Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Part 1 MFSRH 2024 > Pharmacology in SRH > Flashcards

Pharmacology in SRH Flashcards

1
Q

What are some examples of bactericidal antibiotics?

A

Beta-lactam antibiotics
Aminoglycosides
Fluoroquinolones
Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do bactericidal antibiotics work?

A

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do bacteriostatic antibiotics work?

A

Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis pathway
Inhibit DNA replication
Limit growth of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some examples of bacteriostatic antibiotics?

A

Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the classes of antibiotic relevant to SRH?

A
  1. Beta-lactam - includes subclasses of carbapenems, cephalosporins, monobactams, and penicillins
  2. Aminoglycosides
  3. Fluoroquinolones
  4. Macrolides
  5. Tetracyclines
  6. Other Abx that don’t fit classes - e.g. metronidazole and clindamycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does benzylpenicillin benzathine work (MOA)?

A

Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis through a blockade of the penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs), such as transpeptidases

This results in a bactericidal action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the MOA of gentamicin (aminoglycoside)?

A

Forms a bond with bacterial 30S ribosomal subunits, which causes misreading of mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the MOA of ofloxacin/moxifloxacin (fluroquinolones)?

A

Inhibits the supercoiling activity of bacterial DNA gyrase, halting DNA replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

On what organisms do ofloaxcin/moxifloxacin act?

A

Broad spectrum activity on both gram +ve and gram -ve organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What organisms does clindamycin act upon?

A

Gram +ve aerobes and a wide range of anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the MOA of clindamycin?

A

Primarily bacteriostatic

Bind to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome similarly to macrolides and inhibit the early stages of protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a severe, but not uncommon complication associated with clindamycin?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

With repeated doses in a pregnant woman, what may the amniotic concentration of clindamycin be relative to the maternal serum concentration?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which organisms does metronidazole act upon?

A

Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MOA of metronidazole?

A

Not fully established, but ?blocking nucleic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What advice should be given re: metronidazole and alcohol?

A

No alcohol during metronidazole therapy and for at least 48 hours afterwards because of the possibility of a disulfiram like (antabuse effect) reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does azithromycin work?

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor: 50S ribosome subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does erythromycin work?

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor: 50S ribosome subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In whom is erythromycin contraindicated?

A

Long QT, or those at risk of long QT (e.g. those with electrolyte disturbance)
With certain medications, e.g. simvastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

From where is erythromycin absorbed?

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does doxycycline work?

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor: 30S ribosome subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does fluconazole/clotrimazole work?

A

Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does ciprofloxacin work?

A

Targets DNA gyrase in gram negative organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of gene mutation are associated with azithromycin/macrolide resistance?

A

23sRNA gene mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the constituents of EMLA cream?
Lidocaine - 2.5% Prilocaine - 2.5%
26
What can high doses of prilocaine cause?
Increase in methaemoglobin levels particularly in conjunction with methaemoglobin-inducing medicinal products (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrofurantoin, phenytoin, phenobarbital).
27
Is EMLA cream considered safe in pregnancy and breastfeeding?
Yes
28
The quality of the anaesthesia with EMLA cream depends on what?
Dose AND application time (time required to procedure reliable anaesthesia = usually 1-2 hours, apart from on the face, where due to increased blood flow, peak affect achieved after 30-60 minutes)
29
What type of anaesthetics are lidocaine and prilocaine?
Amide-type
30
What is the mechanism of action of EMLA cream?
They both stabilise neuronal membranes by inhibiting the ionic fluxes required for the initiation and conduction of impulses, thereby producing local anaesthesia
31
1% lidocaine, contains how many mg of lidocaine per ml?
10mg per 1ml
32
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine when infiltrated for anaesthetic?
4.5mg/kg
33
Which drug may result in a slightly increased risk of Trisomy 21 if used within 3/12 of conception?
Colchicine
34
What is Gardasil 9 indicated for?
Premalignant lesions and cancers affecting the cervix, vulva, vagina and anus Genital warts
35
What is the MoA of Gardasil 9?
Adjuvanted non-infectious recombinant 9-valent vaccine It is prepared from the highly purified virus-like particles (VLPs) of the major capsid L1 protein
36
Gardasil is expected to protect again the HPV types that cause approximately what?
90% of cervical cancers 95% of adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) 75-85% of high-grade CIN 85-90% of HPV related vulvar cancers 90-95% of HPV related high-grade VIN 2/3 80-85% of HPV related vaginal cancers 75-85% of HPV related high-grade VaIN 2/3 90-95% of HPV related anal cancer 85-90% of HPV related high-grade AIN 2/3 90% of genital warts.
37
What temp should Gardasil 9/Rhophylac/Engerix B/Twinrix be stored at?
2-8 degrees-C
38
To when should vaccination with a live vaccine be delayed relative to the last anti-D injection?
3 months, as otherwise the efficacy of the live vaccine may be impaired
39
What does Rhophylac contain?
Specific antibodies (IgG) against the Rh(D) antigen of human erythrocytes
40
Do what degree can Rhophylac prevent Rh(D) immunisation?
Passive immunisation with anti-D immunoglobulin prevents Rh(D) immunisation in more than 99% of cases
41
When does absorption of anti-D following injection reach a maximum?
After 2-3 days
42
What is half life of anti-D?
3-4 weeks
43
How do Engerix B vaccines work?
Engerix B induces specific humoral antibodies against HBsAg (anti-HBs antibodies) Anti-HBs antibody concentrations ≥ 10m IU/ml correlate with protection to HBV infection
44
What is the protective efficacy of Engerix B?
95-100%
45
What are the dosing schedules of Twinrix?
0 - 1 - 6 months 0 - 7 - 21 days + 1 year boooster
46
What factor may reduce the immune response to Hep A vaccination?
Obesity
47
What factor may reduce the immune response to Hep B vaccination?
Older age Male gender Obesity Smoking Route of administration Some chronic underlying diseases
48
What is the seropretection rate against Hep after a course of Twinrix?
92% and 56% at 7 and 48 months respectively
49
What is the seropositivity rate for anti-HAV antibodies after a course of Twinrix?
97% at both 7 and 48 months
50
How may serum levels of anticonvulsant drugs - phenytoin, phenobarbital, primidone - be affect by folic acid adminsitration
Reduced
51
Absorption of folic acid may be reduced by which drugs?
Sulfasalazine Cholestyramine - folic acid 1 hour before or cholestryamine 4-6 hours after Al/Mg anatacids - take 2 hours after folic acid
52
How can folic acid affect the intestinal absorption of zinc?
Reduce it
53
How is folic acid absorbed?
Mucosa of the duodenum and upper part of the jejunum, rich in dihydrofolate reductase, where folic acid absorbed Once absorbed, folic acid rapidly reduced and then methylated to form tetrahydrofolic acid derivatives and transported to tissues
54
What is the MOA of ENG in Nexplanon?
Etonogestrel is the biologically active metabolite of desogestrel. It is structurally derived from 19-nortestosterone and binds with high affinity to progesterone receptors in the target organs. The contraceptive effect of etonogestrel is primarily achieved by inhibition of ovulation. Ovulations were not observed in the first two years of use of the implant and only rarely in the third year. Besides inhibition of ovulation, etonogestrel also causes changes in the cervical mucus, which hinders the passage of spermatozoa.
55
How does ivermectin work?
High affinity with glutamate-gated Cl- channels present in invertebrate nerve and muscle cells Binding to these channels promotes an increase in membrane permeability to Cl- ions = hyperpolarisation of the neural or muscle cell This results in neuromuscular paralysis and may lead to the death of certain parasites
56
How does aciclovir work?
Aciclovir is converted to aciclovir triphosphate in the presence of HSV Aciclovir triphosphate then interferes with the viral DNA polymerase and inhibits viral DNA replication with resultant chain termination following its incorporation into the viral DNA.
57
In whom is TXA contraindicated?
Active thromboembolic disease History of venous or arterial thrombosis
58
What is the MOA of TXA?
Competitively and reversibly inhibits the activation of plasminogen The binding of plasminogen to fibrin induces fibrinolysis - by occupying the necessary binding sites, TXA prevents this dissolution of fibrin, thereby stabilizing the clot and preventing hemorrhage
59
What is the MOA of mefenamic acid?
Binds the prostaglandin synthetase receptors COX-1 and COX-2, inhibiting the action of prostaglandin synthetase. As these receptors have a role as a major mediator of inflammation and/or a role for prostanoid signaling, the symptoms of pain are temporarily reduced
60
How do bisphosphonates work?
Inhibit bone resorption by attaching to hydroxyapatite binding sites on the bone, particularly in areas with active resorption As osteoclasts resorb bone, the bisphosphonate embedded in the bone is released and impairs the osteoclast’s ability to continue bone resorption
61
What is the MOA of denosumab?
Denosumab prevents RANKL from activating its receptor, RANK, on the surface of osteoclasts and their precursors. Prevention of the RANKL/RANK interaction inhibits osteoclast formation, function, and survival, thereby decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone mass and strength in both cortical and trabecular bone
62
How is denosumab administered?
S/C once every 6/12 into the thigh, abdomen or upper arm
63
How does raloxifene work?
SERM It occupies the same ER ligand binding site as estrogen - typically maintain the bone integrity by inhibiting the cytokines that recruit osteoclasts and oppose the bone-resorbing, Ca2+-mobilizing action of PTH In contrast, estrogens promote osteoblast proliferation, augment the production of TGF-β3 and bone morphogenic proteins, and inhibit apoptosis
64
How does teriparatide work?
Binding of teriparatide to PTH receptors on osteoblasts activates the downstream PKA- and PKC-dependent signaling pathways that promotes anabolic effects on bone

Part 1 MFSRH 2024 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions