generally starts with a 60% design and passes through a 90% submission and conclused with 100% CD set

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393
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

The CD set consists of three elements

A
  1. Contractual details (usually the Div 01 spec for large projects)
  2. Specification (Div 28 for security on large projects)
  3. Drawings (not required for a services contract, like guards)
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394
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

The objective of Phase 2 (DD) is…

A

To complete the design and to document the process to the level of detail necessary for the chosen method of procurement

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395
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

Division 28 (Div28) is the Electronic Safety and Security section of the construction specifications institute (CSI) MasterFormat specifications template that includes 50 sections total (not all used)

A

Each division, or section, is divided into three parts:

General

Products

Executiong

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396
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

Security systems drawings are always considered secondary to the specifications (specs take precedence)

A
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397
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

Drawings include the following types

A
  • Plans (top view, map-like view of system component placement int he facility
  • Elevations (views of vertical surfaces that show mounting heights and locations of wall-mounted devices

- Details (define elements of the system in more detail

- Risers (chart-like reprentations of complete subsystems such as CCTV or access control

- Hardware schedules (tables that provide detailed component information

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398
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 2

Key factors to be considered in hardening of a facility

A

Stand-off distance

Structural integrity of the premises

Prevention of progressive collapse

Redundancy of operating systems

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399
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

Procurement

The type of procurement should be determined before or at the start of the design phase because the type of procurement determines the level of detail required in the construction documents (CDs)

A
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400
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

Three major forms of security systems procurement

A
  1. Sole source
  2. Request for proposal (RFP)
  3. Invitationfor bid (IFB)
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401
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

Sole Source

A
  • May be the most appropriate for small projects
  • This method of procurement is recommended only where the security owner has the capability to perform the security needs analysis and has good prior knowledge of systems and prices
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402
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

Sole Source

A

Positives

The construction documents are usually simple, reducing owner design costs and saving time

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403
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

Sole Source

A

Negatives

  1. There is a tendency to focus on hardware and technology only, leaving the equally important personnel, procedures, and facilities subsystems for others
  2. The owner may tend to skip the all-important security planning process and rely on advice from a contractor with a vested interest in selling equipment
  3. Without a competitive bidding process, the organization has no means of comparing prices
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404
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

RFP

A

Almost always based on a set of detailed design and construction deocuments

Specifications are usually generic and performance-based

Equipment makes and models are often listed with the phrase “or approved equal”

The owner typically procures a security business partner, not just a one-time security systems installer

An RFP response may be open to any contractor or it may be limited to a list of prequalified contractors

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405
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

RFP (ctd…)

A
  • In addtion to providing a cost proposal, a proposer must submit a technical proposal that describes the firm’s understanding of the requirements and how the objectives will be met
  • It is common to allow responders to propose alternate solutions, called “alternates”
  • The RFP need not restrict the organization to accept the lowest bid. Instead, it aims to obtain the best value
  • If price will not be the determining factor in vendor selection, the RFP should say so
  • A contractor’s response to an RFP usually takes longer to prepare than responses to other types of procurement because both a technical and a cost proposal must be prepared
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406
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

IFB

A
  • Commonly used by government and other organizations whose procurement procedures require that projects be competitively bid and that the award be given to the lowest qualified, responsive bidder
  • No technical proposals or alternative solutions are sought, so the construction documents must be extremely explicit
  • The onus of selecting equipment makes and models, and the accuracy of the security system design, is placed solely on the design team
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407
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

IFB

A
  • Bidders submit a cost proposal or bid, which may contain unit pricing and whatever price breakdown is requested
  • The award is then made, usually wihtout negotion to the lowest qualified bidder who has conformed to the bidding instructions
  • The IFB requires additional time and cost in design and specification, but typically needs only one or two weeks of procurement time, depending on the size and complexity of the project
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408
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

IFB (ctd…)

A
  • It is common to require bids to be sealed and delivered by a specific time to a specific location:
  • At the time and place, the bids are opened (often publicly) and the apparent winner is announced
  • Contracts are signed when the apparent winner’s proposal has been checked for completeness, accuracy, and qualifications
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409
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 3

In an RFP or IFB, the pre-bid conference should be held one week after CD’s are issued for bid

A
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410
Q

Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Installation

The most important step in stalling the PPS

A

to plan correctly

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411
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Second step in installing the PPS

A

for the contractor to visit the site to ensure conditions agree with designs

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412
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Four types of Installation Tests

A

Pre-delivery or factory acceptance tests

Site acceptable tests

Reliability or availability tests

After-acceptance tests

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413
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Factory Acceptance Testing

A

Demonstrate system performance complies with specified requirements in accordance with approved factory test procedures

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414
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Site Acceptance Test

A

Contractor should verify all previous test results, diagnostics and calibrations two weeks prior to acceptance testing

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415
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Reliability Testing

A

Conducted in alternating phases of testing and evaluation to allow for validation of the tests and corrective actions

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416
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

After-implementation Tests

A

Operational tests

Performance tests

Post-maintenance tests

Subsystem tests

Limited scope tests

Evaluation tests

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417
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

All the technological and procedural precautions in the world will be ineffective if they are not executed properly

A
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418
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Without appropriate training, personnel are more likely to contribute to security risks accidentally

A
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419
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

The common time for the contractor to report to the job site to address a warranty issue is

A

within four hours of the problem report

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420
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

A PPS maintenance agreement typically includes two categories of services

A
  1. Remedial maintenance that corrects faults upon failures
  2. Preventitive maintenance consists of scheduled maintenance to keep the PPS in good operating condition
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421
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Indications of a poor maintenance program

A

Frequent system failures

Cursory testing procedures

An inordinate number of components awaiting repair

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422
Q

PPS Systems Design Process - Phase 4

Typically, maintenance and warranty costs equal 11% of the total capital systems construction cost

A
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423
Q

Security Officers - Purpose

A human being is needed if the post requires the ability to

A

Discriminate among events, persons, circumstances, or physical objects based on complex and varying criteria

Conduct rational dialogue with people face-to-face and discern next actions based on such communication

Use physical force or the threat of it to restrain one or more persons

Exercise judgement to determine a logical course of mental or physical activity

Provide reports detailing their activities on an ongoing basis

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424
Q

Security Officers - Purpose

A security officer post is any location or combination of activities for which a trained human being is necessary and includes three key concepts:

A
  1. A location or combination of activities
  2. Necessary human being
  3. Training and competence to accomplish the required activities
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425
Q

Security Officers

Security officers represent the largest segment of security sector employees and are the largest cost element in the majority of security operating budgets

A
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426
Q

Security Officers

What are generally the largest item in the operating budget of a security department

A

Personnel Costs

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427
Q

Security Officers

Private security outnumbers….. in the U.S. by 3 to 1?

A

Law Enforcement

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428
Q

Security Officers - Deployment

Structures of security operations - Vertical Model

A

“Hierarchical model”

Authority starts at the top

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429
Q

Security Officers - Deployment

Structures of security operations - Shamrock Model

A

Three leaf shamrock

Leaf 1: Professionals, managers, and skilled technicians

Leaf 2: third-party suppliers

Leaf 3: Part-time and temporary workers (flexible)

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430
Q

Security Officers - Deployment

Structures of security operations - Network Model

A

“Flattened” “Horizontal” or “open” model

Connections between employees and multiple supervisors

Security department itself is networked to other departments

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431
Q

Security Officers - Deployment

The number of officers required for a facility is determined by several factors, including:

A

Physical complexity and size of the facility

Number of employees

Nature of work

Number of entrances (and hours they are open)

Value and amount of assets being protected

Number of patrols needed

Number of escorts and special assignments needed

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432
Q

Security Officers - Deployment

A 24/7 post requires a minimum of 4.2 officers (168 hours @ 40 hour shifts)

A

4.5 to compensate for sick, vacation, and holiday leave

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433
Q

Security Officers - Basic Functions

Where personal recognition for access-control purposes is required, under low-density queuing, a remote operator could control three or four access points

A
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434
Q

Security Officer - Rank & Authority

The efficiency of the security force depends on the adquacy and skill of its supervisors

A
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435
Q

Security Officers - Rank & Authority

Security officer supervisors are selected on the basis of their knowledge of the job and demonstrated administrative and leadership abilities

A
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436
Q

Security Officers - Regulation

Jurisdictions use two different methods for regulating security activity

A
  1. Requiring the licensing of the primary controlled business - the individual or corporate applicant must typically apply for and obtain a license before engaging in the regulated activity
  2. The second method applies to the licensing or registration of employees fo the business other than those named on the original application
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437
Q

Security Officers

Recommendations resulting from the 1972 Rand Report on private security in the U.S.

A
  • Government regulation should be applied as uniformly as possible
  • Regulation should be at the state level
  • Directors and managers of in-house security services as well as owners and managers of contract security services should be licensed
  • All employees of both proprietary and contract security organization should be registered by the state
  • Each license and registrant should meet minimum standards or qualifications (which could vary among types of licensees and registrants
438
Q

Rand Report

A
  • State regulatory agencies should conduct background investigations of each applicant for a license or registration (i.e.. for all security employees, proprietary and contract), including a criminal records check and prior employment verification for a period of seven years
  • All new applicants for licensing and registration should have completed high school or it equivalent or must pass a special literacy test
  • Experience in private security should be required before a license is granted. A bachelor’s degre (or higher) should be permitted to substitute for some of the experience requirement.
439
Q

Rand Report

A
  • Licenses should meet a minimum bond or insurance requirement
  • State agencies should require minimum training programs for all types of private security personnel
  • Separate training programs should be required for different security positions, such as guard, investigator, polygraph operator, and central station alarm responder
  • Instructors’ schools shold be accredited by the state regulatory agency
440
Q

Rand Report

A
  • Currently employed security personnel should be given on year to meet the training requirements
  • Private security personnel should be prohibited from carrying concealed firearms while on duty. Company-furnished weapons shold remain on company proprty during off-hours
  • Statutory liability shold be imposed on private security businesses for weapons abuses by their employees against private citizens
441
Q

Rand Report

A
  • Regulatory agencies should hav the authority and resources to spot-check private security records and operations
  • Local police and insurance companies should forward to the regulatory agency any information coming to their attention involving major complaints or incidents involving security personnel
  • Prior criminal convictions related to potential abuses in private security should be a basis for denying registration or licening
442
Q

Rand Report

A
  • Evidence obtained by illegal search by private individuals should be subject to suppression either on a per se basis (as is the case for evidence illegally seized by law enforcement) or ad hoc, with the judge or magistrate weighing the equities
  • Uniformed private security personnel should be forbidden to engage in interrogation or interviewing
  • Jurisdictioins should regulate the color and style of private security uniforms, as well as the use of police titles by private seucrity personnel
443
Q

Rand Report

A
  • Any firm hiring the services of an independant security contractor should be held liable for any negligent failure to control the contract staff
  • The federal government should consider funding a research center to evaluate the effectiveness of private security personnel. Its finding should be included in an overhauled statistical reporting system to be maintained by the insurance industry
444
Q

Security Officers - Qualifications

In addition to the mental ability to complete administrative tasks and make judgments, the security officer must also have the physical ability to observe, listen, report, and function in emergencies

445
Q

Security Officers - Qualification

Actions that must be taken before arming any private security officer

A
  1. They must furnish information about all prior employment
  2. The employer should make a reasonable effort to verify the last seven years of employment history, and check three personal references
  3. They must pass a recognized pre-employment drug-screening test
446
Q

Security Officer - Training

Competency refers to…

A

An individual’s ability, skills, and qualifications to perform the necessary duties

447
Q

Sec Officer - Training

It is good practice to provide a set number of pre-assignment training hours at the contract agency’s expense

448
Q

Security Officer - Training

The quality of assets protection is a direct function of…?

A

Local training and local supervision

449
Q

Security Officer - Training

What is directly related to the quality of local supervision and local training?

A

The quality of the service provided by the contract agency

450
Q

Security Officers - training

Unless officers are properly trained and closely supervised, they may not provide the protection required

451
Q

Security Officer - Training

What determines security officer effectiveness and raises a question of the actual need for the post

A

Post-Specific Training

452
Q

Security Officer - Training

What should be given as soon as the officer reports for duty? Instruction on specific duties can be given as the duties are assigned

A

An initial period of general security

453
Q

Security Officer - Training

Two reasons for testing the security operations program

A

Identify residual risks

Identify necessary changes within the organization

454
Q

Security Officer - Training

The quality of training is directly proportional to the quantity of training

455
Q

Security Officer - Training

Hallcrest Report (1985, Cunningham & Taylor) found that contract security firms had inadequate employee selection and training standards

456
Q

Security Officer - Training

The key to effective guard us is…

457
Q

Security Officer - Arming

One of the greatest liabilities an organization faces involves…?

A

issuing deadly weapons to security officers

458
Q

Security Officer - Arming

Some think when a contract security vendor is properly contracted, most of the liability is shifted to the vendor

A

Legal actions usually involve anyone remotely associated with a situation

459
Q

Security Officer - Arming

Payment for vendor services indicates acceptance of the vendor’s management style and practice; thus, crucial policies and protocols should be prescribed by the organization that employs the vendor

460
Q

Security Officer - Arming

The decision whether to arm an officer should be based on the existence of one of these two conditions

A
  1. there is a greater danger to life safety without the weapon
  2. The officer may reasonably be expected to use fatal force
461
Q

Security Officer - Arming

Facility management assumes several responsibilities for armed officers

A
  • Property training of the officers to be armed
  • Selection of the appropriate firearms and ammunition
  • Proper maintenance of the firearms and ammunition
  • Proper maintenance of the firearms by a qualified gunsmith
  • Maintenance of records of the foregoing actions
  • An adequate level of liability insurance
462
Q

Security Officer - Arming

Other considerations regarding the use of deadly weapons

A
  1. Conditions when weapons may be issued
  2. Persons who get a weapon, and the type of weapon and ammo issued
  3. Quality and reliability of the weapon at the time of issue, and repair and maintenance of the weapon by a qualified armorer
  4. Accountability for the specific weapon and its ammunition, and specified training with the weapon
463
Q

Security Officer - Arming

Other considerations ctd…

A
  1. Conditions when weapons may be used, and safety precautions for the issuance and carrying of weapons
  2. Return or surrender of the weapon when not required for authorized use
  3. Secure storage for weapons when not in use (weapons unloaded, separated from ammunition, locked in approved container)
  4. Accurate records of each of the preceding points
464
Q

Security Officer - Arming

Use of non-lethal weapons should also be covered in policy statements

465
Q

Security Officer - Contract vs. Proprietary

Contract Security = 3rd party employers of officers

466
Q

Security Officer - Contract vs. Proprietary

Contract Security: Advantages

A
  • Less expensive (most prominent advantage)
  • The pool of replacement workers typically readily available
  • No need for a customer to deal with vacations, sick time, discipline, hiring/termination
  • A wider range of expertise available
  • HIgh turn-over potentially lower quality, sometimes less well-trained, not as loyal
467
Q

Security Officer - Contract vs. Proprietary

Proprietary = Directly-employed officers

A

Factors:

  • More direct control of personnel selection, screening, training, supervision
  • Generally considered more loyal, less turn-over, better quality
  • more expensive
  • Must deal with discipline, salary determinations, vacations, sick time, etc…
468
Q

Security Officer - Contract vs. Proprietary

Direct-employed officers oversee contract officers; also called the “principal-agent” relationship

A

Hybrid Security

469
Q

Security Officer - Contract vs. Proprietary

Turnover costs

A

Due to advertising, interview time, background checks, hiring new employees processing and training - generally run >=25% annual salary

470
Q

Security Officer - Reports

From the first day on the job, security personnel should realize their observations, reports, or findings, coupled with their demeanor and their ability to articulate events, may be the key to the verdict in a trial immediately or years after an event, even if they have left the job

471
Q

Security Officer - Reports

Every security incident should be treated as if could result in a courtroom appearance

472
Q

Security Officer - Reports

Security reports and logs are admissible in legal proceedings as entries made in the regular course of business and are therefore exceptions to the evidentiary rule against hearsay

473
Q

Security Officer - Reports

The admissibility is pertinent in litigation, arbitration, or administrative matters in which the entry is the only evidence of the event. To qualify, the report or log must

A
  1. Be regularly maintained
  2. Be maintained by a person as part of his or her regular duties
  3. Record an event of which the recorder had personal knowledge or which was reported to the recorder by one who had personal knowledge and a duty to report
474
Q

Security Officer - Reports

Which forms are better than those that expect the officer to formulate a narrative?

A

Report forms that force positive statements

475
Q

Security Officer - Reports

Which report is the security log?

A

Central report document

476
Q

Security Officer - Reports

Whether manual or electronic in format, security logs generally fall into two classes:

A

Main or control log

Individual past log

477
Q

Security Officer - Policy & Procedure

Written instructions must be reinforced through personal communication

478
Q

Security Officer - Policy & Procedure

What are the most important written instructions for the security force?

A

Post Orders

479
Q

Security Officer - Policy & Procedure

Post orders are also important for the following reasons:

A
  1. Express the policies of the protected enterprise
  2. Summarize required officer duties
  3. Avoid the problems of word-of-mouth instructions
  4. Provide a basis for site-specific training
480
Q

Security Officer - Policy & Procedure

Post orders should be developed with the following criteria in mind

A
  • Each order deals with a single subject
  • Each order is as brief as possible
  • Each order is written in simple, easy-to-understand terms
481
Q

Security Officer - Policy & Procedure

Reading time is inversely related to reading comprehension - the longer it takes to read a passage, the less likely it will be accurately understood or remembered

A

Reading time is a function of both the structure of the passage and the reading skill of the individual

482
Q

Security Officer - Policy & Procedure

Post orders should be available at each guard post and kept current and accessible. They are the vital link between the requirements of the client and the ability of the security officer to effectively meet those requirements

483
Q

Security Officers - Fatigue

Individuals awake for more than 17 hours are likely to reach dangerous levels of mental fatigue

484
Q

Security Officer - Fatigue

The most effective way to maintain officer vigilance is to systemically rotate the security officer’s duties, at 2 & 4 hour intervals, between fixed posts and roving patrol (both foot and mobile) assignments

485
Q

Security Officer - Fatigue

Officers’ schedules should allow for meaningful rest, including at least two nights of unrestricted sleep between shift changes, and limitations on days worked consecutively and hours worked per shift

486
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for security services

The first step in contracting for security officers is…

A

To determine the organization’s contracting rules,

487
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for security services

Other steps in contracting for security officers

A
  • Buyer beware
  • Properly evaluate the needs of the organization to be protected
  • Acquire information and know the state of the art
  • Analyze the advantages and disadvantages of each service
  • Avoid panic decision making
488
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for security services

Three criteria to consider when choosing a guard contractor

A
  1. Consistent performance
  2. Prompt, efficient and positive response to client concerns
  3. Competitive pricing
489
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for security services

Clients should look for agencies that can substantiate a…?

A

Lower-than-average turnover rate

490
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for security services

Factors affecting guard agency performance

A
  • Poor scheduling
  • Lack of adequate supervision
  • Limited opportunities for advancement
  • Little or no recognition
491
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for security services

The most important aspect required to ensure adequate guard agency performance is

A

a genuine commitment to partnership with the client

492
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for Security Services

The more specific and detailed the information a client provides, the greater the likelihood of getting quality service at a competitive price

493
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for Security Services

The Scope Of Work (SOW) should state

A
  1. Security tasks
  2. Days and hours of performance
  3. Total number of hours to be worked
494
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for Security Services

Customers should specify hourly pay rates rather than allowing bidding guard agencies to do so

A

As a general guideline, the lowest wages received by the contract security officer should at least equal the entry wages paid to the proprietary positions

495
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for Security Services

Supervisory roles are generally determined by the number of personnel at the site (or total hours)

A

If officers work more than 400 hours per week, the contracting organization should hire its own (proprietary) security supervisor

496
Q

Security Officer - Contracting for Security Services

Seven measures on which contract security companies can be assessed (at minimum)

A
  1. Employment and reference checks
  2. Psychological testing (where allowed)
  3. Polygraph testing (where allowed)
  4. Minimum qualifications at the local jurisdiction level
  5. Management qualifications
  6. Selection process for officers
  7. Turn-over / tenure / seniority
497
Q

High Rise Security Issues

Generally, a high-rise structure extends higher than the maximum reach of available fire-fighting equipment

A

Set variously between 75 and 100 feet, or approximately 7 - 10 stories

498
Q

High Rise - Concepts

Access is typically unrestricted at the building entry level as well as to individual floors. There may be an unrestrictive security or concierge desk to assist visitors and others

A

Open Buildings

499
Q

High Rise - Concepts

Access to elevator banks is controlled and visitors are managed

A

Closed Buildings

500
Q

High Rise - Concepts

For a major tenant, one or more elevator banks may be controlled while other elevator banks to other floors are open

A

Hybrid Buildings

501
Q

High Rise - Concepts

Operations controls vary according to time of day, traffic, occupancy level, or day of week

A

Multi-Mode

502
Q

High Rise - Access Control

Three access control classes of space in a high rise

A

Public Access

Leased Spaces

Maintenance Spaces

503
Q

High Rise - Access Control

Sensitive spaces should be grouped together in the same group of floors serviced by a single set of elevators, allowing more control over access

504
Q

High Rise - Access Control

Floor control can be accomplished in several ways in a high rise

A
  1. Programmable elevators
  2. Elevator cabs with card readers
  3. Escorts for visitors
  4. Employee awareness of piggybacking and tailgating
  5. Turnstiles at the ground floor elevator bank
  6. Controlled elevator landings (with or without reception)
505
Q

High Rise - Access Control

What two factors control how building stairwells are secured?

A
  1. Local fire and building code requirements
  2. Whether inter-floor movement of building occupants via stairwells is allowed
506
Q

High Rise - Access Control

Service or freight elevators pose special problems in all high-rise structures because they often serve all levels of a building

507
Q

High Rise - Access Control

If the elevators are self-service, the entire building security program may be compromised unless the service cars are:

A
  • programmed not to access sensitive floors without special arrangments
  • Locked at hoist away doors on sensitive floors
  • Locked at service vestibule or lobby doors, where applicable
508
Q

High Rise - Access Control

Service elevators also offer an opportunity for unauthorized movement of property from or between accessible floors, which can be addressed by:

A
  • Assigning an operator to the service elevators
  • Making service elevators available only from a request to security
  • Avoiding use of service elevators by regular traffic
509
Q

High Rise - Access Control

If the use of stairwells is allowed, they should have access controls and intercoms connected to Security

510
Q

High Rise - Access Control

High-tower-function mortise locks

A
  • Energized and locked at all times
  • Access control is accomplished by a key or reader
  • Power is controlled by the fire system: doors immediately unlock yet remain closed and latched, protecting the stairwell from smoke and fire
511
Q

High Rise - Life Safety

The first step in assuring life safety is to comply with local building and fire codes applicable to the structure

512
Q

High Rise - Life Safety

When sprinkler are present, the chances of dying in a fire and property loss per fire are cut by 1/3 to 2/3, compared to fires reported to fire departments where sprinklers are not present

513
Q

High Rise - Life Safety

When sprinklers do not produce satisfactory results, the reasons usually involve one or more of the following

A
  1. Partial, antiquated, poorly maintained, or inappropriate systems
  2. Explosions or flash fires that overpower the system before it can react
  3. Fires very close to people who can be killed before a system can react
514
Q

High Rise - Life Safety

Standpipe systems can significantly improve the efficiency of manual firefighting operations by eliminating the need for long and cumbersome hoses

515
Q

High Rise - Life Safety

Water is the primary extinguishing agent in most high-rises, but others may be…

A
  • Dry chemical and we chemical systems (used mainly for restaurant hoods, ducts, and cooking appliances found in kitchens and cafeterias
  • Carbon dioxide, Halon replacement systems (used in electrical switchgear rooms and in computer and data processing installations
516
Q

High Rise - Life Safety

The most significant factors affecting life safety in high-rise structures are:

A
  • Early detection and precise location of incipient hazards
  • Reliable communications throughout the structure and with outside agencies
  • Assurance of safe escape routes
  • Prompt application of appropriate control measures
  • Fire extinguishment
517
Q

High Rise - Life Safety

Fire-fighting factors in high-rise structures ctd…

A
  • Containment or replacement of contaminated air
  • Shutoff or filtration of drinking water
  • Containment and removal of explosives
518
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

The “layered security” approach applies to normal facilities is:

A
  • Outer ring: Property boundary, or perimeter
  • Middle ring: Building walls
  • Inner ring: Interior controls
519
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

Layered Security for a high-rise

A
  • Outer ring: Building walls
  • Middle ring: Access to elevators and stairs
  • Inner ring: Individual floors
520
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

Protection measures in a high rise should involve a cooperative effort between the building owner and manager and the tenants themselves

521
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

Hardening and controlling the elevator lobby and stairwell doors are less expensive than hardening individual offices or spaces

522
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

No attempt should be made to use the system control center in any way other than as a dedicated facility

523
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

If the system has been properly designed, ideally the monitoring and control station should be the most secure location in the structure

524
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

Intrusion alarms should be used on stairwell doors where non-emergency use is not allowed

525
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

Fresh air intakes should not be overlooked in the protection plan, as these are vulnerable to airborne contaminants

526
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

The most dangerous or critical points for an attack against telecommunications lines in a high rise are located at points after all the building services are connected with one or two main truck cables still int he structures

527
Q

High Rise - Security & Intrusion Detection

Since communications within a high rise can be cut to upper floors by severing the cables in a common riser areas alarm signal and communication systems should be distributed so that localized points can operate independently even with communications with a central control panel or processor has been disrupted

528
Q

High Rise - Video Surveillance

The number of security personnel in a high rise depends on the type of occupancy and activities

529
Q

Dogs in Security - Breeds

There are 150 breeds of dogs classified into eight classes:

A
  1. Sporting
  2. Hound
  3. Working
  4. Terrier
  5. toy
  6. Non-sporting
  7. Herding
  8. Miscellaneous
530
Q

Dogs in Security - Breeds

Security typically uses working and herding dogs

A

What matters most is the overall drive of the individual dog once it has been trained for security work

531
Q

Dogs in Security - Breeds

Dogs in the Herding group share a great ability to control the movement of other animals

532
Q

Dogs in Security - Qualifications

Dogs fall into one of three main sensitivity groups

A
  1. Oversensitive (reacts excessively, difficult to train, unreliable, may have to do with the dog’s history
  2. Undersensitive (difficult to motivate, may not respond to commands, may not interpret affection as a reward)
  3. Moderately sensitive (normal sensitivity to sound and touch, responds to commands, ideal for protection work
533
Q

Dogs in Security - Qualifications

Aggressiveness categories

A

Over-aggressive

Under-aggressive

Moderately- aggressive

534
Q

Aggressiveness Categories

difficult to train, may bit others than the aggressor, continues to react after aggressor is gon

A

Over-aggressive

535
Q

Aggressiveness Categories

Cowers or hides when approached by an aggressor, difficult or impossible to train

A

Under-Aggressive

536
Q

Aggressiveness Categories

Easiest to train, ideal for protection use, become alert to the aggressor, suspicious, and is eager to move towards the aggressor

A

Moderately aggressive

537
Q

Dog - Qualifications

Willingness refers to a dog’s

A
  • Response to commands
  • Attitude when carrying out duties
  • Reaction toward learning new duties
538
Q

Dogs - Qualifications

A dog is ranked high in willingness if it continuously responds to a given command in an effort to fulfill it, even though reward or correction cannot be easily perceived as being immediate

539
Q

Dogs - Qualifications

To qualify for protection work, a dog should

A
  • Be ‘middle-sized’
  • Have even temperament
  • Be inquisitive and intelligent
  • Be courageous (bold but not ferocious, not shy); never retreat
  • Have ‘hardness’, or a willingness to overcome challenges
  • Have vitality and strength
  • Be any color
540
Q

Dogs - Qualifications

Qualify for protection…

A
  • Respond well to training at about twelve months of age
  • Usually be male (not monorchid); females if spayed
  • Not necessarily be purebred, but not be a shelter dog
  • Not have been with the breeder for more than 12 months
541
Q

Dogs - Qualifications

In security, what are a dog’s most important senses?

A

Smell

Hearing

542
Q

Dogs - Qualifications

During which stage of training must a dog be taught to rely on smell instead of sight, especially when teaching building searches?

A

Imprinting Stage

543
Q

Dogs - Qualifications

A dog’s ability to detect scents is often described as…

A

Being more than 100 times greater than that of humans

A trained dog can sense an intruder’s airborne scent more than 250 yards away

544
Q

Dogs - Qualifications

A dog’s hearing is superior to humans’ in range and pitch

A

the upper-frequency limit of the dog is about twice that of human beings, reaching 30,000 Hz or more.

In general, a dog’s vision cannot be compared favorably with that of the normal human

545
Q

Dogs - Training

Dogs are more intelligent than most other animals, except humans and non-human primates

A

A vocabulary of about 20 words is normal, but some can respond to 100

546
Q

Dogs - Training

Two basic drives are prevalent in dogs used for security tasks

A
  1. The hunt drive
  2. The pack drive
547
Q

Dogs - Training

Hunt Drive

A
  • Must be present to accomplish both detection and protection work
  • Through training, the drive can be channeled to help the dog pursue and locate other items, such as drugs or lost children
  • Due to their natural predator ability, dogs can be trained to attack humans without regard to their own safety
548
Q

Dogs - Training

Pack Drive

A
  • When domesticated, the dog adopts humans as pack members and defends the pack as well as the territory the pack occupies
549
Q

Dogs - Training

The optimal canine is one with equal HUNT and pack drives

550
Q

Dogs - Training

More than any reward, the dog wants the approval of it handler - probably because of the pack instinct

551
Q

Dogs - Training

Most common training methods (not every dog responds to the same method)

A
  1. Positive reinforcement (praise) tailored to the dog’s specific predominant drives
  2. Compulsion (negative corrections) through the handler’s voice or with equipment such as a shock collar
  3. Inducement (balls, toys, companionship, or food)
552
Q

Dogs - Training

A dog should never be corrected for clumsiness, slowness in learning, or because of an inability to understand what is expected

553
Q

Dogs - Training

Attributing human characteristics to animals

A

Anthropomorphism

554
Q

Dogs - Training

Because of the restrictions on time and effort needed to keep skills at the optimal level, generally a dog should be trained specifically for protection or detection, not both

555
Q

Dogs - Training

Two reasons why a single dog is generally not trained to detect both drugs and explosives

A
  1. The possibility of confusing the dog in an actual search
  2. the need for an aggressive search method when searching for drugs, and a passive on for bombs and explosives
556
Q

Dogs - Training

A detection dog must have continuous, daily training to maintain peak proficiency - perhaps two hours per day

557
Q

Dogs - Training

Basic training for detection work runs six to eight weeks, plus one or two weeks more to train a detection team

558
Q

Dogs - Qualifications

It takes about nine months to a year before a handler and a dog become highly effective together in pursuing the more difficult detection challenges

559
Q

Dogs - Training

A dog taught with a handler knows to attack without command only when a violator escapes or attacks the handler

560
Q

Dogs - Training

Escorting handler is 10 ft. behind and 2 ft. right of the violator; the dog is off-leash to the left, directly behind the violator

561
Q

Dogs - Training

The dog used in the private sector should be given brief refresher training at least monthly

562
Q

Dogs - Detection

Dogs are the most efficient method for…?

A

Detecting drugs, explosives and accelerants in most situations

563
Q

Dogs - Detection

What percentage does the detection reliability of a well-trained dog exceed?

564
Q

Dogs - Detection

Detection is demanding and often boring for the dog because of long work periods without detecting a scent

A
  • A detection dog can normally work effectively for 20 - 60 minutes
  • If a search continues for a long time, the dog may become tired and lose interest
  • If the dog loses interest and the handler cannot motivate it to continue, it must be given a break
  • Noise and activity in an area may distract the dog
565
Q

Dogs - Detection

A single dog can be trained to patrol, protect areas, and detect substances, but usually, substance detection becomes a specialty because of the necessary training time

566
Q

Dogs - Detection

Dogs can search…

A
  • A 50 yard corridor of lockers in about 2 minutes
  • A vehicle in about 1.5 minutes
  • 125 packages in about 7 minutes
  • 50 boxes in about 3 minutes
567
Q

Dogs - Detection

Typical scent-masking substances for drugs

A

Perfume

Gasoline

Formaldehyde

568
Q

Dogs - Detection

Typical false-alerts for drugs

A
  • Oregano
  • Alfalfa
  • Parsley
  • Spices
  • Any substance containing acetic acid can cause a false-alert for heroin
569
Q

Dogs - Detection

The average drug dog will detect the presence of a 1.2-ounce (14g) of marijuana or a small amount of opium in a vehicle, a package, luggage, or a room of reasonable size

570
Q

Dogs - Detection (Accelerants)

Dogs have been used to detect accelerants since…

571
Q

Dogs - Detection (Accelerants)

Its ability to discriminate between pyrolysis products (fire debris) normally found at a fire and pyrolysis products containing an ignitable liquid

A

The value of the dog

572
Q

Dogs - Detection (Accelerants)

Which breed are especially adept at this type of detection

A

Labrador Retrievers

573
Q

Dogs - Detection (Accelerants)

How accurate can the dog be?

A

95% Accurate

574
Q

Dogs - Detection (Accelerants)

With what percent of evaporated gasoline is training accomplished?

575
Q

Dogs - Detection (Accelerants)

Dogs can also be used to detect accelerant scents from onlookers, in an effort to identify the arsonist who has remained behind

576
Q

Dogs - Detection (Accelerants)

Dogs significantly reduce the time required to perform a fire investigation

577
Q

Dogs - Detection (Explosives)

Explosives that can be detected by dogs…

A

Commercial dynamite (gelatin, TNT - trinitrotoluene)

Smokeless powder

C-4 plastic explosive

Black powder (powder form, time fuse, safety fuse) and black powder substitutes

Detonating cord (PETN polyerythrytoltetranitrate-based

Detonating cord containing RDX (cyclotrimethylene trinitramine)

578
Q

Dogs - Detection (Explosives)

Explosives that can be detected by dogs…ctd

A

Binaries (such as Kinepak)

Blasting agents

Cast boosters

Composition - B

Emulsions and slurries

Water gels

Plastic explosives (semtex)

Tetryl

Improvised explosive (ANFO ammonium nitrate and fuel oil, chlorates, nitrates

579
Q

Dogs - Training (Explosives)

Items that can cause false alerts in detection dogs (for explosives)

A
  • Nitroglycerin pills or containers
  • Back of television (nitrocellulose shellac)
  • Blackboard chalk labels (nitrocellulose shellac)
  • Grease pencils (nitrobenzene)
  • Shoe polish (nitrobenzene or nitrotoluene)
  • Pure glycerin (similar to nitroglycerin)
  • Maraschino cherries (benzaldehyde)
580
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Protection dogs are usually not specifically trained in tracking

581
Q

Dogs - Tracking

A dog can track better in grass and brush because human scent adheres well to those surfaces

582
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Human scent remains longer on cool, moist ground and dissipates rapidly in direct sunlight, on extremely dry ground, and in excessive rain

583
Q

Dogs - Tracking

What can hold a scent for 12 hours in favorable weather?

584
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Scents in what conditions last up to 24 hours (less than 3 hours for the opposite)

A

vegetation and moist air, moderate winds, and no sun

585
Q

Dogs - Tracking

What is the best time of day to track a scent?

A

Early mornings - higher temperatures reduce scents faster

586
Q

Dogs - Tracking

What improves scents

587
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Scent cannot pass through what?

A

Trees, bushes, large rocks, and high grass

Must go over, under, or around them

588
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Perspiration is the most distinctive scent in humans

A
  • Individuals who have been drinking emit a different scent that disagrees with the dogs
  • Much perspiration is generated by feet; the scent escapes through shoes and clothing (the majority of scent trails are let by feet)
589
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Tracking dogs can also smell the difference in the turned-up ground and crushed plants

590
Q

Dogs - Tracking

A trained dog in a boat can scent a person under the water and breathing through a tube

591
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Dogs with flat noses, such as the mastiff, boxer, and bulldog, are generally not as well suited for tracking

592
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Housedogs do not make optimal tracking dogs; their smell is diminished by the artificial environment

593
Q

Dogs - Tracking

Training a dog for tracking and trailing takes about two years and can usually be done only by an expert

594
Q

Dogs - Feeding

A dog requires how many nutrients to remain in good health?

595
Q

Dogs - Feeding

Dogs should be fed once per day, no longer than 20 - 30 minutes

596
Q

Dogs - Grooming

The area on the outer side of the dog’s elbows that is hairless and thick-skinned, usually about an inch in diameter

597
Q

Dogs - Healthcare

Normal dog temperature range is?

A

101 - 102 degrees Fahrenheit​

598
Q

Dogs - Liability

Dogs can be viewed as weapons, and as such, can result in criminal liability if caused to attack without justification

599
Q

Dogs - Liability

Dogs can cause civil liability by…

A
  • Threatening a person
  • Attacking a person
  • Causing an accident that causes damages or injury
600
Q

Dogs - Liability

Civil liability may arise when the dog is on or off duty

601
Q

Dogs - Liability

A dog can be considered dangerous or vicious if the owner or controller knew or should have known of the dog’s vicious propensities

602
Q

Dogs - Liability

A dog can be used to detain a trespasser in a similar manner as the property owner could

603
Q

What are the 3 points of the Security Triangle? /_\

A

DeterDelayRespond

604
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Security Plan?

A

1) Information2) Physical3) Personnel

605
Q

What is the most important of the 3 parts of the Security plan?

A

Personnel Security

606
Q

Risk Assessment based on Loss Event Profile - security problem evaluated in what 3 quantitative terms?

A

1) types of risks2) probability of those risks becoming actual losses3) criticality of how the loss impact is measured (in assets & income)

607
Q

What are the 5 “D”s of the Physical security concepts?

A

1) Deter2) Deny3) Detect4) Delay5) Destroy

608
Q

What the hell do they mean by “Destroy” as a security concept?

609
Q

What’s it called when you place progressively more difficult barriers/obstacles as lines of defense?

A

Protection in depth

610
Q

What are the 3 types of security zones?

A

1) Restricted2) Controlled3) Unrestricted

611
Q

What is a security cost-benefit analysis?

A

Costs of security operations vs savings / reductions

612
Q

When is it OK to recommend non-cost effective security measures?

613
Q

There are 9 elements of security system design criteria. Which one is most important?

614
Q

What does a perimeter barrier do?

A

Prevents / impedes an aggressor from crossing a perimeter boundary

615
Q

What are the 5 types of physical barriers?

A

1) Natural2) Structural3) Human4) Animal5) Energy

616
Q

Example of natural barriers

A

Rivers, creeks, cliffs

617
Q

Example of structural barriers

A

berms, walls, doors, locks, glazing materials, plantings, ditches

618
Q

Example of human barriers

A

Security officers, receptionists

619
Q

Example of energy barriers

A

Intrusion detection and lighting

620
Q

What are the 4 types of fencing?

A

1) chain link2) concertina3) barbed wire4) barbed tape

621
Q

What’s the most popular type of fence?

A

Chain link

622
Q

How high should chain link fence be?

A

7 feet + 1 foot for top guard

623
Q

What gauge wire should chain link fence use?

624
Q

How big are the squares in chain link fences?

625
Q

How far apart should the posts be in a chain link fence?

626
Q

What do you make chain link fences out of when near the sea?

627
Q

Where should chain link fences have twisted and barbed salvage?

A

At the top and bottom

628
Q

What should a chain link fence be fastened to?

A

Rigid metal or reinforced posts set in concrete

629
Q

Where should the bottom of a chain link fence fall?

A

Within 2 inches of hard ground

630
Q

Why should the bottom of a chain link fence fall below the surface of the ground?

A

To compensate for shifting soil or sand

631
Q

How high should standard barbed wire fencing be?

A

7 feet high

632
Q

How far apart should the strands be between standard barbed wire?

633
Q

Standard barbed wire is what gauge?

A

Twisted 12 gauge

634
Q

Standard barbed wire uses how many point barbs?

635
Q

Top-guard supporting arms do what?

A

Are permanently affixed, and increase height of fence by 1 foot

636
Q

Windows need to be protected if they are over what size?

A

96 sq inches

637
Q

Windows need to be protected if they are what height from the ground?

A

Less than 18 feet from the ground

638
Q

Windows need to be protected if they are how close to trees?

A

Less than 14 feet from trees

639
Q

Interior manhole covers need to be protected if they are how large?

A

More than 10 inches in diameter

640
Q

What is the weakest area of a window?

641
Q

Installation of transparent or translucent glass or plastic

A

Window glazing

642
Q

Glass type: sheet, plate, float - breaks into large pieces

A

Annealed or plate glass

643
Q

Glass type: Street-level windows or displays; intervening layer of plastic material. High shatter resistant. Needs secured frame.

A

Laminated glass

644
Q

What type of glass is preferred for blast mitigation?

A

Laminated glass

645
Q

What type of glass is the most commonly used?

A

Laminated glass

646
Q

Glass type: safety and security 3-5 times stronger, and 5 times as heat resistant. Breaks into small pieces

A

Tempered glass

647
Q

What are the purposes of protective lighting?

A

PsychologicalObject illuminationPhysical deterrent

648
Q

What are the keys to using protective lighting?

A

Reduce manpowerProtection of officersRelieves officers for other duties

649
Q

What are the 4 types of outdoor security lighting?

A

1) Continuous2) Standby3) Movable4) Emergency

650
Q

What are lumens?

A

Light output

651
Q

Intensity of light falling on a surface measured in foot-candles

652
Q

Measures how bright the light is when it reaches 1 foot from the source

A

Foot candles

653
Q

What is the illumination of piers, docks, and open decks (water approach)?

A

1 foot candle

654
Q

What is the minimum lighting for the perimeter of restricted areas?

A

0.40 foot candles

655
Q

Human eye and a lens see an object when light reflected from that object

A

Reflectance

656
Q

Ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the color seen in an object

A

Color Rendition Index (CRI)

657
Q

Measure of warmth or coolness of a light

A

Corrected Color Temperature (CCT)

658
Q

What kind of lamp is accurate as to CRI, used outdoors, and complement CCTV systems?

A

Metal halide

659
Q

What is the optimum place for perimeter fence lighting?

A

Located within the protected area, and above the fence

660
Q

What are the 6 types of lighting systems?

A

1) Continous2) Glare method3) Controlled4) Standby5) Portable6) Emergency lighting

661
Q

Lighting system: a series of lights to maintain uniform lighting during hours of darkness

A

Continuous

662
Q

Lighting system: light glares into the eye of a potential intruder

A

Glare method

663
Q

Lighting system: Illuminates a limited space (ie fence line or road)

A

Controlled

664
Q

Lighting system: Lit when required, standby lighting (auto or manual)

665
Q

Lighting system: Manually operated search lights (eg flashlights)

666
Q

Lighting system: Duplicate any others, limited to power failures, and depend on alternative power.

A

Emergency lighting

667
Q

According to the NFPA, when should emergency lighting illuminate?

A

Within 10 seconds of a power failure

668
Q

What should the illumination of a loading bay be?

A

15 foot candles

669
Q

What type of wall is most resistant to explosion blast?

A

Reinforced concrete

670
Q

Access control is designed to permit:

A

only authorized persons and vehicles

671
Q

Access control is designed to detect and prevent entry of:

A

contraband

672
Q

Access control is designed to detect and prevent the unauthorized removal of:

A

valuable assets

673
Q

Access control provides information to:

A

facilitate assessment and response

674
Q

What are the 3 types of access control?

A

1) Guards2) Card readers3) Biometric readers

675
Q

What is the most common type of card reader?

676
Q

What is the most commonly used coded card technology?

A

Magnetic stripe

677
Q

What are the 3 basic parts to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

A

1) Alarm sensor2) Communications path3) Annunciator or sound device

678
Q

What are the 5 purposes of an IDS?

A

1) Economize2) Substitute3) Supplement4) Deter-Detect-Delay5) Respond

679
Q

What is a microwave system based on?

A

the Doppler effect

680
Q

Motion detector not impacted by air turbulence

A

Microwave system

681
Q

Motion detector that penetrates non-metal

A

Microwave system

682
Q

What is the most widely used motion detector?

A

Infrared (active and passive (PIR))

683
Q

What is the best motion detector for a room with outside noise?

A

Ultrasonic

684
Q

Ultrasonic must be kept how far away from air ducts?

A

At least 10 feet

685
Q

What is the best alarm to put on a safe?

A

Capacitance device

686
Q

What 3 elements make up the fire triangle?

A

/_\ 1) Heat2) Fuel3) Oxygen

687
Q

Once heat, fuel and oxygen occur, this chemical reaction occurs:

688
Q

Fire device: photoelectric

A

smoke detector

689
Q

Fire device: blocks beam or enters refraction chamber and reflects light into photo cell

A

Smoke detector

690
Q

Fire device: sensitive to invisible products of combustion

A

Ionization

691
Q

Fire device: noted for early warning

A

Ionization

692
Q

Fire device: When temperature reaches certain set temperature or rises too quickly

A

Thermal detector

693
Q

Fire device: Detects flames and glowing embers that are infrared and unseen by the human eye

A

Flame detector

694
Q

Class of fire: Paper, trash, wood, fiber

695
Q

Class of fire: Gasoline, oil, cleaning solvents

696
Q

Class of fire: electrical circuits such as generators, motors, fuse boxes

697
Q

Class of fire: combustible metals such as sodium, magnesium, potassium

698
Q

Class of fire: Combustible cooking fuels (vegetable or animal oils/fats)

699
Q

Used to extinguish Class A

A

water/water fog or chemical type

700
Q

Used to extinguish Class B

A

CO2 or water fog or dry chemical type

701
Q

Used to extinguish Class C

A

CO2 and dry chemical type

702
Q

Used to extinguish Class D

A

Dry powder which smothers and coats

703
Q

Used to extinguish Class K

A

Wet chemicals, water based solutions of potassium carbonate, acetate, or citrate

704
Q

Wire commincation: what is the enunciator?

A

Alarm signal board

705
Q

How does optical fiber work?

A

Modulated light beams

706
Q

What is multiplexing?

A

Transmission of several simultaneous messages on the same medium

707
Q

What is Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)?

A

Events occur in a prescribed time sequence one at a time, shorter distance

708
Q

What is Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)?

A

Simultaneous, multi-channel, longer distance

709
Q

the amount of light on lens (critical to lighting choices)

A

Illuminance

710
Q

What is the rule of thumb for officers watching monitors?

A

Less than 10 monitorsLess than 2 hoursto reduce fatigue

711
Q

Temperature at which paper may be destroyed

A

350 degreesF

712
Q

Electronic process media can begin to deteriorate at:

A

150 degrees F

713
Q

Interior height of a vault should not exceed:

714
Q

The sensor which is used when air turbulence is present in the protected room and when there are no potential false alarm sources outside the room and in the field of the detector:

A

Acoustic detector

715
Q

The sensor which is used when light air turbulence, vibration and motion outside the room are present:

A

Acoustic detector

716
Q

The sound wave sensor

A

Ultrasonic sensor

717
Q

This type of sensor is not influenced by exterior noise; reacts only to movement within a protected area; can be adjusted so the movement of air caused by fire will activate an alarm

A

Ultrasonic

718
Q

What are the 2 major types of protective barriers?

A

1) Structural2) Natural

719
Q

What are the 3 basic purposes of barriers?

A

1) Deter / delay2) Psychological deterrent3) Supplement/complement security personnel needs

720
Q

What should positive barriers be established for?1)2)3)

A

1) Controlling car/foot traffic flow2) Checking ID of personnel entering/leaving3) Defining a buffer zone for more highly classified areas

721
Q

When the greatest degree of security is essential, what should be installed on the perimeter?

A

Two lines of structural barriers

722
Q

Two lines of structural barriers should be separated by not less than ________ feet and no more than __________ feet for best protection and control.

A

15 feet150 feet

723
Q

Four types of fencing authorized for use in protecting restricted areas are?

A

1) Chain link2) Barbed wire3) Concertina4) Barbed tape

724
Q

Chain link fences must be how high, excluding top guard?

725
Q

Chain link fences must be what gauge or heavier?

726
Q

Chain link fences must have what size mesh openings?

A

2 inches per side or smaller

727
Q

Chain link fences should have what at the top and bottom?

A

Twisted and barbed salvage

728
Q

How must chain link fences be fastened?

A

To rigid metal or reinforced concrete posts set in concrete

729
Q

On hard ground or paving, chain link fences must come how close to the ground?

A

Within 2 inches

730
Q

On soft ground, chain link fences must reach below the surface deep enough to what?

A

Compensate for shifting soil or sand

731
Q

Standard barbed wire is what kind of strand and what gauge?

A

Twisted, double strand, 12 gauge

732
Q

How many points on barbs on barbed wire fences?

733
Q

Barbs on barbed wire fences should be spaced how?

A

Equally apart

734
Q

Barbed wire fencing should be at least how high, excluding top guard?

735
Q

Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed to posts not more than how many feet apart?

736
Q

On barbed wire fencing, the distance between strands will not exceed how many inches?

737
Q

On barbed wire fencing, one wire will be interlaced how?

A

Vertically and midway between posts

738
Q

Commercially manufactured wire coil of high-strength steel barbed wire clipped together at intervals to form a cylinder is called:

A

concertina barbed wire

739
Q

Opened concertina wire is ____ feet long and ____ feet in diamater

740
Q

The barbed tape system is composed of 3 things:

A

1) Barbed wire2) Barbed tape dispenser3) Concertina tape

741
Q

Barbed tape is fabricated from a steel strip with a minimum breaking system of how many pounds?

742
Q

The overall width of barbed tape is what?

A

3/4 of an inch

743
Q

Barbed tape has _______ barbs spaced at ______ intervals along each side

A

7/16 inch barbs1/2 inch intervals

744
Q

A top guard is an overhang made of what?

A

Barbed wire or barbed tape

745
Q

A top guard faces in what direction?

A

outward and upward

746
Q

What angle is a top guard positioned at?

A

45 degrees

747
Q

How are the top guard’s supporting arms attached?

A

Permanently affixed to the top of fence posts

748
Q

How much do top guards increase the height of a fence?

A

By at least 1 foot

749
Q

What must be installed on the supporting arms of a top guard?

A

3 strands of barbed wire, spaced 6 inches apart

750
Q

Manhole covers must be secured when they are how large?

A

10 inches or more in diameter

751
Q

Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts, and other openings having a cross-sectional area of what size must be protected by securely fastened welded bar grills?

752
Q

A clear zone should exist between the perimeter barrier and where?

A

Exterior structures, parking areas, and natural or manmade features

753
Q

How big should the clear zone be between the perimeter barrier and exterior structures / parking areas?

A

20 feet or more

754
Q

A clear zone of 50 feet or more should exist between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected areas except when?

A

When a building wall constitutes part of the perimeter barrier

755
Q

It is practically impossible to build a protective barrier that cannot be penetrated by what?

A

a human or heavy armor

756
Q

What are the 3 main lines of defense for physical security?

A

1) Perimeter barriers2) Exterior walls, ceilings, roofs, and floors of buildings3) Interior areas within the building

757
Q

What is the first line of defense for physical security?

A

Perimeter barriers

758
Q

Where are perimeter barriers located?

A

At the outer edge of the property

759
Q

What is the second line of defense for physical security?

A

Exterior walls, ceilings, roofs, and floors of the buildings themselves

760
Q

What is the most frequently used fencing for security purposes?

A

Chain link fencing

761
Q

What is a major advantage of chain link security fencing?

A

Visibility on both sides of the perimeter barrier to police and security officer

762
Q

What is a major disadvantage of chain-link fencing?

A

It creates an “institution-like atmosphere”.

763
Q

All nuts and bolts holding hardware attachments on a chain link fence should be:

764
Q

The gate in a security perimeter barrier should be how high?

A

As high as the adjoining barrier (fence)

765
Q

How may a top guard on a gate be different than a top guard on a fence?

A

It may be vertical

766
Q

How frequently should you have signs along the perimeter stating that the property is not open to the public and intruders will be prosecuted?

A

Not more than 100 ft intervals

767
Q

If possible, ________________ should be locked from the inside.

A

All doors except one

768
Q

The door not locked from the inside should be where?

A

On a well-lighted, police-patrolled street

769
Q

The door not locked from the inside should be used by whom?

A

All employees coming and leaving work

770
Q

Fire exit doors, required by building codes, are ___________ for security but _______ for safety.

A

Undesirable for securitynecessary for safety

771
Q

How are fire exit doors openable?

A

By pushing against a panic bar on the inside.

772
Q

Security of a fire exit door is enhanced by the use of what?

A

audible alarms

773
Q

Unusually long warehouse doors should be secured how?

A

Padlocked on the inside at both ends

774
Q

What are 2 ways door hinge pins exposed to the outside can protected?

A

1) By spot welding2) By inserting a headless machine screw in a pre-drilled hole through a leaf of the hinge

775
Q

What kinds of doors are a definite security risk?

A

Hollow core

776
Q

Intruders probably won’t use a window how high from the ground?

A

18 feet or higher

777
Q

Windows should be secured if they are how far from trees?

778
Q

Windows should be secured if they are how far from adjoining buildings?

779
Q

Windows should be secured if they are how large?

A

96 square inches

780
Q

Windows should be secured if they are how far from the ground?

781
Q

What are 4 protective coverings for windows?

A

1) Burglary-resistant glass2) Protective iron or steel bars3) A good grade of heavy steel mesh4) Chain-link fencing

782
Q

How many break-ins occur through window glass?

783
Q

Who makes the burglary-resistant “safety glass”?

A

Underwriter’s Laboratories

784
Q

Who makes the burglary-resistant plastic glazing called TUFFAK?

A

Rohm and Haas

785
Q

Who makes the burglary-resistant plastic glazing called LEXAN?

A

General Electric

786
Q

Who makes the burglary-resistant acrylic-glazing material sold as Plexiglas?

A

Rohm and Haas

787
Q

Special security problems are created by these 6 conditions which breach the perimeter barrier:

A

1) Sidewalk elevators2) Utility tunnels3) Operational tunnels4) Storm sewers5) Storm doors6) Piers, docks, and wharves

788
Q

The button, magnetic switch, or thermostat that will cause system to alarm

789
Q

This is the monitor. Technically, it is the visual or audible signaling device that indicates conditions of the associated circuits.

A

Annunciator

790
Q

The property of two or more objects which enables them to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field between them.

A

Capacitance

791
Q

Records a change in capacitance or electrostatic fields to detect penetration through windows, ventilators, and other openings

A

Capacitance Proximity Sensor

792
Q

Can be used to detect attempted penetration into safes or storage cabinets

A

Capacitance Proximity Sensor

793
Q

Material which transmits electric current

794
Q

Examples of material which transmits electric current

A

Wire and cable

795
Q

The terminal box for all sensors

A

Control Unit

796
Q

A term applied to a system designed so that if a component fails to function properly, the system will, by a signal or otherwise, indicate its incapacity

797
Q

Used to call for assistance

A

Duress sensor

798
Q

What does a duress sensor consist of?

A

A hand or foot operated switch

799
Q

Activation of sensors for which no cause can be determined

A

False Alarm

800
Q

The combination of components to include sensors, control units, transmission lines and monitor units integrated to operate in a specified manner

A

Intrusion Detection System

801
Q

Devices that initiate alarm signals by sensing the stimulus, change, or condition for which designed

A

Intrusion Detection Sensors

802
Q

An electronic bell for outdoor or indoor use in the vicinity of a protected area

A

Local Audible Alarm

803
Q

A radio/radar frequency (RF) transceiver which detects motion

A

Microwave sensor

804
Q

A microwave sensor has a frequency range of GHz, which is what?

A

a billion cycles per second

805
Q

A device that senses and reports on the condition of the system

806
Q

Detects movement inside the area to be protected

A

Motion Sensor

807
Q

Detects the sounds of forced entry throughout walls, ceilings, and doors

A

Passive Ultrasonic Sensor

808
Q

Detects entry through doors, windows, walls, or any other openings into the protected area

A

Penetration Sensor

809
Q

An interruption of a light beam transmitted to the receiver causes this to alarm:

A

Photoelectric System

810
Q

A photoelectric system consists of what 2 separate units?

A

1) a transmitter2) a receiver

811
Q

The frequency range of sound that is above the capabilities of normal human hearing

A

Ultrasonic

812
Q

In intrusion detection systems, ultrasonic is used in what range?

A

Between 21,500 and 26000 Hz (cycles per second)

813
Q

Detects by frequency shift the motion of an intruder inside the protected area

A

Ultrasonic Motion Sensor

814
Q

Detects forced entry through metal barriers placed over windows and ventilators or attempts to drill, saw, or cut through walls, ceilings, floors or doors

A

Vibration Sensor

815
Q

What are the 3 purposes of intrusion detection alarm systems?

A

1) To economize on people2) To substitute in place of other security measures3) To supplement by providing additional controls

816
Q

What are the 5 basic principles of operation of intrusion detection systems?

A

1) Breaking of an electrical circuit2) Interrupting a light beam3) Detecting sound4) Detecting vibration5) Detecting a change in capacitance due to penetration of an electrostatic field

817
Q

What are the 4 types of electro-mechanical alarm systems?

A

1) Metallic foil2) Magnetic switches3) Wire service detection4) Pressure mats, ribbons, or wafers

818
Q

What are the 6 types of Volumetric alarm systems?

A

1) Capacitance2) Vibration3) Microwave4) Ultrasonic5) Passive Infrared6) Photo Electric

819
Q

Type of alarm system: The protective circuits activate a visual or audible signal in the immediate vicinity of the object of protection

A

Local alarm system

820
Q

Type of alarm system: This system is one in which the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the police and/or fire alarm systems.

A

Auxiliary system

821
Q

What is the least effective alarm detection system?

822
Q

Type of alarm system: In this system, alarms are transmitted to a central station outside the installation from which appropriate action is taken to notifying local police or fire departments

A

Central station system

823
Q

Type of alarm system: It is similar to the central station system except is owned by, and located on, the installation.

A

Proprietary system

824
Q

Which alarm detection system responds to alarms with the installation’s own security or firefighting personnel?

A

Proprietary system

825
Q

What are the 3 basic parts of an alarm system?

A

1) Sensor2) Circuit3) Annunciator

826
Q

What does the sensor do?

A

It’s the triggering device

827
Q

What does the circuit do?

A

Carries the message to the signaling apparatus

828
Q

What does the annunciator do?

A

It is the signaling system or device

829
Q

What are the 4 functions an alarm system could have?

A

1) Detection of fire2) Detection of intrusion3) Emergency notification4) Monitoring of equipment or facility conditions

830
Q

What estimated percentage of all alarms are false?

831
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of false alarms?

A

1) User negligence2) Poor installation or servicing3) Faulty equipment

832
Q

CCTV consists of what 4 elements?

A

1) Television cameras2) Monitor3) Connecting circuits4) Power source

833
Q

Protective lighting is important in what 3 ways?

A

1) Deters violators2) Assists security force3) Essential element of an integrated physical security program

834
Q

Protective lighting is _____________ to maintain

A

Inexpensive

835
Q

Protective lighting will probably reduce the need for what?

A

security forces

836
Q

Protective lighting may provide personal protection for security forces how?

A

By reducing the element of surprise by an intruder

837
Q

Protective lighting requires ______ intensity than working light.

838
Q

When planning protective lighting, you must consider:1)2)3)

A

1) Effects of local weather2) Fluctuating voltages in power source3) Using a ledger to maintain burning time record based on life-expectancy of the lamp

839
Q

All limited and exclusion areas musat have protective lighting on a permanent basis where?

A

Both the perimeter and access control points

840
Q

Lighting must be positioned to do what to the security force?

A

1) Prevent glare to security force2) Avoid silhouetting the security force

841
Q

The perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of what measured 6 inches above the ground?

A

0.2 foot candles

842
Q

How far must the perimeter band of lighting extend?

A

At least 30 feet outside the exclusion area barrier

843
Q

Lighting inside exclusion areas or on structures containing nuclear weapons must be of sufficient intensity to enable what?

A

Detection of persons in the area or at structure entrances

844
Q

Lighting at entrance control points must be of sufficient intensity to enable guards to what?

A

compare and identify bearers and badges

845
Q

Protective lighting systems must be operated when?

A

During hours of darkness

846
Q

Failure of one or more lights should not affect:

A

the operation of remaining lights

847
Q

________________ should be adequate to sustain the protective lighting of all vital areas and structures.

A

The stand-by power source

848
Q

The cone of illumination from light source should be directed where?

A

Downward & away from the protected area / security personnel

849
Q

Where should the light source for perimeter fence lighting be located?

A

Within the protected area and above the fence

850
Q

An effective light system must provide means of what?

A

Convenient control and maintenance

851
Q

Protective lighting should never be used alone, but what?

A

With other security measures

852
Q

Protective lighting should enable security force to do what?

A

Observe without being seen

853
Q

Good protective lighting should consist of ______________ light upon bordering areas

A

adequate and even

854
Q

Good protective lighting should consist of ____________ in eyes of intruder

A

glaring lights

855
Q

Good protective lighting should consist of _________ light on security patrol routes

856
Q

What are the 2 basic systems used to provide effective protective lighting?

A

1) Light boundaries and approaches2) Light area and structures within general boundaries of property

857
Q

To be effective, protective lighting should:1) Act as _____2) Make __________ likely

A

Act as deterrentMake detection likely

858
Q

What are the 4 general types of protective lighting systems?

A

1) Continuous2) Standby3) Movable4) Emergency

859
Q

What is the most common protective lighting system?

A

Continuous

860
Q

What lighting systems consist of stationary luminaries?

A

Continuous & Standby

861
Q

What are the 2 primary methods of employing continuous lighting?

A

1) Glare projection2) Controlled lighting

862
Q

What lighting system has luminaries that are not continuously lighted?

863
Q

What lighting system consists of manually operated movable searchlights which may be either lighted either during darkness or only as needed?

864
Q

What lighting system is usually used to supplement continuous or standby lighting?

865
Q

What lighting system may duplicate the other three systems in whole or in part?

866
Q

What lighting system is limited to times of power failure or other crisis?

867
Q

What lighting system depends on alternative power sources such as portable generators or batteries

868
Q

How should piers and docks be safeguarded?

A

By illuminating both water approaches and the pier area

869
Q

Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least _____ foot candles

870
Q

Water approaches, extending to a distance of _____ feet from the pier, should be illuminated to at least _____ foot candles

A

100 feet0.5 foot candles

871
Q

The circuit of lighting arrangements should be arranged so that failure of any one lamp will not:

A

leave a critical or vulnerable position in darkness

872
Q

Where should feeder lines be located?

A

Undeground (or sufficiently inside the perimeter in the case of overhead wiring)

873
Q

Why should feeder lines be underground?

A

to minimize sabotage or vandalism from outside the perimeter

874
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for the perimeter of outer area?

875
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for perimeter of restricted area?

876
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for vehicular entrances?

877
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for pedestrian entrances?

878
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for sensitive inner areas?

879
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for sensitive inner structures?

880
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for entrances?

881
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for open yards?

882
Q

What foot candles on horizontal plane at ground level are recommended for decks on open piers?

883
Q

What is one candle power?

A

The amount of light emitted by one standard candle

884
Q

What is one lumen?

A

The amount of light required to light an area of one square foot to one candle power

885
Q

What is one foot candle?

A

One lumen of light per square foot of space

886
Q

How is the intensity of illumination measured?

A

In foot candles

887
Q

What is an example of incandescent lighting?

A

the common light bulb

888
Q

What are 2 advantages of incandescent lighting?

A

1) Instant2) Light can be reflected or diffused

889
Q

What are the 2 major types of gaseous discharge lamps?

A

1) Mercury vapor2) Sodium vapor

890
Q

What color do mercury vapor lights give off?

891
Q

What color do sodium vapor lights give off?

A

Soft yellow

892
Q

How long do gaseous discharge lamps take to light when cold?

A

2-5 minutes

893
Q

How long do gaseous discharge lamps take to light when hot?

A

5+ minutes

894
Q

Gaseous discharge lamps are ____ effective than incandescent

895
Q

What kind of lamps are widely used where fog is a problem?

A

Gaseous discharge lamps

896
Q

What kind of lamps are frequently found on bridges and highways?

A

Gaseous discharge lamps

897
Q

The four basic types of lights with security applications are:

A

1) Floodlights2) Searchlights3) Fresnels4) Street lights

898
Q

This type of light is directional, with some diffusion to light specific areas

A

Floodlights

899
Q

This type of light project light in a concentrated beam

A

Searchlights

900
Q

This type of light is appropriate for use in instances calling for illumination of boundaries

A

searchlights

901
Q

This type of light uses wide beam unites used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips

902
Q

Fresnels project a narrow beam approximately ______ degrees in the horizontal and _______ in the vertical plane

A

180 degrees horizontal15-30 degrees vertical

903
Q

This type of light is an appropriate application to light parameters since light light is lost vertically

904
Q

This type of light produces a diffused light widely used in parking areas

A

Street lights

905
Q

What is the most accepted and widely-used security device?

906
Q

Locks should not be considered bars to entry, but ___________.

A

Delay devices

907
Q

Can a key lock be picked?

A

Yes, by an expert

908
Q

Two downsides to key locks are the possibility of what?

A

losscompromise

909
Q

Can a conventional combination lock be picked?

A

Not picked, but opened by a skillful manipulator

910
Q

If you need a high degree of protection for highly-classified or important material, you should use what kind of combination lock?

A

Manipulation-resistant combination lock

911
Q

For containers of highly-important items, you’d use what kind of combination lock?

A

A combo lock with 4 or more tumblers

912
Q

Where can relocking devices be found?

A

Attached to a safe or vault door

913
Q

Five features of interchangeable cores:

A

1) quickly replaced2) can be keyed into overall complete locking system3) Economical4) System is flexible5) Simplified record keeping

914
Q

What is a digital combination door locking device?

A

A cypher lock

915
Q

What kind of lock offers no security and is the worst selection for security?

A

Warded locks

916
Q

Wafer locks are also known as

A

disc tumbler locks

917
Q

What kind of lock is used on most cars, desks and cabinets?

A

Wafer lock

918
Q

Rank these in order from least to most secure:Wafer lockWarded lockPin tumbler lock

A

Warded lockWafer lockPin tumbler lock

919
Q

What kind of lock is used extensively in commercial, military, and residential security?

A

Pin tumbler locks

920
Q

¿Qué tipo de cerraduras se usan en las cajas de seguridad y son difíciles de abrir?

A

Cerraduras de palanca

921
Q

What kind of lock is opened by pressing a series of numbered buttons in proper sequence?

A

Code-operated locks

922
Q

What kind of lock uses keys that are etched, embossed, or contain a pattern or copper flecks?

A

Card operated locks

923
Q

Card operated locks can be either _____________ or ________.

A

Electrical or electromagnetic

924
Q

What kind of lock holds the door closed by magnetism?

A

Electromagnetic locks

925
Q

What kind of lock should be hardened and strong enough to resist prying?

926
Q

Padlocks should be ________ at all times, even when not securing an area.

927
Q

What kind of keying system is a key to a single lock within a master key system?

A

Change key

928
Q

What kind of keying system is a key which will open all the locks within a particular area in a facility?

A

Submaster key

929
Q

What kind of keying system is a key which will open all the locks when two or more submaster systems exist?

A

Master key

930
Q

What kind of keying system is a key that will open everything in a system involving two or more master key groups?

A

Grand-master key

931
Q

Keys should be accessible only to whom?

A

Those whose official duties require access

932
Q

How often should combinations to safe locks and padlocks securing containers for classified information be changed?

A

At least every 12 months

933
Q

When should the combinations to safe locks and padlocks securing containers for classified information be changed early?1)2)

A

1) Loss or possible compromise2) Discharge, suspension, or reassignment of anyone having knowledge of the combination

934
Q

More frequent rotation of ___________________ may be required in certain circumstances

A

key padlocks

935
Q

When selecting combination numbers, what should be avoided?

A

Multiple & simple ascending or descending arithmetical series

936
Q

Use of keys must be based on the same general concept applied to what?

A

Safe combinations

937
Q

How often should inventories of key systems be conducted?

A

At least annually

938
Q

When a key is issued, the following should be recorded:1)2)3)4)5)

A

1) Key number2) Name of person3) His/her position4) Date of issuance5) Any other relevant data

939
Q

When a key is lost, circumstances should be:

A

investigated & set forth in writing

940
Q

Master keys should be kept at:

941
Q

Traffic control includes the following:1)2)3)4)

A

1) ID of employees and visitors2) Directing movements of employees & visitors3) Package control4) Control of trucks & private cars

942
Q

All visitors must be required to:

A

identify themselves.

943
Q

What kind of access should visitors be limited to?

A

Predetermined, unrestricted areas

944
Q

What is the most practical system of identification?

A

Badges or ID cards

945
Q

To be effective, how large should the photo be on an ID?

A

At least 1-inch square

946
Q

How often should badge photos be updated?

A

Every 2-3 years, and when facial appearance changes

947
Q

A badge system is only as effective as its:

A

enforcement

948
Q

Packages brought in should be:

949
Q

In most cases, what kind of inspection will suffice for packages?

A

spot checking

950
Q

Any policy relative to package control must be _____________.

A

widely publicized in advance

951
Q

Where possible, the parking area should be _________________ from all other areas of the facility.

952
Q

Parking area should be protected from:

953
Q

Employees and visitors going to and from cars should pass through _______________ manned by _______________.

A

pedestrian gates manned by security personnel.

954
Q

In comparison to other security elements, guards areA) expensiveB) inexpensiveC) comparable

955
Q

Who usually receives higher hourly wages, proprietary guards or contract guards?

A

Proprietary

956
Q

What are 3 advantages of proprietary guards?

A

1) Less turnover2) More familiarity with facilities3) Tend to be more loyal

957
Q

What are 3 disadvantages of proprietary guards?

A

1) Higher cost2) May be required to join union3) Problem ensuring back-up personnel

958
Q

5 advantages of contract guards:

A

1) cheaper2) Fewer admin & payroll related responsibilities3) Contractor responsible for scheduling & supervision4) Able to obtain extra guards when needed5) Security firm usually accepts liability in civil suits

959
Q

Disadvantages of contract guards:1)2)3)4)

A

1) Lack of training2) Less loyal3) Large turnover4) Not familiar with plant

960
Q

Training programs for private security personnel are generally:

A

inadequate

961
Q

How many hours of formal pre-assignment training should unarmed guards have?

962
Q

How many additional hours of training should unarmed guards have in their first 3 months of assignment?

963
Q

What is the minimum recommended age for private security personnel?

A

18 years old

964
Q

What’s the minimum education for private security personnel?

A

High school or equivalent

965
Q

Armed personnel should have what kind of vision and hearing?

A

Vision: correctable to 20/20Hearing: ordinary conversation at 10 feet with each ear

966
Q

Unarmed personnel should have what kind of vision and hearing?

A

Just no physical defects that would hinder job performance

967
Q

Armed security personnel should be required to successfully complete what?

A

A 24 hour firearms course including legal & policy requirements OR submit evidence of competency & proficiency prior to assignment

968
Q

How often should armed personnel be required to qualify with the firearm?

A

At least once every 12 months

969
Q

What are the additional recommended qualifications set forth by the task force that armed guards must have that unarmed guards do not necessarily need?1)2)3)4)

A

1) No felonies involving weapons2) No felonies or misdemeanors that reflect ability to perform as an armed guard3) No physical defects that would hinder job performance4) Complete training for armed personnel

970
Q

A peace officer is generally allowed wider discretion than a private citizen with what?

A

making arrests or apprehensions

971
Q

The reputation of a peace officer often carries with it the right to what?

A

carry deadly weapons

972
Q

The status of peace officer may open ________________ not otherwise available

A

channels of communication

973
Q

A disadvantage of having a peace officer is that they are also subject to:

A

due process

974
Q

A disadvantage of a peace officer is that they may be subject to emergency:

A

draft or mobilization orders of local authorities

975
Q

What is the number of personnel required to cover a single post around the clock, providing coverage for 3 eight hour shifts?

976
Q

The process of conducting an exhaustive physical examination and thorough inspection of all operational systems and procedures of a facility is known as:

A

a security survey

977
Q

The 4 purposes of a security survey:

A

1) Determine existing state of security2) Locate weakness in defenses3) Determine degree of protection required4) Produce recommendations establishing a total security program

978
Q

Who should conduct a security survey?1)2)

A

1) Staff security personnel2) Qualified security specialists (both of whom should have had training in the field)

979
Q

No checklists exists that could be universally applied for survey purposes, because:

A

no two facilities are alike

980
Q

A security survey is known by a number of different terms, such as1)2)

A

1) Risk analysis2) Risk assessment

981
Q

What are the 3 key steps in a risk assessment process?1)2)3)

A

1) Determine value, impact, and cost of any asset should it be lost due to natural or man-made forces2) Determine the degree of vulnerability of the facility to damage or attack by natural or man-made forces3) Determine the degree of probability that natural or man-made forces will strike any given facility

982
Q

What are the 3 ways the “vulnerability of a facility” to damage or attack may be determined?

A

1) Inspection of the facility by an experienced inspector2) Examination of the facility’s record of losses3) Determination whether the high-value property or items are properly safeguarded from theft by insiders

983
Q

Security surveys determine existing vulnerabilities to:

A

injury, death, damage, or destruction by natural causes

984
Q

Security surveys determine existing vulnerabilities of corporate assets due to:

A

outside criminal activityORcriminal activity within organizations

985
Q

Security surveys determine existing conditions of:

A

physical security of corporate property

986
Q

Security surveys measure effectiveness of:

A

current security police

987
Q

Security surveys measure compliance of:

A

employees to security rules

988
Q

Security surveys conduct internal audit to determine:

989
Q

Security surveys inspect overall condition within facility which cause:

A

security probelms

990
Q

Security surveys investigate _____________________ in the community from a standpoint of interaction within the facility.

A

Environmental conditions

991
Q

One of the big differences between physical security surveys and crime prevention surveys is that physical security measures are oriented more towards _____________-, but crime prevention measures focus on ______________.

A

Security of property and facilitiesDeterrence of criminal activity regardless of physical safeguards

992
Q

When conducting a security survey, __________ should always be obtained.

A

Written authority

993
Q

When conducting a security survey, any ______________ should be reviewed.

A

previous surveys

994
Q

When conducting a security survey, a(n) _________________ tour should be made.

A

orientation

995
Q

When conducting a security survey, _____________ should be taken of objects or situations that are difficult to describe.

A

photographs

996
Q

When conducting a security survey, there should be a review with who of all deficiencies found?

A

Local plant supervisors

997
Q

When conducting a security survey, how should you ascertain if deficiencies have been corrected?

A

With a follow-up survey

998
Q

When conducting a security survey, a ____________ should be prepared.

A

Cost-benefit analysis

999
Q

The direct comparison of the costs of the operation of the security unit and all security measures with the amount of corporate property saved or recovered as well as reduction of losses caused by injuries and lost production time

A

Cost-benefit analysis

1000
Q

When conducting a security survey, no security measure should be recommended which is not:

A

cost effective

1001
Q

What are the 2 categories used to describe the measure of protection of safes?

A

1) Fire resistive2) Burglary & robbery resistive

1002
Q

Rating safes in the area of fire protection is done through:1)2)

A

1) Safe Manufacturers National Association2) Underwriter’s Laboratories

1003
Q

Which rater of fire protection is only seen on older safes, because they are no longer in existence?

A

SMNA (Safe Manufacturers National Association)

1004
Q

When did UL cease the use of letter classifications?

A

After 1972

1005
Q

UL classifications now indicate what on their labels?

A

The type of container and the level of protection

1006
Q

Fire resistive safes give very little resistance against what?

A

Safecrackers

1007
Q

Once exposed to a fire, a fire-resistive safe does not have what?

A

The degree of protection for which it was originally rated

1008
Q

350-4Temperature?Time?Impact?Old Label?Fire/Money?

A

2000 degrees F4 hoursImpact - YesOld Label - AFire

1009
Q

350-2Temperature?Time?Impact?Old Label?Fire/Money?

A

1850 degrees F2 hoursImpact - YesOld Label - BFire

1010
Q

350-1Temperature?Time?Impact?Old Label?Fire/Money?

A

1700 degrees F1 hourImpact - Yes Old Label - CFire

1011
Q

350-1 (Insulated)Temperature?Time?Impact?Old Label?Fire/Money?

A

1700 degrees F1 hourImpact - NoOld Label - DFire

1012
Q

350-1/2Temperature?Time?Impact?Old Label?Fire/Money?

A

1550 degrees F1/2 hourImpact - No Old Label - EFire

1013
Q

150-4Temperature?Time?Impact?Old Label?Fire/Money?

A

2000 degrees F4 hoursImpact - YesOld Label - NoneFire

1014
Q

150-2Temperature?Time?Impact?Old Label?Fire/Money?

A

2000 1850 degrees F2 hoursImpact - YesOld label - noneFire

1015
Q

150-1Temperature?Time?Impact?Old Label?Fire/Money?

A

1700 degrees F1 hourImpact - YesOld label - noneFire

1016
Q

What UL ratings are designed for Computer Media Storage Classification?

A

The 150’s

1017
Q

What UL class is not impact resistant?

A

Insulated Record Containers

1018
Q

What temperatures are computer media storage containers rated to protect by UL?

A

1700-2000 degrees

1019
Q

Burglary and robbery-resistive mercantile safes are classified by the design features of what?

A

The door, wall and lock

1020
Q

TL-15 is resistant to what?

1021
Q

TL-15 has what weight?

A

At least 750 lbs, or anchored

1022
Q

TL-15 has what body?

A

At least 1-inch thick steel or equal

1023
Q

TL-15 attack is what?

A

Door and front face must resist attack with common hand & electric tools for 15 minutes

1024
Q

TL-30 is resistant to what?

1025
Q

TL-30 has what weight?

A

At least 750 lbs, or anchored

1026
Q

TL-30 must have what body?

A

At least 1-inch thick steel or equal

1027
Q

TL-30 attack is what?

A

Door & front face must resist attack with common hand and electric tools, plus abrasive cutting wheels and power saws, for 30 minutes

1028
Q

TRTL-30 is resistant to what?

A

Tools and torches

1029
Q

In 1980, UL stopped issuing the TRTL-30 label and replaced it with what label?

1030
Q

What does the x6 in TRTL-30X6 mean?

A

Equal protection on all 6 sides

1031
Q

TRTL-30 has what weight?

A

At least 750 lbs

1032
Q

TRTL-30 has what attack?

A

Door and front face must resist attack with all tools, as well as oxy-fuel gas cutting or welding torches for 30 minutes

1033
Q

TRTL-30X6 is resistant to what?

A

Tools and torches

1034
Q

TRTL 30X6 has what weight?

A

At least 750 lbs

1035
Q

TRTL-30X6 has what attack?

A

Door and ENTIRE BODY must resist attack with all tools and torches, as well as electric impact hammers and oxy-fuel gas cutting or welding torches for 30 minutes

1036
Q

TXTL-60 is resistant to what?

A

Tools, torches, and explosives

1037
Q

TXTL-60 has what weight?

A

At least 1000 lbs

1038
Q

TXTL-60 has what attack?

A

Door and body must resist attack from all tools, torches, as well as eight ounces of nitroglycerin or its equal for 60 minutes

1039
Q

As a general rule, the door of a burglary resistive safe must be made of what material and thickness?

A

Steel, 1.5 inches thick

1040
Q

What is the safecracking method that is accomplished by knocking off the combination dial and drilling a hole to expose the locking device?

A

Drilling or punching

1041
Q

What is the safecracking method that uses high temperature oxyacetylene torches to cut an opening in the wall or door of the safe?

1042
Q

What’s another word for an oxyacetylene torch?

A

Burning bar

1043
Q

What is the safecracking method that attacks the seams of metal plates with pry bars and other tools to peel back layers of metal, thus exposing either the locking mechanism or the interior?

1044
Q

What is the safecracking method that is similar to peeling, except it can be accomplished against a solid, metal-walled container within a thin wall?

1045
Q

What is the safecracking method utilized to reveal the position of the combination and mechanism necessary to open the safe?

1046
Q

What is the safecracking method that uses nitroglycerin and plastic explosives?

A

Explosives

1047
Q

What safecracking method has lost popularity?

A

Explosives

1048
Q

What are some of the power tools used to crack safes?

A

Rotary devicesHydraulic toolsPower drills

1049
Q

What is the technique that very few safecrackers have the skill to use?

A

Manipulation

1050
Q

No safe is:

A

impenetrable

1051
Q

How should a safe that weighs less than 750 lbs be secured?

A

Anchored to the building structure

1052
Q

What is a vault?

A

An enlarged safe

1053
Q

What is the body of a vault made of?

A

High quality, reinforced concrete

1054
Q

Where are vaults usually located?

A

At or below ground level

1055
Q

How thick are a vault’s doors?

A

At least 6 inches thick

1056
Q

How thick should the walls, ceiling, and floor of a vault be?

A

Twice as thick as the door but never less than 12 inches.

1057
Q

What are the 2 types of alarm systems a vault should be supported by?

A

1) Capacitance2) Vibration

1058
Q

Who establishes the ratings for vaults?

A

Insurance Services Office (ISO)

1059
Q

What are the 2 phases of the system design process?

A

Planning & Design

1060
Q

The planning phase consists of collecting _____________ and formulating _____________.

A

Collecting information on security needs, objectives, & constraintsFormulating concepts for security countermeasures

1061
Q

The planning phase includes the development of what?

A

The business & economic justification

1062
Q

The planning phase includes documentation that is clear and complete to ensure what?

A

Consistent & accurate interpretation by vendors for procurement and implementation

1063
Q

A combination of equipment, peresonnel, and procedures design, coordinated in such a way as to assure optimum achievement of the system’s stated security objectives

1064
Q

The logical and symbiotic combination of the technology, supported bye the staffing and procedural elements

A

Integration

1065
Q

Used to develop countermeasure solutions to the problems identified by a vulnerability assessment

A

Requirements Definition

1066
Q

The mission or objectives of the integrated security system (ISS) mus reflect and support what?

A

The overall mission

1067
Q

Level of confidence factor for each requirement must focus on what?

A

Preventing, delaying or modifying the consequences

1068
Q

The ground rules for the design and selection of subsystems and components

A

Design Criteria

1069
Q

Also known as functional requirements

A

Design Criteria

1070
Q

The design criteria fall into a number of categories based on:

A

Expected performanceOperational and financial considerationsStyle & designCodes & standards

1071
Q

Design criteria - codes and standards

A

National and local building codessafety codes and laws

1072
Q

Design criteria - Quality

A

Sensible levels are needs to ensure costs are kept in check

1073
Q

Design criteria - Capacity

A

Size and space requirements affect the design solutions and impact anticipated expansion

1074
Q

Design criteria - Performance

A

Detailed in the system specs. Include interface, reliability, and maintainability

1075
Q

Design criteria - Features

A

Major system features should be defined

1076
Q

Design criteria - Cost

A

Most common constraint & should be defined in a budget

1077
Q

What is the most common constraint of design criteria?

1078
Q

Design criteria - Operations

A

Need to have minimum negative impact on productivity

1079
Q

Design criteria - Culture and image

A

Greatly factors into the implementation of security programs in the corporate environment and the acceptance of change

1080
Q

Design criteria - monitoring and response

A

Proprietary vs. off site monitoring

1081
Q

Minimum Security Specifications - Instructions to bidders

A

List of all documents included in the contract

1082
Q

Minimum Security Specifications - Functional description

A

Intended operation and installations schedule

1083
Q

Minimum Security Specifications - 3 lists needed

A

1) List of all products & services included in the contract2) List of all products & services required but part of another contract3) List of applicable codes & standards

1084
Q

Minimum Security Specifications - Support services

A

Drawings, submittal, testing, training, warranty, maintenance

1085
Q

Minimum Security Specifications - Technical descriptions of all…

A

major subsystems and components

1086
Q

Minimum Security Specifications - General….

A

site conditions

1087
Q

Procurement - Used for smaller projects and usually involves a pre-qualified contractor

A

Sole source

1088
Q

Procurement - Commonly used by non-government organization.

A

Request for proposal

1089
Q

This type of procurement’s specifications can be generic and performance based

A

Request for proposal

1090
Q

Procurement - Used by government when a competitive bid is required and the award be given the lowest *qualified* bidder

A

Invitation for bid

1091
Q

¿Qué proceso utiliza un administrador de seguridad para establecer prioridades en la protección de activos?

  1. Encuesta de auditoria
  2. Encuesta de seguridad
  3. Análisis o evaluación de riesgos.
  4. Revisión de inspección
  5. Tanto byc
  6. Todas las anteriores
A

E. Tanto byc

1092
Q

The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated on an analysis of which of the following?

  1. Cost and vulnerability
  2. Cost and criticality
  3. Criticality and vulnerability
  4. Vulnerability and environmental conditions
  5. None of the above
A

C. Criticality and vulnerability

Prueba 1 (19 decks)

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