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Step 1 Review > Pharmacology One-Liners 2 > Flashcards

Pharmacology One-Liners 2 Flashcards

1
Q

First-line drugs for acute gout

A

Indomethacin, naproxen

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2
Q

NSAID avoided in gout because low doses increase uric acid levels

A

Aspirin

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3
Q

Mechanism of action of colchicine

A

Inhibits microtubules assembly, decreases leukocyte migration, and phagocytosis

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4
Q

Side effects of colchicine

A

Diarhhea, liver toxicity, myelosuppression

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5
Q

Agents that inhibit xanthine oxidases and used to treat chronic gout

A

Allopurinol, febuxostat

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6
Q

Recombinant uricase that enhances uric acid metabolism and indicated for gout refractory to conventional therapy

A

Pegloticase

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7
Q

DMARDs are slow-acting drugs for this indication

A

Rheumatic diseases

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8
Q

1st line for rheumatic arthritis for most patients

A

Low-dose methotrexate

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9
Q

Dose-limiting toxicity of methotrexate

A

Myelosuppression

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10
Q

A mixture of two agents with one agent active for rheumatic disease and the other for inflammatory bowel disease

A

Sulfasalzine

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11
Q

Agent used to treat chronic gout by increasing uric acid excretion through inhibition of URAT1 anion transporter

A

Probenecid

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12
Q

Alternative to methotrexate as 1st line for rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, which leads to decreased pyrimidine synthesis

A

Leflunomide

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13
Q

Side effect of penicillamine

A

Hypersensitivity (rash), nephrotoxicity, myopathy, myelosuppression

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14
Q

Anti-malarial drug used in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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15
Q

Side effect of hydroxychloroquine

A

Retinopathy

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16
Q

Two drugs that bind and prevent action of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)

A

Infliximab and etanercept

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17
Q

Neuromuscular blocking drugs

A

Structurally related to acetylcholine, used to produce muscle paralysis in order to facilitate surgery or artificial ventilation. Full doses lead to respiratory paralysis and require ventilation

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18
Q

Class of agents that block acetylcholine receptors at motor endplates and its effects can be reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors

A

Nondepolarizing blockers

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19
Q

Tubocurarine

A

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with long duration of action and is most likely to cause histamine release

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20
Q

Two non-depolarizing blockers that undergo Hofmann elimination, which is useful for patients with renal and hepatic deficiency

A

Atracurium, cisatracurium

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21
Q

Pancuronium

A

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with long duration of action that can block muscarinic receptor in the heart

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22
Q

These drugs strongly potentiate and prolong effect of neuromuscular blockers

A

Inhalation anesthetics (isoflurane), antibiotics (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines)

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23
Q

Succinylcholine

A

Depolarizing blocker that causes muscle relaxation and paralysis and can cause postoperative muscle pain

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24
Q

Two life-threatening side effects of succinylcholine

A

Hyperkalemia, malignant hyperthermia

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25
Q

Dantrolene

A

Drug for treating malignant hyperthermia associated with drug-drug interaction between halogenated anesthetics and depolarizing blocker

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26
Q

During Phase I depolarizing block this class of agents enhance muscle paralysis, but during Phase II block they may reverse muscle paralysis

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

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27
Q

Neostigmine

A

Drug of choice for reversal of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade

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28
Q

Mechanism of action of cromolyn

A

Prevent mast cell degranulation (by blocking opening of Cl- channels)

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29
Q

Which enzyme does theophylline inhibit?

A

Phosphodiesterase

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30
Q

Somatropin

A

Growth hormone analog used in growth hormone deficiency

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31
Q

Octreotide

A

Somatostatin analog used for acromegaly, carcinoid, glucagonoma, and other growth hormone-producing pituitary tumors

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32
Q

Leuprolide

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog used for infertility (pulsatile administration) or suppression of gonadotropin production (continuous administration)

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33
Q

Ganirelix

A

Competitive antagonists at gonadotropin releasing hormone receptors used to prevent LH surger during controlled ovarian hyperstimulation

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34
Q

Bromocriptine

A

Ergot dopamine agonist used to suppress prolactin release

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35
Q

Cosyntropin

A

Synthetic human corticotropin used for diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency

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36
Q

Oxytocin

A

Agent used to stimulate uterine contraction and labor, milk letdowns, and control postpartum bleeding

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37
Q

Levothyroxine (T4)

A

Agent of choice for the treatment of hypothyroidism

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38
Q

Liothyronine (T3)

A

An isomer of T3 which may be used in myxedema coma

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39
Q

Thioamide agents used in hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU)

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40
Q

Thioamide less likely to cross placenta, inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in high doses, and indicated for pregnant women in 1st trimester

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

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41
Q

Propylthiouracil mechanism of action

A

Inhibits thyroid peroxidase

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42
Q

Can be effective for short term therapy of thyroid storm, but after several weeks of therapy causes an exacerbation of hyperthyroidism

A

Iodide salts (potassium iodide)

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43
Q

Radioactive iodine

A

Permanently cures thyrotoxicosis, patients will need thyroid replacement therapy thereafter. Contraindicated in pregnancy

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44
Q

Used for symptomatic treatment of thyrotoxicosis by blocking cardiac adverse effects

A

Beta-blockers such as propranolol and esmolol

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45
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Used for Addison’s disease, congenital adrenal hyperplasia inflammation, immune suppresion, and asthma

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46
Q

Two short-acting glucocorticoids

A

Hydrocortisone (cortisol), cortisone

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47
Q

Four intermediate-acting glucocorticoids

A

Prednisone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone, and triamcinolone

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48
Q

Two long-acting glucocorticoids

A

Betamethasone, dexamethasone

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49
Q

Two glucocorticoids with mineralocorticoid action

A

Fludrocortisone and deoxycorticosterone

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50
Q

Side effects of corticosteroids

A

Iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome, hyperglycemia, impaired wound healing, osteoporosis, peptic ulcers, myopathy, adrenal suppression (>2 week treatment)

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51
Q

Aminoglutethimide

A

Inhibits conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone therefore inhibiting corticosteroid synthesis

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52
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Antifungal agent used to inhibit adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis

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53
Q

Metyrapone

A

Seelctive inhibitor of 11-hydroxylation and interferes with cortisol and corticosterone synthesis; used for adrenal function tests and is the only adrenal-inhibiting medication that can be administered to pregnant women with Cushing’s syndrome

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54
Q

Mifepristone (RU486)

A

Glucocorticoid receptor antagonist that is used as an abortifacient due to its strong antiprogestin activity

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55
Q

Three rapid-acting insulin used for postprandial glycemia

A

Aspart, lispro, glulisine

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56
Q

Short-acting insulin used intravenously for ketoacidosis

A

Regular insulin

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57
Q

Intermediate-acting insulin with variable pharmacokinetics; use is mostly replaced by long-acting insulin

A

Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin

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58
Q

Two long-acting insulin preparations that provide basal glycemia control

A

Glargine, detemir

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59
Q

Major side-effect of insulin

A

Hypoglycemia

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60
Q

Tolbutamide

A

First generation sulfonylurea that is safest for elderly diabetics due to its short half-life

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61
Q

Chlorpropamide

A

First generation sulfonylurea contraindicated in elderly diabetics because of very long half-life

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62
Q

Three second generation sulfonylureas

A

Glyburide, glipizide, glimepride

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63
Q

Mechanism of action of sulfonylureas

A

Close K+ channels, depolarize cell, open voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, release insulin

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64
Q

Common side effect of first-generation sulfonylureas

A

Disulfiram-like reactions with alcohol use

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65
Q

Common side effect of second-generation sulofnylureas

A

Hypoglycemia

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66
Q

Repaglinide

A

A meglitinide insulin secretagogue that has no sulfur in its structure and may be used in type 2 diabetics with sulfonylurea allergy

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67
Q

Nateglinide

A

A D-phenylalanine derivative insulin secretagogue that is useful for type 2 diabetics with very reduced renal function

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68
Q

Mechanism of action of repaglinide and nateglinide

A

Close K+ channels, depolarize cell, open voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, release insulin

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69
Q

First line drug used for treatment of Type 2 diabetes

A

Metformin

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70
Q

Mechanism of action of metformin

A

decreased gluconeogeesnis, increased peripheral glucose uptake; increase insulin sensitivity

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71
Q

Most serious side effect of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

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72
Q

Two thiazolidinediones

A

Pioglitazone, rosiglitazone

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73
Q

Mechanism of action of thiazolidinediones

A

Activate PPAR-gamma, increased transcription of insulin-responsive genes, increased GLUT4 glucose transporter, increased insulin sensitivity

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74
Q

Side effect of thiazolidinediones

A

Weight gain, edema, heart failure, hepatotoxicity

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75
Q

Two alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Acarbose, miglitol

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76
Q

Mechanism of action of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Act on intestine, delay digestion and absorption of glucose

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77
Q

Side effect of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Flatulence, diarrhea, abdominal cramps

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78
Q

Pramlintide

A

Amylin analog that delays gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon release

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79
Q

Two glucagon-like polypeptide-1 (GLP-1) analogs that increase insulin secretion and suppress postprandial glucagon release

A

Exenatide, liraglutide

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80
Q

Three dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors that reduce breakdown of glucagon-like polypeptide-1, resulting in increased insulin secretion and suppress postprandial glucagon release

A

Sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin

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81
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate and -dronates

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82
Q

Mechanism of action of bisphosphonates

A

Inhibits osteoclast activity and prevent bone resorption

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83
Q

Uses of bisphosphonates

A

Osteoporosis, Paget’s disease, hypercalcemia

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84
Q

Major side effects of bisphosphonates

A

Corrosive esophagitis, osteonecrosis of the jaw

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85
Q

Etidronate

A

First generation bisphosphonate when used long-term causes osteomalacia

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86
Q

May be used intranasally to decrease bone resorption

A

Calcitonin (salmon prep)

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87
Q

Vitamin given with calcium to ensure proper absorption

A

Vitamin D

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88
Q

Its use can increase risk of endometrial and breast cancer, cause postmenopausal uterine bleeding, but can stabilize bone mineral loss

A

Estrogen

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89
Q

Antiestrogen drug used for treatment of infertility in anovulatory women

A

Clomiphene

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90
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator most commonly used for treatment of breast cancer

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91
Q

Raloxifine

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator used for prevention of osteoporosis and invasive breast cancer

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92
Q

Common side effect of tamoxifen and clomiphene

A

Hot flushes

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93
Q

Two estradiol derivatives with higher oral bioavailability and longer half-lives that are primarily used as oral contraceptives

A

Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol

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94
Q

Testosterone

A

Androgen receptor agonist used to treat hypogonadism and promote secondary sex characteristics

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95
Q

Finasteride

A

5 alpha-reductase inhibitor used for benign prostatic hyperplasia and male patter baldness

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96
Q

Danazol

A

Partial androgen agonist used for endometriosis and hereditary angioedema

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97
Q

Flutamide

A

Androgen receptor antagonist used to treat prostate cancer

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98
Q

Cyproterone

A

Androgen receptor antagonist used for hirsutism in females

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99
Q

Autacoids

A

A class of endogenous substances that include histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, vasoactive peptides that work in autocrine or paracrine manner

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100
Q

Two peptides that increase capillary permeability and edema

A

Bradykinin and histamine

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101
Q

Distribution of H1 histamine receptors

A

Smooth muscle and mast cells

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102
Q

Distribution of H2 histamine receptors

A

Stomach, heart, and mast cells

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103
Q

Distribution of H3 histamine receptors

A

Nerve endings, CNS

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104
Q

Most common side effect of 1st generation antihistamines

A

Sedation, anticholinergic

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105
Q

Dephenhydramine

A

1st generation antihistamine that is highly sedating

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106
Q

Chlorpheniramine

A

1st generation antihistamine that is least sedating

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107
Q

Major indication for H1 antihistamines

A

IgE mediated allergic reaction (allergic rhinitis, urticaria)

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108
Q

Antihistamine that is indicated for allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia

A

Diphenhydramine

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109
Q

Antihistamine with motion sickness as the only indication

A

Dimenhydrinate

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110
Q

Three 2nd generation antihistamines

A

Fexofenadine, loratadine, and cetirizine

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111
Q

H2 antagonist that causes the most interactions with other drugs

A

Cimetidine

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112
Q

Indication for H2 antagonists

A

Acid reflux disease, duodenal ulcer and peptic ulcer disease

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113
Q

Location of serotonin type-1 (5HT-1) receptors

A

Mostly in the brain

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114
Q

Buspirone

A

5HT-1A receptor partial agonist indicated for generalized anxiety disorder; due to longer onset of action, is less effective for acute anxiety

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115
Q

5HT-1D/1B agonist used for migraine headaches

A

Sumatriptan and -triptans

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116
Q

Ergotaimne

A

Ergot alkaloid indicated for migraine headaches

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117
Q

Reason ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Uterine contractions

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118
Q

Two side effects of ergot alkaloids

A

Prolonged vasospasm and hallucinations resembling psychosis

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119
Q

Two drugs that may be used off-label for ischemia and gangrene caused by ergot alkaloids overuse

A

Nitroprusside, nitroglycerin

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120
Q

Serotonin receptor responsible for serotonin syndrome

A

5HT2

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121
Q

H1 antihistamine with 5HT2 antagonist activity that is mostly used for carcinoid tumor but may be used to treat serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine

122
Q

Location of serotonin type-3 (5HT-3) receptors

A

GI tract, vomiting center of medulla

123
Q

5HT-3 antagonist used for the prevention of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

A

Ondansetron and -setrons

124
Q

Ganglion blockers that were indicated (but not anymore) for severe hypertension

A

Hexamethonium, trimethaphan

125
Q

Two direct-acting cholinomimetics that increase aqueous outflow through ciliary muscle contraction and opening of trabecular meshwork

A

Pilocarpine, carbachol

126
Q

Two indirect-acting cholinomimetics that increase aqueous outflow through ciliary muscle contraction and opening of trabecular meshwork

A

Physostigmine, echothiophate

127
Q

Nonselective alpha agonist that decreases aqueous production

A

Epinephrine

128
Q

Selective alpha 2 agonits that decreases aqueous production

A

Brimonidine

129
Q

Three beta blockers that decrease aqueous production

A

Timolol (nonselective)
Betaxolol (selective)
Carteolol (nonselective)

130
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to decrease aqueous humor production

A

Acetazolamide

131
Q

Prostaglandin 2 alpha analog used to increase aqueous humor outflow

A

Latanoprost

132
Q

Common side effect of sedative hypnotics

A

CNS depression

133
Q

Occurs when sedative hypnotics are used long-term

A

Tolerance and physical dependence

134
Q

Mechanism of action of benzodiazepines

A

Increase frequency of GABA-mediated chloride ion channel (GABAa) opening

135
Q

Main route of metabolism for benzodiazepines

A

Hepatic

136
Q

Useful side effect of benzodiazepines in patients undergoing stressful procedures or surgery

A

Anterograde amnesia

137
Q

Three benzodiazepines that are metabolized only by Phase II conjugation and therefor is useful in elderly patients

A

Lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam

138
Q

Two benzodiazepines that have active metabolites with long half-lives

A

Diazepam, chlordiazepoxide

139
Q

Clinical uses of benzodiazepines

A

Anxiety, insomnia, alcohol detoxification, status epilepticus, spasticity

140
Q

Reason why benzodiazepines are safer than barbiturates

A

Benzodiazepines work only in presence of GABA

141
Q

Mechanism of action of barbiturates

A

Increased duration of GABAa chloride channel opening

142
Q

Most serious side effect of barbiturates

A

Respiratory and cardiovascular depression

143
Q

Barbiturates may precipitate this hematologic condition

A

Porphyria

144
Q

Barbiturates decrease the effectiveness of many other drugs via this pharmacokinetic property

A

Induce CYP450

145
Q

Effect of benzodiazepines and barbiturates on sleep architecture

A

Suppress REM

146
Q

Three nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics that lack suppressive effect on REM and are preferred over benzodiazepines for the treatment of insomnia

A

Zolpidem, zaleplon, eszopiclone

147
Q

Mechanism of action of zolpidem

A

Activates BZ1 subtype of GABAa receptor

148
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of acute status epilepticus

A

Diazepam, lorazepam

149
Q

Drug of choice for partial seizures

A

Carbamazepine

150
Q

Antiepileptic drug used as first line for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

151
Q

Antiepileptic drug that can induce CYP450, is teratogenic, and can cause diplopia, ataxia, and blood dyscrasias; follows first order kinetics of eliminations

A

Carbamazepine

152
Q

Drug of choice for generalized tonic-clonic seizures

A

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, valproic acid

153
Q

Mechanism of action of phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine

A

Blocks sodium channels

154
Q

Antiepileptic agent that exhibits zero-order kinetics, causes fetal hydantoin syndrome, and induces CYP450

A

Phenytoin

155
Q

Side effects of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, diplopia, and ataxia

156
Q

Mechanism of valproic acid

A

Blocks sodium channels, T-type calcium channels, and increase GABA concentration

157
Q

Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures that may also be used for absence seizures

A

Valproic acid

158
Q

Antiepileptic drug that can cause fatal hepatotoxicity and neural tube defects

A

Valproic acid

159
Q

Drug of choice for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

160
Q

Mechanism of action of Ethosuximide

A

Blocks T-type calcium channels

161
Q

Antiepileptic drugs that may also be used for bipolar disorder

A

Valproic acid, carbamazepine, gabapentin

162
Q

Antiepileptic drug used also for pain of neuropathic origin

A

Gabapentin

163
Q

Serious side effect of lamotrigine that makes it require slow titration

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

164
Q

Mechanism of action of opioids on analgesia

A

Activate mu receptors to 1) close presynaptic Ca2+ channels to inhibit neurotransmitter release and 2) open postsynaptic K+ channels to hyperpolarize cell membrane

165
Q

Side effects of these drugs include nausea and vomiting, euphoria, dependence, sedation, respiratory depression, constipation

A

Opioids

166
Q

Tolerance to all effects of opioid agonists can develop except…

A

Miosis, constipation

167
Q

Strong opioid agonists

A

Morphine and fentanyl

168
Q

Opioid that can be given PO, IV, IM, and intrathecal to relieve anxiety associated with pulmonary edema

A

Morphine

169
Q

Opioid available transdermally

A

Fentanyl

170
Q

Opioid with antimuscarinic activity

A

Meperidine

171
Q

Long-acting opioids used in the management of withdrawal states

A

Methadone, buprenorphine

172
Q

Opioid that can cause hyperpyrexic coma with MAOI and serotonin syndrome with SSRI

A

Meperidine

173
Q

Moderate opioid agonists

A

Codeine, hydrocodone, and oxycodone

174
Q

Partial opioid agonist that has a long duration of action and is resistant to naloxone reversal

A

Buprenorphine

175
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given IV

A

Naloxone

176
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given orally

A

Naltrexone

177
Q

Opioids indicated for use as antitussive

A

Dextromethorphan, Codeine

178
Q

Opioids indicated for use as antidiarrheal

A

Diphenoxylate, Loperamide

179
Q

Directly proportional to the potency of inhalation anesthetics

A

Lipid solubility

180
Q

Inversely proportional to the potency of inhalation anesthetics

A

Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)

181
Q

Inversely proportional to the rate of induction and recovery of inhalation anesthetics

A

Blood:gas partition coefficient

182
Q

Mechanism of action of inhalation anesthetics

A

Potentiation of GABA at GABAa receptors; also reduce Na+ and Ca2+ influx

183
Q

Currently the only non-halogenated inhalation anesthetic

A

Nitrous oxide

184
Q

Inhalation anesthetic with the most analgesic activity

A

Nitrous oxide

185
Q

Inhalation anesthetic with the least respiratory and cardiovascular depression and therefore is used frequently as a component of balanced anesthesia

A

Nitrous oxide

186
Q

Inhalation anesthetic that can cause fatal hepatotoxicity and cardiac arrhythmia and is no longer used in the US

A

Halothane

187
Q

Inhalation anesthetic that is withdrawn from that market due to fatal nephrotoxicity

A

Methoxyflurane

188
Q

Inhalation anesthetic that at high concentrations can produce CNS excitation, leading to seizures

A

Enflurane

189
Q

Rare, but fatal side effect associated with combination of halogenated inhalation anesthetic and depolarizing blocker

A

Malingant hyperthermia

190
Q

Close to ideal inhalation anesthetic that exhibits rapid and smooth induration and recovery, with little organ system toxicity

A

Sevoflurane

191
Q

Barbituate used for the induction of anesthesia

A

Thiopental

192
Q

A short-acting benzodiazepine commonly used adjunctively with inhalation anesthetics and opioid analgesics for a balanced anesthesia

A

Midazolam

193
Q

Opioid safe for use of analgesia and anesthesia during cardiac surgery

A

Fentanyl

194
Q

Produces both rapid anesthesia and recovery, has antiemetic activity, but may cause marked hypotension

A

Propofol

195
Q

Marked dissociative anesthesia but has significant analgesic activity

A

Ketamine

196
Q

Mechanism of action of the intravenous anesthetic that causes dissociative anesthesia

A

Block NMDA receptor

197
Q

Side effects of dissociative anesthetic

A

Cardiovascular stimulation, increased cerebral blood flow, vivid dreams, hallucinations

198
Q

Neuroleptanesthesia can be produced by a combination of these two agents

A

Fentanyl and droperidol

199
Q

Mechanism of action of local anesthetics

A

Block voltage-gated sodium channels

200
Q

This condition may necessitate larger doses of local anesthetics because the drugs become ionized and cannot penetrate the neuronal membranes

A

Low pH

201
Q

Almost all local anesthetics have this property and sometimes requires the administration of vasoconstrictors to prolong activity

A

Vasodilation

202
Q

The only local anesthetic with vasoconstrictive property, but due to abuse potential, only occasionally used for nasal surgery

A

Cocaine

203
Q

This type of local anesthetic is more likely to cause hypersensitivity reactions

A

Ester-type (local anesthetic with one “l” in name)

204
Q

Local anesthetic most widely used for obstetric anesthesia but causes the most cardiac depression

A

Bupivacaine

205
Q

Side effect of most local anesthetics

A

CNS excitation

206
Q

Common side effect of antipsychotics, MPTP (contaminant in illicit meperidine analog), and cholinergic excess

A

Drug-induced parkinsonism

207
Q

Precursor of dopamine that can cross the blood-brain-barrier and used to alleviate motor dysfunction in Parkinson’s disease

A

Levodopa (L-dopa)

208
Q

Inhibits peripheral DOPA decarboxylase, reduces peripheral side effects of dopamine precursor and enhances delivery to brain

A

Carbidopa

209
Q

Two fluctuations in clinical response associated with long-term use of dopamine precursor

A

“Wearing off” and “on-off phenomenon”

210
Q

Inhibits monoamine oxidase type B (MAO-B), used as monotherapy for early or mild Parkinson’s disease or adjunct to improve motor function in patients with fluctuations in clinical response

A

selegiline

211
Q

Inhibits of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT), used as adjunct to improve motor function in Parkinson’s patients with fluctuations in clinical response

A

Entacapone, tolcapone

212
Q

Ergot type 2 dopamine receptor (D2) agonist, used for Parkinson’s and restless legs syndrome

A

Bromocriptine

213
Q

Non ergot type 2 dopamine receptors (D2) agonist, used for Parkinson’s and restless legs syndrome

A

Pramipexole and ropinirole

214
Q

An antiviral that enhances dopamine release for nigrostriatal neurons

A

Amantadine

215
Q

A centrally-acting anticholinergic used for tremor and rigidity but have little effect on bradykinesia in patients with Parkinson’s

A

Benztropine

216
Q

Drug of choice indicated for familial or essential tremors

A

Propranolol

217
Q

Two drugs that inhibit vesicle monoamine transporter used for Huntington’s

A

Tetrabenazine, reserpine

218
Q

An antipsychotic with dopamine receptor activity used for Huntington’s

A

Haloperidol

219
Q

Three centrally-acting cholinesterase inhibitors used for Alzheimer’s

A

Donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine

220
Q

Noncompetitive antagonist of NMDA receptors used for Alzheimer’s

A

Memantine

221
Q

Three main classes of CNS depressant drugs of abuse

A

Alcohol, opioid, barbiturate/benzodiazepine

222
Q

Agent that is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase or microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS) to acetaldehyde; displays zero-order kinetics of elimination

A

Ethanol

223
Q

Enzyme that is induced through chronic exposure to alcohol, may contribute to tolerance

A

Microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS)

224
Q

Complications of the gastrointestinal system associated with chronic alcohol use

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome, hepatitis, cirrhosis, pancreatitis

225
Q

Neurological abnormality caused by chronic alcohol abuse and thiamine deficiency

A

Neurological deficits (Peripheral neuropathy)

226
Q

Life-threatening alcohol withdrawal syndrome that peaks at 5 days after the last drink

A

Delirium tremens

227
Q

Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase and used as deterrent for alcohol use

A

Disulfiram

228
Q

Opioid receptor antagonist used to prevent alcohol abuse

A

Naltrexone

229
Q

Competes for alcohol dehydrogenase and used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Fomepizole, ethanol

230
Q

Most commonly abused opioids

A

Heroin, morphine, oxycodone

231
Q

Respiratory and CNS depression, pinpoint pupils, seizures, and needle track marks are symptoms of this intoxication

A

Opioid

232
Q

Opioid receptor antagonist that is used to treat opioid intoxication, may cause more rapid and intense symptoms of withdrawal

A

Naloxone

233
Q

Sweating, dilated pupils, piloerection, and flu-like symptoms are symptoms of withdrawal from this class of drugs

A

Opioid

234
Q

Opioids used for long-term maintenance from opioid withdrawal

A

Methadone, buprenorphine

235
Q

Most widely abused sedative hypnotics

A

Short-acting barbiturates (pentobarbital)

236
Q

Two date-rape drugs that work through enhancement of GABA receptors in the brain

A

Flunitrazepam, GHB (gamma-hydroxybutarate)

237
Q

Benzodiazepine antagonits used to treat benzodiazepine intoxication

A

Flumazenil

238
Q

Four major CNS stimulant drugs of abuse

A

Caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, amphetamines

239
Q

Treatments available for nicotine addiction

A

Patch, gum, lozenge, buproprion, varenicline

240
Q

CNS stimulant that acts by inhibiting reuptake of neurotransmitters; may cause pupil dilation, alter tactile sensation, irregular breathing, and cardiac toxicity

A

Cocaine

241
Q

Amphetamine derivatives commonly abused

A

Methamphetamine (crystal meth), MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine, or ecstasy)

242
Q

Drug of abuse that was developed as a dissociative anesthetic; intoxication leads to both horizontal and vertical nystagmus, analgesia, psychosis, delirium, and seizures

A

PCP (phencyclidine, or angel dust)

243
Q

Synthetic ergot derivative that can produce perceptual hallucinations and used as an illicit drug; pay cause paranoia

A

LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide)

244
Q

Active ingredietni s tetrahydrocannabinol (THC); side effects include impairment of judgment, altered sense of time, increased appetite, and hallucinations

A

Marijuana

245
Q

Use of all antipsychotic medication in this group of patients is associated with increased risk of deaths

A

Elderly with dementia-related psychosis

246
Q

Antipsychotics that repress primarily the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Typical antipsychotics

247
Q

Primary mechanism of action of typical antipsychotics

A

Inhibits D2 receptors

248
Q

Common endocrine side effects of all typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea

249
Q

Two low potency, typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Chlorpromazine, thioridazine

250
Q

Typical antipsychotic associated with retinopathy and cardiac toxicity

A

Thioridazine

251
Q

Common side effects of low potency typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Dry mouth (anticholinergic), sedation (antihistamine), hypotension (alpha1 block)

252
Q

Three high potency, typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Haloperidol, fluphenazine, trifluoperazine

253
Q

Typical antipsychotic that can also be used for Tourette syndrome

A

Haloperidol

254
Q

Side effects more commonly associated with high potency typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Dystonia, akathisia, bradykinesia, tardive dyskinesia (extrapyramidal symptoms)

255
Q

Life-threatening side effect associated with typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

256
Q

Treatment for drug-induced neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dantrolene

257
Q

Advantage of atypical over typical antipsychotics

A

Less extrapyramidal symptoms, more effect against negative symptoms of schizophrenia

258
Q

Primary mechanism of action of atypical antipsychotics

A

Inhibit 5-HT2 receptors

259
Q

Atypical antipsychotic that can produce potentially fatal agranulocytosis and increase incidence of seizures

A

Clozapine

260
Q

Two atypical antipsychotics that can cause weight gain

A

Clozapine, olanzapine

261
Q

Two atypical antipsychotics that can prolong the QT interval

A

Risperidone, ziprasidone

262
Q

Atypical antipsychotic that can increase prolactin levels and cause gynecomastia and irregular menstruation in men and women, respectively

A

Risperidone

263
Q

Atypical antipsychotic that can also be used to treat irritability in autistic syndrome

A

Aripiprazole

264
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants

A

-iptuline, -ipramine, dozepine, amoxapine

265
Q

Mechanism of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Block serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake

266
Q

Common side effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Autonomic (block muscarinic and alpha1), sedation

267
Q

Tricyclic secondary amines that produce less sedation and autonomic side effects (compared with tricyclic tertiary amines)

A

Nortriptyline, desipramine

268
Q

Three life-threatening side effects associated with tricyclic antidepressants

A

Convulsion, cardiotoxicity, coma (3 C’s)

269
Q

Tricyclic antidepressent used for enuresis

A

Imipramine

270
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant used in obsessive compulsive disorder

A

Clomipramine

271
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant with antihistamine effect and is indicated for insomnia

A

Doxepin

272
Q

Class of antidepressants that has fewer sedative and autonomic side effects than tricyclic antidepressants and indicated for panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, social phobias, bulimia, obsessive compulsive behavior, and post-traumatic stress disorder

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)

273
Q

Four selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

A

Fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, citalopram

274
Q

Serious side effect of SSRIs when used with other drugs such as MAOIs, SNRIs, or TCAs

A

Serotonin syndrome

275
Q

Two selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

A

Duloxetine, venlafaxine

276
Q

Class of drug that is most useful in patients with anxiety, hypochondriasis, and depression that is refractory to other antidepressants

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

277
Q

Mechanism of action of isocarboxazid, phenelzine, and tranylcypromine

A

Irreversible inhibition of monoamine oxidase A and B

278
Q

Mechanism of action of selegiline

A

Selectively inhibits monoamine oxidase B

279
Q

A fatal condition that results from combination of monoamine oxidase inhibitors with tyramine-containing foods

A

Hypertensive crisis

280
Q

Antidepressant that non-selectively inhibits neuronal reuptake; less likely to cause sedation, autonomic, cardiovascular, or sexual dysfunction; also used for smoking cessation

A

Buproprion

281
Q

Antidepressant that inhibits serotonin reuptake but also antagonizes 5HT-2 receptors; causes priapism

A

Trazodone

282
Q

Antidepressant that inhibits alpha 2, 5HT-2, and 5HT-3 receptors to increase release of norepinephrine and serotonin

A

Mirtazapine

283
Q

First line drug for classic bipolar disorder with euphoric mania

A

Lithium

284
Q

Major route of elimination for Lithium

A

Kidneys

285
Q

Side effects of lithium

A

Tremor, hypothyroidism, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, fetal cardiac defects

286
Q

Antineoplastic folic acid analogue that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

Methotrexate

287
Q

Antineoplastic pyrimidine analog that inhibits thymidylate synthetase

A

5-flurouracil (5-FU)

288
Q

Antineoplastic pyrimidine analog that inhibits DNA polymerase

A

Cytarabine

289
Q

Serious side effect associated with cytarabine

A

Pancytopenia

290
Q

Three antineoplastic purine analogs that inhibit purine synthesis

A

Azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine, 6-thioguanine

291
Q

Drug used concurrently with antineoplastics to reduce renal precipitation of urates

A

Allopurinol

292
Q

Two antineoplastics that require dose-reduction in patients who are taking allopurinol

A

Azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine

293
Q

Inhibits microtubule formation by binding to beta-tubulin; dose-limiting side effect is bone marrow suppression

A

Vinblastine

294
Q

Inhibits microtubule formation by binding to beta-tubulin; dose-limiting side effect is neurotoxicty

A

Paclitaxel, -taxels

295
Q

Two prodrugs, that after liver bioactivation, bind to N7 nitrogen of guanine and cross-link DNA

A

Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

296
Q

Serious side effect of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide due to generation of acrolein

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

297
Q

Agents that is used to bind acrolein and prevent drug-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Mesna

298
Q

Nitrosureas that spontaneously form active intermediates that cross-link DNA; can cross blood-brain-barrier and is indicated for brain tumors

A

Carmustine, -mustines

299
Q

Alkylating agent that has greater activity against myeloid cells than lymphoid cells; serious side effects include myelosuppression and pulmonary fibrosis

A

Busulfan

300
Q

Two anthracyclines that chelate DNA, form free radicals, and cause dose-limiting cardiotoxicity

A

Daunorubicin, doxorubicin

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