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Deck Kat > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Predicts the RATE of movement of molecules

A

Fick’s law of diffusion

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2
Q

Increase lipid solubility means increased absorption

A

True

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3
Q

Increased aqueous solubility means increased clearance

A

True

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4
Q

Pharmacokinetics is the?

A

Interaction of the body to the drug

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5
Q

Pharmacodynamics is the?

A

Interaction of the drug to the body

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6
Q

Relationshipd between ph and charge of molecule is predicted by?

A

Henderson-hasselbach equation

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7
Q

Which drugs are not given via IM due to the risk of causing hematomas?

A

Anticoagulants

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8
Q

Which route has partial bypass?

A

Rectal route cause the superior rectal vein absorptive n leads to bypass

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9
Q

Slowest route of drug administration

A

Topical route (local effect)

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10
Q

What route of administration undergoes first pass effect?

A

Oral route

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11
Q

Drug distribution is dependent on 4 factors which are?

A

Blood flow
Organ size
Protein binding
Solubility

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12
Q

Metabolic fate of the Drug?

A

A CITVATED
T ERMINATED
E LIMNATED

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13
Q

What Is the mode of elimination for drugs that are not metabolized?

A

Excretion

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14
Q

Rate of elimination is PROPORTIONATE to the CONCENTRATION

A

Rate of elimination decreases by 50% everytime

FIRST ORDER ELIMINNATION (most common)

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15
Q

Rate of elimination is CONSTANT regardless of concentration

A

Zero-order elimination

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16
Q

Concentration decreases linearly overtime

A

Zero-order elimination

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17
Q

What drugs display zero order kinetics?

A

WHAT PET (TOL BUTA ka naa sa sIDE o?)

Warfarin
Heparin
Aspirin
Tolbutamide
Phenytoin
Ethanol
Theophylline
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18
Q

Properties of a receptor

A

PMS

Most are PROTEINS
must be MODIFIED
must be SELCTIVE

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19
Q

_______ is the concentration required to bind 50% of the receptors

A

Kd

Smaller kd greater affinity

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20
Q

Concentration of a drug wherein half of the maximal effect is achieved

A

EC50

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21
Q

Maximal effect of a drug is defined by

A

EMAX

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22
Q

Maximal number of receptors bound are called

A

BMax

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23
Q

How do we compute for a THERAPEUTIC INDEX?

A

TI = TD50 / ED50

Higher TI the safer the drug

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24
Q

What is the therapeutic window?

A

It is the dose RANGE between the MEC and MTC

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25
Q

Drugs that display tachyphylaxis

A

MED Loves to watch CNN in HD

M etoclopramide
E phedrine
D obutamine

L SD

C alcitonin
N itroglycerin
N icotine

H ydralazine
D esmopressin

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26
Q

Most important pharmacokinetic parameter to be considered in defining a rational study state during dosage regimen

A

Clearance

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27
Q

Steady state is achieved in how many half lives?

A

4-5 half lives

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28
Q

Condition where administration is equal to elimination

A

Steady state

  • amt of drug in the body does not change
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29
Q

What are phase I reActions?

A

HORDe

Hydrolysis
Oxidation
Reduction
Deamination

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30
Q

Drugs that are cytochrome P450 inducers

A

ETHel Booba takes PHEN-PHEN and Refuses Greasy Carb Shakes

Ethanol
Barbiturates except secobarbital
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital 
Rifampicin
Griseofulvin
Carbamazepine
Smoking and st.john's wort
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31
Q

Cytochrome p450 inhibitors

A

GRACE IS QVACK

Grapefruit juice
Ritonavir
Amiodarone
Cimetidine
Erythromycin

Isoniazid
Sulfonamides

Quinidine
Valproic acid
Allopurinol 
Chloramphenicol/chlorpromazine 
Ketoconazole
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32
Q

Suicide inhibitors

A

PASS

PTU
Allopurinol
Spironolactone
Secobarbital

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33
Q

Teratogenic effects

ACE INHIBITORS:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Antiepileptic drug:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Phenytoin:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
OHA: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Barbiturates:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A 
ACE INHIBITORS: fetal renal damage
Antiepileptic drug: neural tube defects
Phenytoin: FETAL HYDANTOIN SYNDROME
OHA: neonatal hypoglycemia 
Barbiturates: neonatal dependence
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34
Q

DIETHYLSTILBESTROL (DES) if given in a pregnant patient can cause?

A

VAGINAL CLEAR CELL ADENOCARCINOMA

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35
Q

Teratogenic effects

Ethanol:\_\_\_\_
Lithium:\_\_\_\_
Isotretinoin:\_\_\_\_\_
Iodide:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Misoprostol:\_\_\_\_\_\_
A 
Ethanol: fetal alcohol syndrome 
Lithium: ebstein's anomaly
Isotretinoin: caraniofacial malformations
Iodide: congenital hypothyroidism 
Misoprostol: mobius sequence
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36
Q

Teratogenic effects

Penicillamine:\_\_\_\_\_
Thalidomide:\_\_\_\_\_\_
Streptomycin:\_\_\_\_\_
Methimazole:\_\_\_\_\_\_
Sulfonamide:\_\_\_\_\_\_
Flourquinolones:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Smoking:\_\_\_\_
Tetracycline:\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Teratogenic effects

Penicillamine:cutis laxo
Thalidomide: phocomelia 
Streptomycin: ototoxicity
Methimazole: aplasia cutis congenita
Sulfonamide: kernicterus
Flourquinolones: cartilage damage 
Smoking:IUGR
Tetracycline: tooth discoloration
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37
Q

Induction of changes in the genetic material

A

Mutagenesis

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38
Q

Induction of developmental defects in the somatic tissues

A

Teratogenesis

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39
Q

An ANS drug used as a miotic during ocular surgery

A

Acetylcholine

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40
Q

ANS DRUG used in Bladder and Bowel atony?

A

BETANECHOL

SE: Diarrhea and urinary urgency

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41
Q

ANS drug that increases aqueous humor outflow and increased salivation

A

Pilocarpine

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42
Q

Drug used for glaucoma, sjogren syndrome and sicca syndrome

A

Pilocarpine

SE: miosis, bov and increased salivation

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43
Q

Triad of sjogren syndrome

A

Xerostomia, xerophthalmia and rheumatoid arthritis

Dry

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44
Q

Drug used for smoking cessation activating autonomic post ganglionic neurons

A

Nicotine

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45
Q

Drug used to test Myasthenia Gravis in TENSILON TEST. It differentiates cholinergic crisis and myasthenic crisis.

A

EDROPHONIUM

DOA: 5-15 minutes

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46
Q

A cholinomimetic that is used to TREAT Myasthenia Gravis

A

NEOSTIGMINE

ALT : Pyridostigmine

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47
Q

Cholinomimetic drugs for ALZHEIMER’S DISEASE

A

Rivastigmine - available as a transdermal patch

Galantamine
Donepezil — combined with MEMANTINE (NMDA receptor blocker) for ALZHEIMER’S dementia

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48
Q

Signs and symptoms of ORGANOPHOSPHATE POISONING

A

DUMBBELSS

diarrhea
urination
miosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Excitation of skeletal muscles and CNS
Lacrimation
Salivation
Sweating
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49
Q

What do you give in a patient with organophosphate poisoning?

A

Atropine - antidote DOC

Notable SE: hyperthermia

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50
Q

Drug for organophosphate poisoning that should be given 6-8 hours after exposure to be rendered effective

A

PRALIDOXIME - antidote for early stage

This binds to phosphorus of organophosphate regenerating active acetylcholinesterase

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51
Q

Prototype nonselective muscarinic blocker

A

Atropine

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52
Q

Anticholinergics used for PARKINSON’S disease that reduces tremors

A

Muscarinic antagonists

Try Benz BEEP BEEP

trihexyphenidyl
Benztropine
BIPERIDEN

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53
Q

Ipratropium MOA

A

Its a muscarinic receptor antagonist that blocks receptors in bronchial smooth muscles preventing bronchoconstriction

USES: Acute asthma and COPD

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54
Q

Bronchodilator of choice for patients with COPD AND HEART DISEASE

A

Ipratropium bromide (less likely to cause arrhythmias and tachycardia)

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55
Q

Transdermal patch used for motion sickness

A

SCOPOLAMINE

SE: drowsiness, BOV, dry eyes, dry mouth, urinary retention and constipation

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56
Q

A muscarinic antagonist used in IBS

A

Dicyclomine / dicycloverine

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57
Q

A cholinergic antagonist used for urge incontinence by reducing detrusor muscle tone

A

Oxybutynin patch

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58
Q

Signs and symptoms of atropine toxicity

A 
Hot as a hare (hyperthermia)
Dry as a bone (decreased secretion)
Red as a beet (cutaneous vasodilation)
Blind as a bat (blurred vision)
Mad as a hatter (CNS toxicity)
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59
Q

Contraindications to muscarinic blockers

A

ABCs of muscarinic receptor use

Acute angle closure glaucoma
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Cautious use in infants

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60
Q

Only depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Succinylcholine

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61
Q

DOC for anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine

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62
Q

If epinephrine is given n a pregnant patient, the OB should watch out for?

A

Fetal anoxia

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63
Q

Given in neurogenic shock and the last resort for caridiogenic shock

A

Norepinephrine

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64
Q

Epinephrine can cause hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia?

A

Hyperglycemia

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65
Q

Toxic effects of norepinephrine

A

RATEE!

Reflex bradycardia
Arrhythmias 
Tissue necrosis
Excessive increase in BP
Extreme vasospasm
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66
Q

Dose dependent action of dopamine

A

Low dose (1-5 mcg/kg/min) - D1 receptors increasing renal blood flow and urine output

Medium dose (5-15 mcg/kg/min) - B1 receptors increasing heart rate and contractility

High dose (>15 mcg/kg/min) - A receptors causing vasoconstriction thus increasing blood pressure

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67
Q

This is a synthetic catecholamine that is a beta nonselective sympathomimetic used in ASTHMA

A

Isoproterenol

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68
Q

An Alpha 1 selective sympathomimetic used for nasal decongestion

A

Phenylephrine

Notable SE: piloerction

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69
Q

Patient took 100 tablets of a sympathomimetic nasal decongestant. What can be given as antidote?

A

Phentolamine is the DOC for alpha 1 agonist overdose

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70
Q

Patient had rebound hypertension after abrupt withdrawal of clonidine. What can be given?

A

Phentolamine

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71
Q

An alpha 2 selective agonist given in opoid withdrawal?

A

Clonidine

*also given in cancer pain and hpn

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72
Q

Methyldopa is an alpha 2 agonist that is given in gestational hypertension and preeclampsia. What is a notable side effect of this drug?

A

Sedation and HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA (positive coomb’s test)

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73
Q

Alpa 2 agonist that decreases SECRETION of aqueous humor used in GLAUCOMA

A

Apraclonidine (C)
Brimonide (B)

SE: hyperemia, eye discomfort, pruritus,BOV and dry mouth

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74
Q

Beta 1 agonist used in cardiac stress testing

A

DOBUTAMINE

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75
Q

Drug of choice for acute asthma attack

A

Beta 2 selective agonist causing bronchodilation

Albuterol/ Salbutamol

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76
Q

Uses of ISOXUPRINE

A

Tocolysis for preterm labor

Vasodilator in Raynaud’s phenomenon

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77
Q

Beta 2 agonist drugs

A 
S albutamol
T erbutaline
A lbuterol
I soxuprine
R itodrine

*TIR used for tocolysis

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78
Q

A sympathomimetic drug that causes appetite suppression and nasal vasoconstriction

A

Phenylpropanolamine

Tox: HEMORRHAGIC STROKE

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79
Q

An alpha nonselective antagonist used in the treatment of PHEOCROMOCYTOMA by IRREVERSIBLE blockage of alpha adrenergic receptors

A

PHENOXYBENZAMINE

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80
Q

An alpha nonselective antagonist used in the treatment of PHEOCROMOCYTOMA by REVERSIBLE blockage of alpha adrenergic receptors

A

Phentolamine, tolazoline

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81
Q

Uses of PHENTOLAMINE

A

Rebound hypertension
Antidote for alpha 1 agonist overdose
pheochromocytoma (presurgical)

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82
Q

Used for benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Tamsulosin which is an alpha 1 selective antagonist that is most selective for prostatic smooth muscles

Other drugs: pazosin, terazosin “osin”

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83
Q

Pharmacologic advantage of a1 selectivity

A

Reflex tachycardia is less common and less severe

84
Q

Beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

A

ISA PA

PINDOLOL
Acebutolol

85
Q

Beta blocker with longest half life

A

NADOLOL =NAsa DOLO

86
Q

Beta blocker with shortest half life

A

ESMOLOL = “esmol”

87
Q

Beta blocker that treats Supraventricular tachycardia

88
Q

Target BP of patients with no comorbidities

A

<140/90 JNC8

89
Q

Target BP of patients with DM or CKD

90
Q

First line drug in a pregnant woman with hypertension

A

Methyldopa

91
Q

2nd line treatment in a pregnant patient with hypertension

92
Q

3 acceptable drugs that can be given in pregnancy for hpn control

A

Methydopa
Labetalol
Nifedipine

93
Q

First line drug for hypertension

A

Thiazide diuretics

94
Q

MOA of hyDroChloroThiazide

A

Inhibit Na/Cl transporter in Distal Collecting tubules causing diuresis

95
Q

MOA of furosemide

A

This is a loop diuretic what inhibits NA/K/Cl transporter in thick ascending limb of loop of Henle

*can cause ototoxicity

96
Q

Patient indicated for a loop diuretic with sulfa allergy. What can be given?

A

Ethacrynic acid

97
Q

Diuretics can cause what acid base imbalance?

A

Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

98
Q

Drugs used to control blood pressure in patients with PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA

A

Phenoxybenzamine
PHENTOLAMINE
Labetalol

99
Q

Medications that may cause drug induced lupus

A

HIPP

Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Penicillamine

100
Q

Treatment for alopecia

101
Q

Patient given a antihypertensive drug and developed pretibial edema. What drug could have been given?

A

Calcium channel blockers

102
Q

benefits of ACE inhibitors and ARBs

A

HPN - decrease BP
Heart failure - slows ventricular remodeling and increases survival
Diabetic nephropathy - delays progression by decreasing albumin excretion

103
Q

Most notable side effects of ACE inhibitors

A

Cough
Taste disturbance
Angioedema

104
Q

Why do ARBs and ACE inhibitors cause hyperkalemia?

A

Decrease in aldosterone levels leads to potassium retention

105
Q

Antidote for cyanide poisoning?

A

Lily cyanide kit

Inhaled AMYL NITRATE
IV SODIUM NITRITE
IV SODIUM THIOSULFATE

106
Q

Why do patients taking nitrates complain of throbbing headache?

A

Due to meningeal blood vessel dilation

107
Q

Drugs that cause gingival hyperplasia

A

NapaCa Pangit ng gingiVa mo

Nifedipine
Cyclosporine
Phenytoin
Verapramil

108
Q

Drugs that are metabolism modifiers

A

Trimetazidne is fatty (beta oxidation)
Ranolazine is salty (na-ca rxchange)
Ivabradine is FUNNY (funny Na current in SA node)

109
Q

Drugs with Narrow therapeutic index

A

WALA C Phen-phen VasTeD

Warfarin
Aminoglycosides
Lithium
Amphotericin B

Carbamazepine

Phenobarbital
Phenytoin

Vancomycin
Theophylline
Digixin

110
Q

How do you treat digitalis toxicity?

A

Correct k and magnesium deficiency
Antiarrythmic drugs : DOC IS LIDOCAINE
Digoxin antibodies : digibind

111
Q

First line of therapy for bith systolic and diastolic failure

A

FUROSEMIDE

112
Q

What drugs have shown to improve survival in cases of heart failure?

A

ABS improve survival ;)

ACE INHIBITORS
BETA BLOCKERS
SPINOROLACTONE

113
Q

What improves the quality of life?

A

Digitalis

Furosemide

114
Q

Effects of class 1 antiarrythmics on action potential duration

A

Class 1a - “Ayyyee” = prolonges AP duration
Class 1b - “b” = shortens AP duration
Class 1c - no effect

115
Q

Class IA antiarrythmics

A

Quinidine
Procainamide
Disopyramide

116
Q

Class Ia antiarrythmic than can cause ITP AND TORASADES

117
Q

Antidote for class IA antiarrythmics?

A

Sodium lactate

118
Q

DOC for ventricular arrhythmias post MI

A

Lidocaine or any class I b antiarrythmics

119
Q

Drugs that can cause agranulocytosis

A

CCCAPPIT Me!

Clozapine 
Co-trimoxazole
Colchicine 
Amine pyrine
Phenylbutazone
PTU
Indomethacin
Tocainide
Methimazole
120
Q

Class I C antiarrythmics are contraindicated in?

A

POST MI PATIENTS WITH ARRHYTHMIAS

propafenone, flecainide, encainide

121
Q

DOC antiarrythmics for WPW

A

Procainamide and amiodarone

122
Q

Used for refractory arrthmias

A

Class IC
Propafenone
Flecainide
Encainide

123
Q

Beta blocker with low lipid solubility

124
Q

Beta blockers with Combined alpha and beta blockade

A

Carvedilol and labetalol

125
Q

Beta blockers Lacking local anesthetic effect

126
Q

Beta blockers that are partial agonist

A

PINDOLOL AND ACEBUTOLOL

127
Q

Antiarrythmics with a hallmark of prolongation of action potential duration

128
Q

Treatment and prophylaxis for atrial fibrillation

A

Class 3 antiarrythmics
DofeTILIde
IbuTILIde

129
Q

Amiodarone toxicity signs and symptoms

A 
Corneal deposits 
Skin deposits
Thyroid dysfunction
Pulmonary fibrosis
Parestheisa
Tremors
130
Q

DOC for paroxysmal Supraventricular tachycardia

131
Q

Major site for sodium chloride and sodium bicarbonate reabsorption

A

proximal convoluted tubules (60-70%)

Also site of uric acid transport and site of action of carbonic anhydrase

132
Q

Site of action for calcium and magnesium reabsorption

A

Thick ascending loop of henle

Also site of loop diuretics

133
Q

Loop diuretics toxicity

A

OH DANGS!

Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia

Dehydration 
Alkalosis
Nephritis
Gout
Sulfa allergy
134
Q

Side effects of thiazide diuretics

A

Hyper GLUC

HYPERGLYCEMIA
HYPERLIPIDEMIA
HYPERURICEMIA
HYPERCALCEMIA

135
Q

Site of action of thiazide diuretics?

A

Distal convoluted tubules

136
Q

Site of action for potassium sparing diuretic

A

Cortical collecting duct

-last tubular site for sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion

137
Q

Primary site for urine acidification

A

Cortical collecting duct

138
Q

Drugs that can cause gynecomastia

A

DACKS

Digoxin
Alcohol 
Cimetidine 
Ketoconazole
Spironolactone
139
Q

Site of action of mannitol

A

Osmotic diuretics act on the proximal tubule, descending limb of loop of Henle and collecting ducts

140
Q

Site of action of ADH agonist

A

Vasopressin acts on the collecting tubule

141
Q

DOC for lowering LDL cholesterol

142
Q

DOC for high triglycerides and VLDL

143
Q

EZETEMIBE +STATIN =?

A

Hepatotoxicity

144
Q

STATIN + FIBRATES =?

A

rhabdomyolysis

145
Q

If statins are to be given with resins how will the drugs be taken?

A

Statins should be given one hour before or 4 hours after resin intake

146
Q

Why are statins given in patients with CAD?

A

For stabilization of atherosclerotic plaques

147
Q

Fibrates + Bile resins =

A

Cholesterol stones

148
Q

CI in cholestyramine

A

Patients with HIGH TG and Diverticulitis

149
Q

Common SE of bile acid resins like cholestyramine

A

CONSTIPATION
BLOATING
GRITTY TASTE
STEATORRHEA

150
Q

Most effective drug to increase HDL levels

151
Q

Drugs that causes FLUSHING

A

VANC

Vancomycin
Adenosine
Niacin
Calcium channel blockers

152
Q

When giving NIACIN what can be given as pre treatment to avoid flushing?

153
Q

Endogenous molecules with powerful pharmacologic effects

A

Autacoids

Histamine and serotonin are important amine autacoids

154
Q

Triple response of Lewis

A

Wheal flush and flare

155
Q

Cimetidine notable side effects

A

Gynecomastia and CYP450 inhibitor

Decrease hepatic blood flow

156
Q

Drug of choice for ACUTE MIGRANE

A

Sumatriptan-5Ht1D agonist

NSE: coronary vasospasm and chest pain

157
Q

Indication for Ondansteron given in cancer patients and post surgery patients

A

For chemotherapy and post operative vomiting

5HT3 antagonist

158
Q

Indications for MISOPROSTOL

A

NSAID INDUCED BPUD and Abortifacient

159
Q

Indications for use of ALPROSTADIL

A

For maintenance of a PDA

For ERECTILE DYSUNCTION (injected in the cavernosa)

160
Q

A Prostaglandin E2 analog given for induction of labor and cervical ripening

A

Dinoprostone / Sulprostone

161
Q

A Prostaglandin F2 analog that is given for postpartum bleeding

A

BUTCH

BIMATORPOST
UNOPROSTONE
TRAVOPROST
CARBOPROST

162
Q

Prostaglandin I2 analog that reduces platelet aggregation in dialysis machines and for pulmonary hypertension

A

Epoprostenol

163
Q

Prostaglandin F2 analog sed to increase outflow of aqueous humor in glaucoma

A

Latanoprost

SE: change eye color

164
Q

Indications for SILDENAFIL, a PDE5 inhibitor

A

PRE!

Pulmonary arterial hypertension
Reynaud’s phenomenon
Erectile dysfunction

165
Q

Doc in acute asthma attacks

A

SABA - PAST

Procaterol
Albuterol
Salbutamol
Terbutaline

166
Q

DOC in asthma prohylaxis

A

Corticosteroids

Fluticasone
Mometasone
Budesonide
Beclomethasone

167
Q

Muscarinic antagonist used in ACUTE ASTHMA AND COPD

A

Ipratropium

168
Q

Prophylactic against NOCTURNAL ASTHMA ATTACKS

A

Aminophyline and theophylline

169
Q

Antidote for overdose of theophylline

A

Beta blockers

170
Q

Mast cell stabilizer for asthma prophylaxis and ophthalmic allergies

171
Q

DOC for prophylaxis of severe , refractory asthma not responsive to all other drugs

A

Omalizumab - anti IgE antibody

172
Q

Iron supplement with greatest iron content

A

Ferrous fumarate

173
Q

Chronic Iron overdose may lead to?

A

Hemochromatosis-> organ failure ->death

174
Q

Acute Iron intoxication can be chelated by?

A

DEFEROXAMINE

*intox common in children from accidental ingestion

175
Q

Hemochromatosis triad

A

CIRRHOISIS
DIABETES MELLITUS
SKIN PIGMENTATION

176
Q

Neurologic manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Ataxia
Impaired position and vibratory sense
Spasticity

177
Q

Toxic dose of ASA? Lethal dose?

A

Toxic at 150mg/kg

Lethal at 500mg/kg

178
Q

Triad for ASPIRIN HYPERSENSITIVITY

A

SAMTER TRIAD

asthma
Aspirin sensitivity
Nasal polyps

179
Q

What is the expected metabolic abnormality in salicylate poisoning?

A

RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS WITH HIGH ANION GAP METABOLIC ACIDOSIS (HAGMA)

180
Q

Difference between adults and children in presentation of ASA intoxication

A

Adults = mixed acid base disorder (respi alka with HAGMA)

Children= will have HAGMA purely

181
Q

A GIIa/IIIa inhibitor used during PCI and adjunct to thrombolysis. This also prevents VESSEL RESTENOSIS AND REINFARCTION

182
Q

Heparin

Site of axn?
Route?
MOA?
Monitoring?
Antidote?
A 
Site of axn? Blood
Route? Parenteral
MOA? Activates ANTITHROMBIN III
Monitoring? PTT
Antidote? PROTAMINE
183
Q

Warfarin

Site of axn?
Route?
MOA?
Monitoring?
Antidote?
A 
Site of axn? LIVER
Route? ORAL
MOA? impairs post-translational modifications of FACTORS 2,7,9,10
Monitoring? PT
Antidote? Vitamin K , FFP
184
Q

Lab tests to assess the extrinsic and intrinsic coagulation pathways

A

PiTT and PeT

PiTT for intrinsic
PeT for extrinsic

185
Q

DOC for anticoagulation in pregnancy

186
Q

Anticoagulant of choice for patients with HEPARIN-INDUCED THROMBOCYTOPENIA

A

Lepirudin
Argatroban
Desirudin
DABIGATRAN (po)

187
Q

Given for DABIGATRAN toxicity

A

IDARUCIZUMAB

188
Q

MOA of APixaban / Rovaroxaban

A

Oral direct factor Xa inhibitor in the final common pathway

Use: prevention of VTE and stroke in AF

189
Q

This drug inhibits VIT K EPOXIDE REDUCTASE and is used for chronic anticoagulation

A

WARFARIN

NSE: warfarin induced skin necrosis for pts with protein C and S deficiency

190
Q

Initial anticoagulatant of choice in patient management?

191
Q

Antidote for overdose of THROMBOLYTIC AGENTS such as streptokinase, urokinase and alteplase

A

AMINOCAPROIC ACID

192
Q

A drug that can increase factor VIII activity of patients with vonWillebrand disease

A

Desmopressin / vasopressin

193
Q

What are the features of tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

A

3 Cs of TCA

coma
Convulsions
Cardiotoxicity

194
Q

Symptoms of SEROTONIN syndrome

A

FAT CHD

Fever
Agitation
Tremors
Clonus
Hyperreflexia
Diaphoresis
195
Q

Triad of OPIOD overdose

A

PCR

Pupillary constriction
Comatose state
Respiratory depression

196
Q

What drug of abuse can lead to a dream-like state, RED conjunctiva, tachycardia and dry mouth?

197
Q

What drug of abuse can cause psychedelic effects, mind raveling effects and bad trips?

198
Q

Most dangerous hallucinogen with psychomimetic effects

A

Phencyclidine

199
Q

Ecstasy can cause?

A

Sexual enhancement and hyponatremia

200
Q

Amphetamine can cause?

A

Euphoria, sleeplessness and self confidence

201
Q

Can cause crack lung and mydriasis

202
Q

Patient receiving cyclophosphamide should also be given

203
Q

Patient given with methotrexate should also be given

A

Leucoverin

204
Q

Patients given with isoniazid should also be given

A

Pyridoxine

205
Q

Alcoholics should take _____ as supplements

206
Q

Dissociative amnesia is effectively achieved by combination of

A

Ketamine
Nitrous oxide
Fentanyl

Deck Kat (9 decks)

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