Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 (1) > PHARMACOLOGY > Flashcards

PHARMACOLOGY Flashcards

0
Q

ECUATIONS

A 
Vd: D/C
t1/2: 0.7x Vd/Cl
LD: (VdxCp) /f
MD: (ClxCssx 🕗)/f
Infusion rate: ClxCss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

How much t1/2 need to reach steady state?

A

4-5 t1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drugs have zero order elimination PEA ?

A

Phenytoin
Ethanol
Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Drug metabolism phase 1 and 2

A

PHASE I Reduction, oxidation,hydrolysis P-450

PHASE II GAS. Glucoronidation, Acetylation, Sulfation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Therapeutic index ?

A

TD50/ED50

Low TD50 
Digoxin 
Lithium
Theophylline 
Warfarin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How are the receptors of autonomic nervous system arranged ?

QISS QIQ SI QS QS

A

A1 Q M1 Q D1 S. H1. Q. V1 Q
A2 I. M2 I. D2 I. H2. S. V2. S
B1 S. M3 Q
B2 S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are Direct agonist cholinomimetics agents?

A

Bethanechol
Carbachol
Methacholine
Pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are indirect agonists cholonimometics ( anticholinesterases)

A

Donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine
Edrophonium
Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Symptoms in Cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning DUMBBELSS

A 
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
 Bronchospasm
 Bradycardia
Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS
Lacrimation
 Sweating
 Salivation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are muscarinic antagonists

A

Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide
Benztropine

Glycopyrrolate
Hyoscyamine, dicyclomine
Ipratropium, tiotropium
Oxybutynin, solifenacin, tolterodine
Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

La toxina del pez globo??

A

Tetrodotoxin block NA fast Chanels

Diarrhea, paresthesias, dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ciguatoxin ….

A

Temperature dysesthesia
Cold feels hot
Hot feels cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are direct sympathomimetics(7) ?

A

Albuterol, salmetrol β2 > β1
dobutamine β1 > β2, α
Dopamine D1 = D2 > β > α
Epinephrine β > α
Isoproterenol β1 = β2
Norepinephrine α1 > α2 > β1
Phenylephrine α1 = α2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Signs of toxicity by Alfa-metildopa

A

Direct Coombs ⊕ hemolysis,

SLE-like syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Alfa blockers

A 
Nonselective
Phenoxybenzamine(irreversible) Phentolamine (reversible)
α1 selective Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin
α2 selective Mirtazapine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are ganguional bockers?

A

Mecamylamine
Hexametonium

Block dominant response
Heart- block parasympathetic
Vascular-block sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are beta an Alfa blockers?

A

Betablocker Propanolol

Alfablocker Phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What espireversal?

A

Epireversal plus Alfa-blocker
At first tachycardia +hypertension
Then tachycardia + hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What nebivolol?

A 
B1 blocker
B3 agonist (activate nitric oxide syntase)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Say some toxins an it’s antidotes

A

AChE inhibitors, organophosphates 💉atropine>pralidoxeme
Amphetamines (basic) 💉 NH4Cl
Antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agents 💉 physostigmine
Benzodiazepines💉 flumazenil
β-blockers💉glucagon
Copper, arsenic, gold💉 pencillamine
Cyanide 💉 nitrite+thiosulfate,hydroxicbalamine
Iron💉deferoxamine,deferaxirox
Lead💉EDTA,dimercaprol, succimer,penicilamine
Mercury, arsenic, gold💉dimercaprol,succimer
Methanol, ethylene glycol (antifreeze)💉fomepizol,ethanol
Methemoglobin💉methylene blue, Vit C
Opioids💉naloxone
Salicylates💉 NaHCO3
TCAs💉 NaHCO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What agents cause cutaneous flushing? VANC

A

Vancomycin
Adenosine
Niacin a
Ca bockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What agents increment the risk of torsades points(5).

A 
Class III 
Class Ia
Macrolides
Antipsychotic 
TCAs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drugs have hyperglycemic reaction(5)?

A

Tacrolimus
Protease inhibitors
Niacin
HCTZ
Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drugs have pancreatitis reaction(6)?

A 
Didanosine,
Corticosteroids,
Alcohol, 
valproic acid ,
Azathioprine, 
Diuretics (furosemide, HCTZ)
24
Q

What drugs cause gingival hyperplasia(3)?

A

Phenytoin
Ca2+ channel blockers
cyclosporine

25
Q

What drugs cause hyperuricemia?

A 
Pyrazinamide
Thiazides
furosemide
Niacin
Cyclosporine
26
Q

What drugs cause Steven Johnson ?

A

Anti epileptic (lamotrigene)
Allopurinol
Sulfas
Penicillin

27
Q

What drugs cause SLE like-syndrome(6).

A 
Sulfa drugs
Hydralazine
 Isoniazid
Procainamide
Phenytoin
 Etanercept
28
Q

What drugs cause Parkinson’s like syndrome?

A

Atipsychotics
Reserpine
Metroclopramide

29
Q

Inducers P-450 (8)

A 
Chronic alcohol use
 St. John’s wort
 Phenytoin
 Phenobarbital
 Nevirapine 
Rifampin 
Griseofulvin 
Carbamazepine
30
Q

Inhibitors of P-450(13)

A 
Acute alcohol abuse
 Ritonavir 
Amiodarone 
Cimetidine 
Ketoconazole 
Sulfonamides
 Isoniazid (INH)
 Grapefruit juice
 Quinidine 
Macrolides (except
azithromycin)
Acetaminophen NSAIDs
Thyroid hormone 
SSRIs
31
Q

Mechanism of action of botulin toxin?

A

Blocks ACh release from presynaptic terminal

32
Q

Which penicillin is eliminated largely in bile?

A

NAFCILIN!!!!

33
Q

How are the histamine receptors divided ?

A

H1 CAPILAR

H2 GASTRIC

34
Q

Which antineoplasic drug inhibits cacineurin ( cytoplasmic phosphatase)?

A

TACROLIMUS!!!!!

35
Q

Mechanism of action of mychophenolate?

A

inhibit de novo purine synthesis

36
Q

Antidote for Mercury intoxication?

A

SUCCIMER

DIMERCAPROL

37
Q

Consequence of grape juice in drugs metabolism?

A

Decrease drug metabolism increasing its serum concentration

By inhibition of intestinal P450 system

38
Q

What is consider polypharmacy?

A

> =5 drugs and over the counter drugs

39
Q

Mechanism of action of trazodone?

A

Serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Blocks H1
Blocks alpha1

40
Q

What is the content of rodenticides?

And what is its antidote?

A

Brodifacoum..( SUPERWARFARIN) !!!!!!

Antidote: FRESH FROZEN PLASMA !!!!!

41
Q

Why DO NOT give FFP to heparin overdose?

A

ENHANCE HEPARIN EFFECT

It has antithrombin III

42
Q

mechanism of action of opiods?

A

G-protein- increase potassium efflux

HYPERPOLARIZING THE NEURON

43
Q

Difference between first and zero order drug metabolism?

A

FIRST same PROPORTION (%)

ZERO same AMOUNT

44
Q

Pathognomonic finding ind arsenic intoxication?

And treatment?

A

Garlic odor breath

DIMERCAPROL!!!!
DMSA

45
Q

What is the cyanide poisoning Treatment?

A

Hydroxicobalamine (Vit B12 precursor)

46
Q

Mechanism of action of etanercept?

A

Tumor necrosis factor-alpha INHIBITOR!!!

like infliximab, adalimumab.

TUBERCULIN SKIN TEST!!!

47
Q

What are the principal drugs and mechanism of action to the management of chemotherapy emesis?(3)

A

Dopamine receptor antagonist. METOCLOPRAMIDA

serotonin receptor antagonist. ONDARSETRON

Neurokinin receptor antagonist APREPITAN

48
Q

Mechanism of action of disinfectants? (4)

A

ALCOHOL disruption of cell membranes , denaturation of proteins
CHLORHEXIDINE disruption of cell membranes , coagulation of cytoplasm
HYDROGEN PEROXIDE free radicals kill spores
IODINE halogen atom of proteins & nucleic acids kill spores

49
Q

Drug used to prolong action of penicillin by decrease its renal excretion ?

A

PROBENECID!!!!

50
Q

Which anesthetic Drug has high risk of liver injury and can cause fulminant hepatitis with 50% of fatality rate?

A

HALOTANE

INHALED ANESTHETIC

51
Q

antibiotic which produce gray baby syndrome?

A

Chloramphenicol

52
Q

antibiotic which elevate the risk of neonatal kernicterus?

A

sulfonamide

53
Q

long term us of opioids leads to…(3)

A
  • receptor down regulation
  • receptor decoupling
  • upregulation of NMDA receptors ( excitatory)
54
Q

how buprenorphine cause withdrawal symptoms?

A

partial opioid agonist (low efficacy , high affinity)

55
Q

statins are metabolized by…

A

liver

cytochrome P-450

56
Q

Difference between Phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine.

A

Phenoxybenzamine irreversible alpha 1-2 antagonist (acts like noncompetitive antagonist)

Phentolamine reversible competitive antagonist

57
Q

What is blood/gas partition coefficient in anesthetics?

A

Higher coefficient means high blood solubility needs more time to saturate the blood BUT slow speed of anesthetic induction (enters to the brain)

LOW coefficient means low blood solubility so anesthetic induction is quickly like Nitrous Oxide

58
Q

How potency of a gas anesthetic is determined?

A

Minimal alveolar concentration (Effect in 50% of patients)

Step 1 (1) (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions