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Step 1 Review > Pharmacology One-liners 1 > Flashcards

Pharmacology One-liners 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Half-life (T1/2)

A

Time it takes for amount of drug to fall to half its value, constant in first order kinetics (majority of drugs)

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2
Q

Volume of distribution (VD)

A

Relates the amount of drug in the body to the plasma concentration

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3
Q

Cp

A

Plasma concentration of a drug at a given time

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4
Q

Clearance (CL)

A

The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its plasma concentration

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5
Q

First pass effect

A

Hepatic metabolism of the drug before it reaches the systemic circulation

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6
Q

Bioavailability (F)

A

The fraction of unchanged drug that reaches systemic circulation after administration

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7
Q

Steady state

A

When the rate of drug input equals the rate of drug elimination

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8
Q

Different Steps of Phase I

A

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis

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9
Q

Inducers of CYP450

A 
Rifampin
Phenobarbitol
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
St. John's wort
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10
Q

Inhibitors of CYP450

A 
Macrolides
Ketoconazole (azoles)
Ritonavir (protease inhibitors)
Cimetadine
Grapefruit juice
Quinidine
Amiodarone
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11
Q

Phase II Conjugation reactions

A 
Glucuronidation
Acetylation
Glutathione conjugation
Glycine conjugation
Sulfation
Methylation
Water conjugation
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12
Q

First-order kinetics

A

Constant percentage of drug metabolized per unit time

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13
Q

Zero-order kinetics

A

Constant amount of drug metabolized per unit time

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14
Q

Loading dose

A 
Cp x (Vd/F)
Target plasma concentration times [volume of distribution/bioavailability]
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15
Q

Maintenance dose

A 
Cp x (CL/F)
Concentration in the plasma times [clearance/bioavailability]
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16
Q

Affinity

A

Strength of interaction between drug and its receptor

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17
Q

Specificity

A

Selectivity of a drug for its receptor

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18
Q

Potency

A

Amount of drug necessary to elicit a biological effect compared with another drug

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19
Q

Efficacy

A

Ability of a drug to produce the maximal biological effect

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20
Q

Full agonist

A

Ability of a drug to produce maximal response after binding to the receptor

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21
Q

Partial agonist

A

Ability to produce less than maximal response after binding to the receptor

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22
Q

Competitive antagonist

A

Ability to bind reversibly to the same site as the drug and without activating the effector system

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23
Q

Noncompetitive antagonist

A

Ability to bind irreversibly to the active site or bind to a site distinctly separate from the agonist binding site

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24
Q

Which substances use an intracellular receptor as the mechanism of action?

A

Steroids

Hormones

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25
Q

Which substances use transmembrane receptors that have intrinsic enzymatic activity as the mechanism of action?

A 
Insulin
EGF
TGF-beta
PDGF
ANP
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26
Q

Which substances use ligand-gated ion channels in the mechanism of action?

A

Acetylcholine

Nicotine

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27
Q

ED50

A

Dose that produces therapeutic response in 50% of the population

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28
Q

TD50

A

Dose that is toxic to 50% of the population

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29
Q

LD50

A

Dose that is lethal to 50% of the population

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30
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Window between therapeutic effect and toxic effect

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31
Q

High therapeutic index

A

Indicates drugs that have a high margin of safety

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32
Q

Low therapeutic index

A

Indicates drugs that have a narrow margin of safety

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33
Q

Antidote for lead poisoning

A

Edetate calcium disodium
Succimer
Dimercaprol

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34
Q

Antidote for cyanide poisoning

A

Nitrates
Thiosulfate
Hydroxocobalamin

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35
Q

Antidote for anticholinergic poisoning

A

Physostigmine

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36
Q

Antidote for organophosphate or acetylcholinesterase poisoning

A 
Atropine
Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
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37
Q

Antidote for iron salt poisoning

A

Deferoxamine

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38
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen poisoning

A

N-acetylcysteine

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39
Q

Antidote for arsenic, mercury, and gold poisoning

A

Dimercaprol

Succimer

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40
Q

Antidote for Wilson’s disease (copper poisoning)

A

Penicillamine

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41
Q

Antidote used for heparin toxicity

A

Protamine Sulfate

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42
Q

Antidote used for warfarin toxicity

A

Vitamin K1 and fresh frozen plasma

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43
Q

Antidote for tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), streptokinase

A

Aminocaproic acid

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44
Q

Antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity

A

Fomepizole

Ethanol

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45
Q

Antidote for opioid toxicity

A

Naloxone (IV)

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46
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity

A

Flumazenil

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47
Q

Antidote for tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

A

Sodium bicarbonate (alkalinize plasma)

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48
Q

Antidote for carbon monoxide poisoning

A

100% O2 and hyperbaric O2

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49
Q

Antidote for digitalis toxicity

A

Digibind

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50
Q

Antidote for methotrexate toxicity

A

Leucovorin

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51
Q

Antidote for beta-blocker overdose

A

Glucagon

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52
Q

Method to reduce salicylate intoxication

A 
Sodium bicarbonate (alkalinize urine)
Dialysis
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53
Q

This agent has greater affinity for muscarinic receptors and used for postoperatives and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

A

Bethanechol

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54
Q

Muscarinic that is very lipid soluble and used in glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

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55
Q

Muscarinic used to treat dry mouth in Sjogren’s syndrome

A

Pilocarpine

Cevimeline

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56
Q

Toxicity of cholinergics

A 
DUMBELSS
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchoconstriction
Excitation of skeletal muscle/CNS
Lacrimation
Salivation
Sweating
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57
Q

Edrophonium

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor, short duration of action, used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

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58
Q

Neostigmine

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor, intermediate duration of action, used off-label for postoperative paralytic ileus and urinary retention

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59
Q

Physostigmine

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor, lipid soluble, indicated for atropine overdose and glaucoma

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60
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

Treatment of myasthenia gravis and sometimes used prophylactically for organophosphate poisoning in chemical warfare

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61
Q

Echothiophate

A

Organophosphate, indicated for glaucoma but not used much clinically due to long duration of action

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62
Q

Organophosphate insecticides

A

Malathion

Parathion

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63
Q

What is the most important cause of acute deaths in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity?

A

Respiratory failure

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64
Q

Atropine

A

Used in treatment of muscarinic symptoms in organophosphate overdose

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65
Q

Mechanism of atropine

A

Nonselective antimuscarinic

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66
Q

Benztropine

A

Antimuscarinic that treats Parkinsonism and extrapyramidal disease

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67
Q

Scopolamine

A

Antimuscarinic for the treatment of motion sickness

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68
Q

Which drugs produce mydriasis and cycloplegia?

A

Atropine, anti-muscarinics

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69
Q

2 antimuscarinics that cause bronchodilation in asthma and COPD

A

Ipratropium

Tiotropium

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70
Q

Oxybutynin

A

Antimuscarinic indicated for overactive bladder muscle dysfunction

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71
Q

Mnemonic for anticholinergic toxicity

A

Dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, blind as a bat”

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72
Q

What is the most dangerous effect of anticholinergic toxicity in what age group?

A

Atropine fever

Infants

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73
Q

Contraindications for use of atropine

A

Infants
Closed-angle glaucoma
Prostatic hypertrophy

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74
Q

Menmonic for beta receptors

A 
1 heart (B1)
2 lungs (B2)
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75
Q

Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

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76
Q

Methamphetamine

A

Indirect acting sympathomimetic, reuptake inhibitor, commonly abused
Indicated for attention deficit disorder and weight reduction

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77
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Alpha agonist indicated for nasal congestion, hypotension, and mydriasis induction

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78
Q

Albuterol

A

Short acting Beta 2 agonist, drug of choice for acute asthma

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79
Q

Salmeterol

A

Longer-acting beta 2 agonist, indicated for prophylaxis of asthma

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80
Q

Its ability to increase heart rate makes it useful as adjunct therapy for acute heart failure and hypovolemia or septic shock

A

Beta 1 agonist

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81
Q

Its ability to vasoconstrict and increase blood pressure makes it useful as local decongestant and for the therapy of spinal shock (temporary maintenance of blood pressure)

A

Alpha 1 agonist

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82
Q

Alpha 1 agonist toxicity

A

Hypertension

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83
Q

Midodrine

A

Indicated for symptomatic orthostatic hypotension

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84
Q

Terbutaline

A

Beta 2 agonist used to suppress premature labor, but cardiac stimulatory effects may be hazardous to mother and fetus

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85
Q

Ephedrine

A

Indirect acting sympathomimetic, improves urinary continence in children and elderly with enuresis

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86
Q

Beta agonists used in acute congestive heart failures

A

Dobutamine and dopamine

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87
Q

Beta 1 agonist toxicity

A

sinus tachycardia and serious arrhythmias

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88
Q

Beta 2 agonist toxicity

A

Skeletal muscle tremor

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89
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

Irreversible, nonselective alpha-blocker indicated for pheochromocytoma

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90
Q

Phentolamine

A

Reversible, nonselective alpha blocker indicated for pheochromocytoma

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91
Q

Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin

A

Selective alpha 1 blocker used for hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, may cause first dose orthostatic hypotension

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92
Q

Tamsulosin

A

Alpha 1a-selective blocker used for benign prostatic hyperplasia

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93
Q

Side effects of alpha blockers

A

Orthostatic hypotension (especially w/ first dose) and reflex tachycardia

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94
Q

Selective Beta-1 receptor blockers useful for treating cardiac conditions in patients with asthma

A 
ABEAM
Acebutolol
Betaxolol
Esmolol
Atenolol
Metoprolol
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95
Q

Labetalol/carvedilol

A

Blocks alpha 1 and beta receptors and indicated for the treatment of CHF

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96
Q

Pindolol/acebutolol

A

Beta blockers with partial agonist activity, can bronchodilate and may have an advantage treating patients with asthma

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97
Q

Timolol

A

Non-selective beta blocker that lacks local anesthetic activity, indicated for glaucoma

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98
Q

Esmolol

A

short-acting beta blocker that can be given parenterally

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99
Q

Clinical uses of beta blockers

A

Treatment of hypertension, angina, arrhythmias, and chronic congestive heart failure

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100
Q

Side effects of Beta blockers

A

Bradycardia, AV block, impotence, dyslipidemia, exacerbation of COPD

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101
Q

Beta-blockers should be used cautiously in

A

Asthma (bronchospastic effects)
Diabetes (block signs of hypoglycemia)
Peripheral vascular disease

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102
Q

Beta blockers’ effect on the heart in antianginal therapy

A

Reduce heart rate, blood pressure, contractility, and increase end-diastolic volume

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103
Q

DOC for Classic (exertional) angina

A

Beta blockers

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104
Q

Carvedilol

A

A nonselective beta blocker with alpha 1 blocking effect; indicated for congestive heart failure

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105
Q

Class of drugs which inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme

A

ACE Inhibitors

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106
Q

Captopril/enalapril

A

ACE Inhibitors

End in -pril

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107
Q

Side effects of ace inhibitors

A

Dry cough
Hyperkalemia
Angioedema

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108
Q

Bradykinin

A

Inactivated by angiotensin converting enzyme contributes to dry cough and angioedema

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109
Q

Contraindication to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

A

Pregnancy

Hyperkalemia

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110
Q

Mechanism of action of losartan/valsartan

A

Block AT1 receptors

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111
Q

Side effect associated with ace inhibitors but not arb blockers

A

Dry cough

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112
Q

Mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers

A

Block L-type calcium channels

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113
Q

Ca2+ channel blockers w/ predominant effect on arteriole dilation

A

Dihydropyridines
Nifedipine
Amlodipine
Nimodipine

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114
Q

Ca2+ channel blockers w/ predominant effect on the heart

A

Non-dihydropyridines
Verapamil
Diltiazem

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115
Q

Side effects of Ca2+ channel blockers

A

Constipation
Peripheral edema
Cardiac depression
AV block

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116
Q

Methyldopa

A

Alpha 2 agonist used in pregnant women with hypertension

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117
Q

Side effects of methyldopa

A

Positive Coomb’s hemolytic anemia
SLE-like syndrome
CNS depression

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118
Q

Methyldopa contraindicated in

A

Geriatrics due to its CNS depression effects

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119
Q

Side effects of clonidine

A

Rebound hypertension, sedation, dry mouth

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120
Q

Hydralazine

A

Direct vasodilator of arteriolar smooth muscle by increasing cGMP and inhibit IP3-induced calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

121
Q

Side effect of hydralazine

A

Lupus-like syndrome

122
Q

Minoxidil

A

Arterial vasodilator that works by opening K+ channels

123
Q

Side effect of minoxidil

A

Hypertrichosis

124
Q

Mechanism of action of nitric oxide

A

Stimulates cGMP, leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation

125
Q

Nitroprusside

A

IV nitrate used in hypertensive crisis

126
Q

What does nitroprusside dilate?

A

Arteries and veins

127
Q

Side effect of nitroprusside

A

cyanide poisoning

128
Q

MOA of sildenafil

A

Inhibits phosphodiesterase-5, enhancing effects of nitric oxide-activated increases in cGMP

129
Q

Drugs used in the management of exertional (classic) angina

A

Nitrates
Calcium channel blockers
Beta blockers

130
Q

How does aspirin reduce mortality rate in unstable angina?

A

Inhibiting platelet aggregation

131
Q

Mechanism of action of organic nitrates

A

Requires enzymatic release of NO, relaxes vascular smooth muscle of veins

132
Q

Why are nitrate-free intervals needed?

A

Tolerance

133
Q

Side effects of nitrates

A

Reflex tachycardia, hypotension, flushing, and throbbing headache due to meningeal artery dilation

134
Q

MOA of Cardiac glycosides

A

Inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase and indirectly increase intracellular calcium and cardiac contractility

135
Q

Indication for digoxin

A

Atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure

136
Q

Digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by

A

Hypokalemia

137
Q

Amrinone/milrinone

A

Phosphodiesterase (PDE3) inhibitors indicated for acute congestive heart failure
Long-term use is associated with increased mortality

138
Q

Side effect of amrinone/milrinone

A

Thrombocytopenia

139
Q

Nesiritide

A

Agent used in acutely decompensated congestive heart failure resembling natriuretic peptide

140
Q

MOA of Class I antiarrhythmics

A

Sodium channel blockers

141
Q

MOA of Class II antiarrhythmics

A

Beta-blockers

142
Q

MOA of Class III antiarrhythmics

A

Potassium channel blockers

143
Q

MOA of Class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Calcium channel blockers

144
Q

Limiting side effect of Class Ia and III antiarrhythmics

A

Prolongs QT Interval

145
Q

Most common side effects of quinidine that limits its use

A

Cinchonism

146
Q

Major drug interaction with quinidine

A

Increases concentration of digoxin

147
Q

Contraindication of disopyramide use

A

Heart failure

148
Q

Side effect of procainamide

A

Systemic lupus-like syndrome

149
Q

Class IC antirrhythmics

A

Flecainide, Propafenone
Used as last line antiarrhythmic agents due to proarrhythmic property
Strongest Na+ channel blocker

150
Q

Beta blockers

A

Antiarrhythmic agents that decrease mortality

151
Q

Esmolol

A

Used intravenously for acute tachycardia during and post- surgery

152
Q

Amiodarone

A

DOC for management of acute ventricular tachycardia
Antiarrhythmic effective in most types of arrhythmia
Class III antiarrhythmic that exhibits properties of all 4 classes

153
Q

Side effects of amiodarone

A

Thyroid dysfunction
Corneal deposits
Liver damage and pulmonary fibrosis

154
Q

Sotalol

A

Antiarrhythmic that exhibits Class II and III properties

155
Q

Side effect of sotalol

A

Prolongs QT interval

156
Q

Life-threatening cardiac event that prolonged WT interval leads to

A

Torsades de pointes

157
Q

Adenosine

A

Drug of choice for narrow complex paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

158
Q

MOA of adenosine

A

Activates G-protein coupled K+ channels in atrium, SA and AV node

159
Q

Anti-arrhythmic with <10 second duration of action

A

Adenosine

160
Q

DOC for Early after depolarizations (Torsade)

A

Magnesium sulfate

161
Q

MOA of statins

A

Inhibits HMG COA Reductase

162
Q

Contraindication for statins

A

Pregnancy

163
Q

Side effects of HMG COA reductase inhibitors

A

Rhabdomyolysis and hepatotoxicity

164
Q

Two parameters to obtain before initiation of statins

A

LFT’s

Creatine Kinases

165
Q

How does grapefruit juice affect statins?

A

Increases statin effect by inhibiting CYP450 3A4

166
Q

Concurrent use of fibrates and statins increases risk of

A

Rhabdomyolysis

167
Q

Class of agents of cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevalem

A

Bile acid-binding resins

168
Q

Major nutritional side effect of bile acid-binding resins

A

Impair absorption of fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,L)

169
Q

Fibrates increase activity of

A

Lipoprotein lipase

170
Q

Side effect of fenofibrate and gemfibrozil

A

Gallstone formation

171
Q

MOA involves indirect reduction of liver triglyceride synthesis

A

Niacin, fibrates

172
Q

Side effects of niacin

A

Cutaneous flush

173
Q

Cutaneous flush due to niacin can be reduced by pretreatment with…

A

NSAIDs

174
Q

Ezetimibe

A

Inhibits intestinal cholesterol absorption by inhibiting Niemann Pick C1 Like 1 (NPC1L1) Protein

175
Q

MOA of Aspirin

A

Irreversibly blocks COX1 and COX2

176
Q

Aspirin

A

Agent used to treat MI and to reduce incidence of subsequent MI

177
Q

Side effect of aspirin

A

GI bleeding

178
Q

Ticlopidine

A

Antiplatelet drug reserved for patients allergic to aspirin

179
Q

Side effect of ticlopidine

A

Neutropenia and agranulocytossi

180
Q

Clopidogrel/ticlopidine

A

Irreversible inhibitor of platelet P2Y12 receptors; effective in preventing TIA

181
Q

Dipyridamole, cilostazol

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor indicated for intermittent claudication

182
Q

Drugs which block glycoprotein IIb/IIIa involved in platelet cross-linking

A

Abciximab, tirofiban, eptifibatide

183
Q

Warfarin

A

Vitamin K anticoagulant with zero-order kinetics of elimination
Check PT/INR

184
Q

Route of administration of warfarin

A

Oral

185
Q

Contraindication for warfarin

A

Pregnancy

186
Q

Anticoagulant choice in pregnancy

A

Heparin

187
Q

MOA of Heparin

A

Increases activity of antithrombin 3

Check PTT

188
Q

Routes of administration of heparin

A

IV and SC

189
Q

Side effect of both warfarin and heparin

A

Bleeding

190
Q

Specific side-effect of heparin

A

Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

191
Q

Bivalrudin, argatroban

A

Two anticoagulants used for prophylaxis and treatment of thrombosis in patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

192
Q

Alteplase

A

Thrombolytic used for acute myocardial infarction and ischemic (non-hemorrhagic) cerebral vascular accident (stroke)

193
Q

MOA of thrombolytics

A

Lyse thrombi by catalyzing the formation of plasmin which cleaves fibrin

194
Q

Side effect of tissue plasminogen activators

A

Cerebral hemorrhage

195
Q

Indications for thrombolytics

A

Pulmonary embolism

Severe DVT

196
Q

Streptokinase

A

Thrombolytic that can cause allergic reaction and non-selective systemic fibrinolysis

197
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

198
Q

Diuretic used as prophylactic for mountain sickness and glaucoma

A

Acetazolamide

199
Q

Side effects of acetazolamide

A

Paresthesias
Alkalization of urine (precipitate Ca2+ salts)
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Encephalopathy in patients with hepatic empairment

200
Q

Mechanism of action of loop diuretics

A

Inhibits Na+/K+/Cl2- cotransporter

201
Q

Diuretic used in hypertensive patients with renal failure

A

Loop diuretics (furosemide, ethacrynic acid, butmetanide)

202
Q

Site of action of loop diuretics

A

Thick ascending limb

203
Q

Side effects of loop diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and ototoxicity

204
Q

Aminoglycosides used with loop diuretics potentiate this adverse effect

A

Ototoxicity

205
Q

Calcium

A

Electrolyte lost in urine by acute treatment with loop diuretics but can be retained by thiazides

206
Q

Mechanism of thiazide diuretics

A

Inhibit Na+/Cl- cotransport

207
Q

Diuretic used as first line for treatment of hypertension

A

Thiazides

208
Q

Site of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Early distal convoluted tubule

209
Q

Class of drugs that may cause cross-sensitivity with thiazide diuretics

A

Sulfonamides

210
Q

Side-effects of thiazide diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hyperlipidemia, and hyperglycemia

211
Q

Mechanism of action of amiloride

A

Inhibit epithelial sodium channels channels in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct

212
Q

Mechanism of action of spironolactone

A

Inhibit mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) receptor resulting in inhibition of Na/K ATPase and ENaC synthesis

213
Q

Diuretic used to treat primary aldosteronism

A

Spironolactone, eplerenone

214
Q

Side effect of spironolactone

A

Gynecomastia, hyperkalemia, impotence

215
Q

Diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure

A

Mannitol

216
Q

Diuretics work in congestive failure by…

A

reducing preload

217
Q

Desmopressin

A

Antidiuretic hormone analog used for central diabetes insipidus and nocturnal enuresis

218
Q

Agents used for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion

A

Tolvaptan and conivaptan

219
Q

Demeclocycline

A

An early generation tetracycline that may be used for chronic persistent syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion

220
Q

Side effects of demeclocycline

A

Stunted bone growth and teeth discoloration for children under 8 years of age

221
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

Nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole, fosfomycin

222
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute pyelonephritis

A

Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin), trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

223
Q

Mechanism of action of penicillin

A

Block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase and block peptidoglycan cross-linkage

224
Q

Penicillins active against penicillinase-secreting bacteria

A

Methicillin, nafcillin, and dicloxacillin

225
Q

Cheap wide-spectrum antibiotic drug of choice for otitis media

A

Amoxicillin

226
Q

Class of antibioticst hat have 10% cross sensitivity with penicillins

A

Cephalosporins

227
Q

Penicillins active against pseudomonas

A

Piperacillin and ticarcillin

228
Q

Drug of choice for N. gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

229
Q

Beta-lactam that can be used in penicillin-allergic patients

A

aztreonam

230
Q

Side effect of imipenem

A

Seizures

231
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of serious pseudomembranous colitis

A

Oral vancomycin

232
Q

Drug used for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

233
Q

Mechanism of action of vancomycin

A

Binds D-Ala-D-Ala on murein monomers and prevent polymerization of the murein monomers

234
Q

Antibiotic causing red-man syndrome (and prevention)

A

Vancomycin

Prevented by infusion at a slow rate and antihistamines

235
Q

Drug that causes teeth discoloration

A

Tetracycline

236
Q

Mechanism of action of tetracycline

A

Decreases protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosome and prevent binding of tRNA

237
Q

Two toxicities of aminoglycosides

A

Nephro and ototoxicity

238
Q

Aminoglycoside less used due to its irreversible vestibular toxicity

A

Strepotmycin

239
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides

A

Erythromycin, clarithromycin

Inhibit protein synthesis binding to 23S rRNA of 50S ribosome subunit

240
Q

Drug of choice for Legionnaires’ disease

A

Azithromycin or levofloxacin

241
Q

Drug notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin

242
Q

Drug that causes gray baby syndrome and aplastic anemia

A

Chloramphenicol

243
Q

Inhibits isoleucyl tRNA and used topically for impetigo

A

Mupirocin

244
Q

Drug of choice for giardia, entamoeba, pseudomembranous colitis (C. diff), and trichomas

A

Metronidazole

245
Q

Drug of choice from treatment of mild to moderate pseudomembranous colitis

A

Metronidazole

246
Q

Disulfiram-like reaction

A

Side-effect of metronidazole when given with alcohol

247
Q

Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerasei II) and topoisomerase IV

248
Q

Reason fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnancy

A

Cartilage damage

249
Q

Anemia caused by trimethoprim

A

Megaloblastic anemia

250
Q

Anti-bacterials that cause hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients

A

Sulfonamides

251
Q

Mechanism of action of sulfonamides

A

Inhibit dihydropteroate synthase

252
Q

Quadruple therapy for treatment of tuberculosis

A

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol

253
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis in exposed patients

A

Rifampin

254
Q

Common side effect of Rifampin

A

Orange urine discoloration

255
Q

Neurotoxicity with isoniazid can be prevented by

A

Administration of Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

256
Q

Side effect of isoniazid

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus, peripheral neuritis, hepatitis

257
Q

Drug of choice for leprosy

A

Dapsone

258
Q

Toxicity of amphotericin

A

Nephrotoxicity

259
Q

Side effect of ketoconazole only in men

A

Gynecomastia

260
Q

Mechanism of action of nystatin

A

Binds to ergosterol and creates a pore in fungal membrane

261
Q

Technique used to diagnose perianal itching, and the drug used to treat it

A

Scotch tape technique and mebendazole (albendazole)

262
Q

Drug used in exoerythrocytic cycle of malaria

A

Primaquine

263
Q

Drug of choice for influenza A and B

A

Oseltamivir or Zanamivir

264
Q

Drug of choice for respiratory syncytial virus

A

Ribavirin

265
Q

Drug of choice for herpes and its mechanism of action

A

Acyclovir; activated by viral thymidine kinase, inhibits viral DNA replication

266
Q

Drug of choice for cytomegalovirus treatment

A

Ganciclovir

267
Q

Side effect of ganciclovir

A

Myelosuppression (neutropenia)

268
Q

First line for treatment of chronic hepatitis B virus infections

A

IFN + nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)

269
Q

First-line for the treatment of chronic hepatitis C virus infections in genotype 1 patients

A

IFN + ribavirin + protease inhibitor (-previr)

270
Q

HIV medication used to reduce mother-to-child transmission during birth

A

Zidovudine, nevirapine

271
Q

Antivirals associated with neutropenia

A

Ganciclovir, zidovudine, interferon

272
Q

Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors approved for both HIV and HBV infections

A

Tenofovir

Lamivudine

273
Q

Antiviral/antiretroviral that are teratogens

A

Efavirenz, ribavirin

274
Q

Anti-retroviral with a dose limiting toxicity of pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathy

A

Didanosine

275
Q

Three anti-retroviral agents associated with fatal Stephen-Johnson syndrome

A

Nevirapine, efavirenz, etravirine

276
Q

Anti-retroviral class that causes drug interactions by causing induction of CYP enzymes

A

Non-nucleos(t)ide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

277
Q

Anti-retroviral class that causes drug interactions by causing inhibition of CYP enzymes

A

Protease inhibitors

278
Q

Class of drugs that reversibly inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX)

A

NSAIDs

279
Q

Mechanism of action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A

Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (cox)

280
Q

Four main actions of NSAIDs

A

Anti-inflammatory, analgesia, antipyretic, and antiplatelet activity

281
Q

Irreversible, nonselective COX inhibitor that displays zero-order kinetics of elimination

A

Aspirin

282
Q

The reason why aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infection

A

Potential for development of Reye’s syndrome

283
Q

Two side effects of salicylates

A

Tinnitus, GI bleeding

284
Q

Prostaglandins that cause abortions

A

Prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol), PGE2, and PGF2 alpha

285
Q

Prostaglandin analog indicated for severe pulmonary hypertension

A

Epoprostenol (PGI2)

286
Q

Prostaglandin analog used as 2nd line for erectile dysfunction

A

Alprostadil (PGE1)

287
Q

Prostaglandin analog used in pediatrics to maintain patency of ductus arteriosus

A

Alprostadil (PGE1)

288
Q

NSAID that may be used for closure of patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

289
Q

NSAID available orally, IM, IV, nasally, and ophthalmically

A

Ketoralac

290
Q

NSAID used mostly for anesthesia and has limited duration (<5 days) due to nephrotoxicity

A

Ketoralac

291
Q

Difference between Cox 1 and Cox 2

A

Cox 1: constitutive

Cox 2: inducible during inflammation

292
Q

Selective Cox 2 inhibitor

A

Celecoxib

293
Q

Cox 2 inhibitors may have reduced risk of

A

Gastric ulcers and GI bleeding

294
Q

Cox 2 inhibitors should be used cautiously in patients with

A

Pre-existing cardiac or renal disease

295
Q

Two main actions of acetaminophen

A

Antipyretic and analgesic activity

296
Q

Side effect of acetaminophen

A

Hepatotoxicity

297
Q

Inhibitor of lipoxygenase

A

Zileuton

298
Q

Major side effect of zileuton that limits its use

A

Liver toxicity

299
Q

Two leukotriene (LTD4) receptor antagonists used in asthma

A

Zarfirlukast and montelukast

Step 1 Review (6 decks)

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