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MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

0
Q

What type of microbes stained with giemsa (5)?

A 
Chlamydia 
Borrelia
Rickettsia 
Trypanosome
Plasmodium
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1
Q

What type of microbes stained with PAS?

A

Whipple disease tropheryma whipple

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2
Q

What type of microbes stained with Ziehl-Neelsen (carbon fushin) (3) ?

A

Acid fast nocardia. Mycobacteria

Cryptosporidium oocysts

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3
Q

What type of microbes stained with India ink?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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4
Q

What type of microbes stained with Silver stain (3) ?

A

Fungi (pneumocystis)
Legionella
Helicobacter pylori

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5
Q

Type of special culture used for H.influenzae?

A

Chocolate agar

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6
Q

Type of special culture used for N.gonorrhoeae and N.meningitidis ?

A

Thayer-Martin

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7
Q

Type of special culture used for B.pertussis?

A

Border

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8
Q

Type of special culture used for C. Diphtheria?

A

Loffler medium , tellurite agar

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9
Q

Type of special culture used for M. Tuberculosis?

A

Lowestein-Jensen agar

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10
Q

Type of special culture used for M. Pneumoniae?

A

Eaton agar

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11
Q

Type of special culture used for lactose-fermenting ?

A

MacConkey agar

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12
Q

Type of special culture used for E.coli?

A

EMB agar

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13
Q

Type of special culture used for legionella?

A

Charcoal yeast

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14
Q

Type of special culture used for fungi?

A

Sabouraud agar

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15
Q

What are the anaerobic microorganisms (4)?

A

Fusobacterium
Clostridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces

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16
Q

What are obligated intracellular bugs (3)?

A

Rickettsia
Chlamydia
Coxiella

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17
Q

What are facultative intracellular bugs (8)?

A 
Neisseria 
Mycobacterium 
Salmonella
Brucella 
Francisella
Legionella
Listeria
Yersinia
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18
Q

What are encapsulated bugs (7)?

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae 
Neisseria meningitidis 
Escherichia Coli
Salmonella
Klebsiella 
Streptococcus group B
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19
Q

What are urease positive bacteria (8)?

A 
Cryptococcus 
H. Pylori
Proteus 
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella 
S. Epidermidis 
S. Saprophyticus
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20
Q

What are catalase positive bacteria (8)? cats Need PLACESS

A 
Nocardia
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E. Coli
Staphylococcus 
Serratia l
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21
Q

What are gram positive bacillus?

A 
Bacillus
Clostridium 
Corynebacterium 
Gardnerella
Lactobacillus 
Listeria 
Mycobacterium 
Propionibacterium
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22
Q

What are the difference between N.meningitides and N.gonorrhoeae?

A

N.meningitides —- maltose fermenter

N.gonorrhoeae —- non- maltose fermenter

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23
Q

What are oxidase positive bacterium?

A

Gram negative bacteria!!!

Comma shape (campylobacter jejuni, Vibrio Cholerae, H. pylori)

Pseudomona ( lactose non fermenter)

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24
Q

What type of bacterium is linked with production bro not of sulfidric acid?

A

Bacillus gram neg ⏩lactose non fermenter⏩oxidase negative ⏩H2S make salmonella, proteus yersinia
Non make Shigella

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25
Q

What are lactose fermenters? MacConKEES!!!!

A

FAST klebsiella E.coli. Enterobacter

SLOW. Citrobacter Serratia

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26
Q

haEMOPhilus influenzae

A

Epiglottis
Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia

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27
Q

PSEUDDOmona

A 
Pneumonia 
Sepsis
Externa otitis
Uti
Drug use
Diabetes 
Osteomyelitis
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28
Q

4 As of klebsiella?

A

Aspiration pneumonia
Abscess in lung and liver
Alcoholics
diAbetes

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29
Q

Principal feature of salmonella typhi ?

A

Constipation⏩diarrhea

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30
Q

Principal feature of yersinia?

A

Pseudoappendicitis

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31
Q

What are spirochetes (3)?

A

Borrelia
Lepstospira
Treponema

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32
Q

False positive VDRL

A

Viral infection hepatitis
Drugs
Rheumatic fever
Lupus or Leprosy

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33
Q

What’s the toxoplasmosis triada?

A

Chorioretinitis
Hydrocephalus
Intracranial calcifications

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34
Q

What are the nematodes which use ingested route (4)?

A 
EATT
Enterobius
Ascaris
Toxocara
Trichinella
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35
Q

What are the nematodes which use cutaneous route (3)?

A

Strongylodes
Ancylostoma
Necator

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36
Q

What are the nematodes which use vector bites route(3)?

A

Loa loa
Onchocerca Volvulus
Wuchereria bancrofti

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37
Q

What is the Cestode (tapeworm) linked with megaloblastic anemia?

A

Diphilobothrium Latum

Competes for B12 in the intestine

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38
Q

What type of trematodes are linked with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?

A

Schistosoma haematobium

Egg whit terminal spine

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39
Q

What is the differential feature of schistosoma mansolin I?

A

Lateral spine

Hepatic splenomegaly

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40
Q

What trematode is associated whit cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Clonorchis sinensis

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41
Q

What are live attenuated vaccines (7)?

A 
Smallpox
Chickenpox
Rotavirus
Yellow fever
Sabin polio
MMR
Influenza intranasal
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42
Q

What are killed vaccines?

A

Rabies
Influenza infected
Salk polio
HAV

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43
Q

What are RNA virus ➕(7) ➖ (6) stranded

A 
POSITIVE
Retrovirus
Togavirus
Flavivirus
Coronavirus
Hepevirus
Calicivirus
Picornavirus 
NEGATIVE
Paramixovirus
Rhabdovirus
Folio virus
Orthomixovirus
Bunyavirus
Arenavirus
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44
Q

What are naked virus(8)?

A 
Papillomavirus
Adenovirus 
Parvovirus
Polyomavirus
Calicivirus
Picornavirus
Reovirus
Hepevirus
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45
Q

Rubella triada

A

Patent ductus arteriosus - pulmonic stenosis
Cataracts
Deafness

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46
Q

What are non linear DNA viruses(3)?

A

Papilloma virus
Polyoma
Hepadna

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47
Q

What are picornaviruses?

A 
PERCH
Poliovirus
Echovirus
Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus
HAV
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48
Q

How is the differential diagram of gram negative rods enteric bacteria?

A

⬛️LACTOSE FERMENTER
▪️Fast fermenter: klebsiella,E.coli (indol➕),Enterobacter(indol➖)
▪️Slow fermenter: Citrobacter,Serratia

⬛️LACTOSE NON- FERMENTER
▪️ Oxidase positive: Pseudomona Aeruginosa
▪️ Oxidase negative:
🔺No H2S production: Shigella
🔺H2S production: salmonela , Protesis

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49
Q

CMV in fetus

A

Hearing loss
Seizures
Petechia like rash
Peri ventricular calcifications

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51
Q

What are negative stranded virus (6) ?

A 
Arenavirus
Bunyavirus
Paramyxovirus 
Orthomixovirus
Filovirus
Rhabdovirus
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51
Q

What is a characteristic feature of parvovirus B19 virus infection?

A

“Slapped cheek” rash

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52
Q

What is the essential pathogenic mechanism of Shigella infection?

A

Mucosal invasion of the M cells that overlie peyer’s patches

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53
Q

What are a microscopical feature of corynebacterium diphtheria(2)?

A

Chinese characters

Methacromatic granules that stains whit aniline (methylene blue)

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54
Q

What are catalase-positive organisms (5) ? They can infect patients with CGD.

A 
S. Aureus
Burkholderia Cepacia
Serratia marcenses
Nocardia
Aspergillus
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55
Q

What is the feature in the blood agar for listeria?

A

very narrow zone of Beta-hemolysis

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56
Q

What bacteria inhibit phagosome-lysosomal fusion(3)?

A

Listeria
Salmonella
Tuberculosis

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57
Q

What is the major process of listeria immune -elimination?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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58
Q

What is the process by corynebacterium acquired the toxins gene?

A

By bacteriophage mediated infection which TOX gene by lisogenization ( oh ago transmits the gene and this will incorporate to the bacterial genome)

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59
Q

What is the process in S.pnumoniae acquire its major virulent factor?

A

CAPSULE by transformation

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60
Q

What is the process by E.coli acquire its major virulent factor?

A

PILI is acquire by conjugation

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61
Q

What is the process which lead to endotoxins production?

A

Chromosomal mutations

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62
Q

What are the diferent serotypes of chlamydia (3)?

A

Serotypes A–C. Cause ocular infect. Trachoma
Serotypes D–K urogenital infections
Serotypes L1—L3 lymphogranuloma venereum

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63
Q

What structure of salmonella protects it from opsonization?

A

Vi antigen in the capsule

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64
Q

What is the main virulence factor is S. Aureus?

A

Adhesion to collagen

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65
Q

What vaccines are indicated in the asplenic patient(3)?

A

S. Pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis

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66
Q

What are the requirements for H. Influenzae to grow in a culture?

A 
X factor (hematina)
V factor (NAD+)

Agar chocolate

Whit S.Aureus because it has beta hemolytic action -satellite phenomenon

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67
Q

What is the function of lac operon in E.coli?

A

lac operon encode for enzymes necessaries for lactose fermentation , it is a inducible enzyme

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68
Q

What are the type of meningococcal vacine(2)?

A

Polysaccharide quadrivalent

Conjugate (diphtheria toxoid)

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69
Q

What is the H.influenzae vaccine ?

A

Polysaccharide capsule conjugated with meningococcal carrier protein

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70
Q

What is the best medium for vibrio Cholera to grow??

A

Very alkaline medium like bile salts (TCBS)

People how take omeprazol are in high risk

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71
Q

What are the different E.coli toxins?

A 
Heath labile(LT) ✅ cAMP
Heath sable (ST) ✅cGMP
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72
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Is a bilateral adrenal hemorrhage cause by N.meningitides infection lead to adrena insufficiency

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73
Q

What are the bacteria which produce necrotizing fasciitis?

A 
Streptococcus pyogenes PYR-positive 
Staphylococcus aureus 
Clostridium perfringens 
Streptococcus agalactiae
Aeromonas hydrophila
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74
Q

Which bacteria produces a double zone of beta hemolysis?

A

Clostridium perfringes

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75
Q

What is a positive CAMP test?

A

Narrow zone of beta hemolysis when culture whit S.aureus … That means The presence of S. Agalactiae.

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76
Q

What bacteria cannot be seen in gram stain (6)?

A 
Mycoplasma
Legionella 
Mycobacteria
Treponema
Rickettsia 
Chlamydia
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77
Q

Pneumonia + diarrhea+ high fever+ relative Bradicardia + headache =?

A

Legionella !!!!!!

Cruise ships,spa, air-conditioned

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78
Q

How adults and infants are affected by botulism?

A

Adults — canned food ingest preformed toxins

Baby—– spores from honey

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79
Q

What type of vaginal disease is linked with pH> 4.5?

A

Trichomona vaginitis

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80
Q

What are the empiric therapy for coagulate negative staphylococcus ( S. Epidermidis, S. Saprophyticus)?

A

VANCOMYCIN because all of them are methicillin resistant

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81
Q

What fungus are dimorphic (5)? Hyphae 25-30 grades or Yeast 37grades

A 
Sporothrix schenckii 
Coccidiodes immitis
Histoplasma capsulatum
Blastomyces dermatidities 
Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis
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82
Q

Major features of dimorphic fungus

A

Sporothrix schenckii ———–cigar shaped budding yeast
Coccidiodes immitis————thick walled spherules fill endoscopes
Histoplasma capsulatum——–oval yeast within macrophages
Blastomyces dermatidities——double refractory wall broad based budding
Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis—-captain’s wheel

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83
Q

What are nontreponemal test?

A

RPR rapid plasma reagin

VDRL venereal disease research laboratory

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84
Q

What is the features of enterococcus?

A

Gram positive coccus
Gamma hemolytic
PYR positive
Grow in bile and 6.5% sodium

Important etiology for UTI infections by medical cystoscopy

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85
Q

What is the reason there is no effective antibodies against hepatitis C virus?

A

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase has no proofreading

Leads to resulted in marked variety of antigenic structure of HCV envelope

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86
Q

Why in the mycoplasma infection there are anemia?

A

hemolytic anemia is because the body generate cold agglutinins ( aBs against M proteins which cross link whit erythrocytes membranes)

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87
Q

What are the features of mycoplasma infection?

A 
Hemolytic anemia
Stevens-Johnson syndrome 
Join pains
Encephalitis 
Cardiac rhythm disturbance
Bullous myringitis
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88
Q

What is the mechanisms of Shiga like toxin?

A

Subunit B make a Canal for
Subunit A takes off a adenine from tRNA
And tRNA cannot interact whit 60s ribosomal subunit

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89
Q

What is the response of HIV virus to long time antiretroviral treatment?

A

Increase in pol gene mutations

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90
Q

What is characteristic in type B H. Influenzae?

A

It’s capsule contains polyribitol phosphate PRP
PRP contains pentose monophosphate rather hexose
PRP prevent phagocytosis

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91
Q

H. Influenzae cause (4)

A

Epiglottis
Bacteremia
Arthritis
Meningitis

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92
Q

How can stain cryptococcus neoformans (2)?

A

India ink
Mucicarmine (red)
Methenamine

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93
Q

What type of vaccine is pneumococcus vaccine?

A

Outer polysaccharide covering

Pneumococcal conjugated

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94
Q

What is the microscopic characteristic of mucormycosis?

A

90 grades angle nonseptate hyphae

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95
Q

What is the microscopic feature of aspergillus?

A

45 grades septa the hyphae

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96
Q

What are the major microscopic characteristics of Histoplasmosis ,coccidiosis,cryptococcosis,candidiasis,aspergillosis?

A

Histoplasmosis —macrophages whit intracellular oval bodies
coccidiosis—- spherules packed whit endospores
cryptococcosis— budding yeast whit a thick capsule
candidiasis—-yeast that form pseudo hyphae
aspergillosis—- septa the hyphae V shape

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97
Q

Anal cell squamous cell carcinoma , ulceral mass in VIH positive patient indicates?

A

Human papilloma virus infection

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98
Q

What’s the first line treatment for blastomyces dermatitidis?

A

ITRACONAZOL!!!

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99
Q

What pneumonia cause HYPONATREMIA and elevated transaminases?

A

LEGIONELLOSIS !!!!!

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100
Q

What surface is used to adherence for Viridans streptococcus?

A

Fibrin-platelet aggregates in Heart valves

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101
Q

What GI infections cause fecal mononuclear leukocytes?

A

SALMONELLA TYPHI!!!!

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102
Q

Elderly whit Flaccid paralysis + encephalitis =

A

West Nile Virus

Flavivirus transmitted by mosquitos

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103
Q

What is the function of nucleolus?

A

Synthesis of rRNA!!!!!

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104
Q

Exposure in the deferents fungus infections Cryptococcosis,Coccidiomicosis,Histoplasmosis Mississippi Aspergillosis - Candida- A.fumigatus, Mucor, Rhizopus A. Fumigatus .

A

Cryptococcosis pigeon drooping
Coccidiomicosis Arizona west UEA
Histoplasmosis Mississippi - Ohio river bird and bat droopings
Aspergillosis - historic of TB old lung cavities
Candida- A.fumigatus, Mucor, Rhizopus NEUTROPENICS
A. Fumigatus - ASTHMA patients

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105
Q

What is the agent which cause croup?

A

PARAINFLUENZA !!!!

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106
Q

What are the toxins implied en pseudomembran colitis ?

A

C. Difficile secrete

Toxin A enterotoxin
Toxin B cytotoxin

Inactive Rho-regulatory proteins
❎transduction and actin cytoskeletal structure maintenance

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107
Q

What are the virulent factors of E.coli (5)

A 
LPS 
K1 capsular polysaccharide NEONATAL MENINGITIS!!!!
Verotoxin (Shiga like toxin)
Heat stable/labile enterotoxin 
P fimbriae UTI!!!!
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108
Q

Clinical findings in CMV infection in Immunossuppresed patients (3)

A

Retinitis
Esophagitis
Pneumonia

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109
Q

What is the second cause of ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect in HIV patients after toxoplasmosis?

A

PRIMARY CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM LYMPHOMA
B- cell origin !!!!
EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS IS IDENTIFY

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110
Q

Explain the virus of rubella and rubeola

A

Rubella or German measles TOGAVIRUS posauricular lymphadenopathy

Rubeola measles. PARAMIXOVIRUS

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111
Q

Why gram negative bacteria cause septic shock?

A

Lipopolysacharides or lopooligosaccharides
Induce
TNF-alpha, IL-1betta , IL-6, IL-8

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112
Q

What antibiotics are in Thayer Martin medium?

A

To isolate NEISSERIA

vancomycin to ❎ gram positive
Colistin ❎ gram negative (less Neisseria)
Nystatin❎.yeast
TMP❎ proteus

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113
Q

How act anthrax exotoxin and borderlands pertussis toxin?

A

⬆️cAMP by ⬆️ Adenylate Cyclase

Phagocyte dysfunction and edema

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114
Q

What’s the major virulent factor of streptococcus pyogenes ?

A

Protein M

Inhibit phagocytosis and complement activation

115
Q

What is the virulence factor of mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Cord Factor

Inactivate neutrophils
Mitochondrial damage
TNF release

116
Q

How differentiate gram positive coccus?

A 
CATALASE ✅
Coagulase ✅. S.Aureus
Coagulase ❎ 
🔹novobiocin sensible S.epidermidis
🔹novobiocin resistant S. Saprophyticus

CATALASE ❎
Alpha hemolytic PARTIAL
🔹opotchin sensible bile insoluble. S.pneumiae
🔹opotchin resistant bile soluble S. Viridans mutants

Beta hemolytic COMPLETE
🔹bacitracin sensitive PYR ✅S.pyogenes
🔹bacitracin resistant PYR ❎ S.agalactiae

Gamma hemolytic NO !!!
🔹Growth in bile and 6.5% NaCl enterococcus
🔹Growth in bile NOT in 6.5% NaCl S. Bovis l

117
Q

What are the Two forms of leprosy and which kind of immune is related whit which one?

A

TUBERCULOID LEPROSY good cell response Th-1 mediated

LEPROMATOUS LEPROSY bad cell response Th-2 mediated WORST

118
Q

What antibiotic has minimal absorption and is so good for recurrent pseudomembranous colitis ?

A

FIDAXOMICIN!!!!!

119
Q

What is the requirement to herpes zoster infection to appear ? And what is its principal complication ?

A

Previous varicella Zoster Virus infection in single dorsal root sensory ganglion !!

POSTHERPETIC NEURALGIA !!!!!

120
Q

What are the single strain DNA virus

And the double strain RNA virus?

A

single strain DNA virus PARVOVIRUS

double strain RNA virus ROTAVIRUS

121
Q

What is the most common agent which cause viral gastroenteritis in developed countries?

A

NOROVIRUS!!!!

122
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in developing countries (travelers diarrhea )

A

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli !!!

123
Q

Watch are the Symptoms of strongyloidiasis?

A

Cough
Asthma like bronchospasm
Hemoptysis

124
Q

What is the difference between mononucleosis illness by CMV and EBV?

A

CMV monospot test (-) heterophilic antibodies

EVB monospot test(+) heterophilic antibodies

125
Q

Alteration of bordetella pertussis in second messengers ?

A

⬆️AMPc

Pertussis toxin ADP ribosylate Gi

126
Q

How works Shiga like toxin?

A

Inactivate 60s ribosomal subunit

127
Q

How P. Falciparum is declined in the gram stained blood?

A

Dalicate ring-like intraeritocyte parasite

128
Q

How plasmodium species can return infection?

A

P.falciparum. Trophozoite into the RBC RECRUDECENSE

P. Vivax and P. Ovale. From Hypnozoites from the liver

129
Q

How bunyavirus is transmitted?

A

By inhalation of shit of rodents

130
Q

What. Virus cause hydrocephalus in fetus?

A

Cytomegalovirus!!!!

131
Q

Which infections tend to develop rheumatic fever and which post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

rheumatic fever PHARYNGITIS

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis IMPETIGO

132
Q

What is the mechanism of oncogenesis of Burkitt lymphoma?

A

TRNASLOCATION!!!

c-myc oncogene to site of antibody synthesis

133
Q

How echinococcus Granulosus is transmitted?

134
Q

Which parasites can be transmitted by ingestion of water plants?

A

Fasciolopsis burky

Facsiola hepatica

135
Q

Which patients are vulnerable to pneumocystis jiroveci infection?

A

IMMUNOCOMPROMISED

PREMATURES

136
Q

Renal transplant patients are vulnerable to ….

A

CYTOMEGALOVIRUS PNEUMONITIS

137
Q

What bacterial component can survive to autoclave?

A

Endotoxins -LPS

138
Q

What’s the most common cause of pericarditis in U.S.A.?

A

COXSACKIEVIRUS B

139
Q

What kind of genome has rotavirus?

A

Double strained RNA

140
Q

Agent which cause endocarditis in drug abusers?

A

CANDIDA!!!

141
Q

Microscopic features of Blastomyces dermatitis ?

A

Broad based
Double shelled budding yeast

From OLD ROOTING WOOD

142
Q

Say the family of the different kind of hepatitis virus?

A

PICORNAVIRUS. HEPATITIS A
HEPADNAVIRUS. HEPATITIS B
FLAVIVIRUS. HEPATITIS C
CALICOVIRUS. HEPATITIS E

143
Q

After lymphocytes CD4 drop under 200 what kind of Igs can be produced?

A

Ig M against gp120

Experiments genetic drift

144
Q

Which kind of plague is necessary for generalized transduction and which kind to specialized transduction?

A

VIRULENT PHAGUE generalized transduction

LYSOGENIC OR TEMPERATE PHAGUE specialized transduction

145
Q

What are phosphatetransferases and where are its gene located?

A

Enzymes which inactivate drugs

It’s gene is located in BACTERIAL PLASMIDS

146
Q

What is episome?

A

A plasmid that has been stabilized inside the chromosome of a cell by site -specific recombination

147
Q

What are the microscopic features of infectious form of fungus ?

A

Aspergillosis dichotomously branching hyphae
Coccidiodes. Hypha with arthroconidia
Blastomyces hypha whit nondescript conidia
Sporothrix schenckii Hypha whit rosettes and sleeves of conidia
Histoplasma Hyphae whit microconidia and macroconidia

148
Q

What is the drug of choice of esophagitis candidiasis and Coccidiomicosis?

A

FLUCONAZOL!!!

149
Q

Drug of choice of blastomycosis and Sporothrichosis?

A

ITRACONAZOL!!!

150
Q

Drug of choice of paracoccidiomicosisand back up for Blastomyces and histoplasmosis?

A

KETOCONAZOLE !!!

151
Q

Which antiparasitary agent is contraindicated in glaucoma?

A

CHLOROQUINE!!!!

152
Q

Which drugs can develope hemolysis in G-6PD deficiency patient?

A 
Sulfanilamide 
Nitrofurantoine
Dapsone
Primaquine
Quinine
153
Q

What’s palivizumab?

A

Monoclonal antibody to treat rspiratory syncytial virus RSV

154
Q

Dermatologic finding in hepatitis B

A

URTICARIAL DERMATITIS

155
Q

How pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) can cause neurocysticercosis or taeniasis (tapeworm infestation).

A

neurocysticercosis = ingestion of eggs from stool

taeniasis = ingestion larval cyst from infected uncooked pork

156
Q

Mechanism of action of penicillin?

A

Covalently binding to and inhibiting transpeptidase ( cros-linking step in peptidoglican cell formation

157
Q

What is the antibiotics for vaginitis?(3)

A

Grardnerella METRONIDAZOLE OR CLINDAMICIN

trichomona METRONIDAZOLE (treat the partner)

Candida. FLUCONAZOLE

158
Q

Which bacteria does not need to be In big quantities to cause gastroenteritis?

A

SHIGUELLA!!!!

Dysentery
Tenesmus

159
Q

Important considerations of malaria treatment?

A

Cloroquine sensitive
Chloroquine resistant ➡️ MEFLOQUINE

P. Vivax and P. Ovale ➡️ PRIMAQUINE ( Hypnozoites )

160
Q

Treatment for Chagas’ disease?

A

NIFURTIMOX

161
Q

How is the prophylaxis and treatment form P. Jirovecii?

A

PENTAMIDINE

162
Q

What’s are MRSA? ABs resistance.

A

RESISTANCE TO…

oxacillin
Nafcillin
Methicillin

ALTERACION IN PENICILIN BINDING PROTEINS PBPs

163
Q

Mechanism of tetracycline and sulfunylurea resistance?

A

Active drug transport out of the cell

164
Q

Mechanism of quinolone resistance?

A

DNA Gyrase mutation

165
Q

Mechanism of rifampin resistance ?

A

RNA polymerase mutation

166
Q

What is the most important side effect of amphotericn B ?

A

RENAL TOXICITY

SEVERE HYPOKALEMIA AND HYPOMAGNESEMIA

167
Q

How non segmented double-stranded DNA virus exchange genetic information?

A

RECOMBINATION!!!

168
Q

How segmented virus exchange genetic information?

A

REASSORTMENT

Influenza virus

169
Q

Side effects of RIPE treatment for TB?

A

Rifampin : GI, rash, red orange body fluids
Isoniazid : neurotoxicity (give B6) Hepatotoxicity
Pirazinamide: Hepatotoxicity, hyperuricemia
Ethambutol: óptic neuropathy

170
Q

What is the immunology finding strongly linked whit ABACAVIR hypersensitivity reaction?

A

HLA-B*57:01 allele of HLA

171
Q

Different segments actions of antiviral therapy (8)

A 
🔹VIRAL ABSORTION
⬇ 🚫 enfuvirtide
🔹PENETRATION
⬇🚫amantadine
🔹UNCOATING
⬇ 
🔹EARLY PROTEIN SYNTHESIS 
⬇ purine pyrimidine analogs. RTIs
🔹NUCLEIC ACID SYNTHESIS
⬇ 🚫protease
🔹LATE PROTEIN SYNTHESIS AND PROCESING
⬇ 
🔹PACKAGING AND ASSEMBLY
⬇ 🚫neuraminidase 
🔹VIRAL RELEASE
172
Q

Most common cause of endocarditis in patients whit prosthetic valves and septic arthritis in patients whit prosthetic joints?

A

S. EPIDERMIDIS!!!

173
Q

How schistosomiasis is transmitted?

A

Freshwater snails 🐌🐌🐌🐌

174
Q

Pathognomonic Histologic finding of hepatic schistosomiasis?

A

Periprotal “pipestem” fibrosis

175
Q

How human is infected by diphyllobothrium latum?

A

Ingestion of larvae from raw freshwater fish 🐡

176
Q

what organs (3) and what kind of patients are infected by NOCARDIA? and what is the treatment?

A

lungs
brain
skin

IMMUNOCOMPROMISED AND PATIENTS
TRIMETHOPRIM/SULFAMETHOXAZOLE

177
Q

what is teh principal cause of viral meningitis in children?

A

GROUP B COXSACKIEVIRUS

178
Q

what type of virus is Cytomegalovirus?

A

ENVELOPED double-stranded DNA virus

179
Q

What are the inteGRAse inhibitors ?

A

DoluteGRAVIR

ralteGRAVIR

180
Q

What are the protease inhibitors?

A

indiNAVIR

RitoNAVIR

181
Q

Technic to visualized Treponema pallidum…

A

DARK-FIELD MICROSCOPY!!!!!!

182
Q

Which type of human papilloma virus can result in genital warts?

A

Type 6 and 11

Attacks stratified squamous epithelium

183
Q

Advantage of interferon gamma release assay (IGRAs)over tuberculin skin test?

A

Tuberculin skin test can has an falsely positive result whit BCG vaccine

IGRAs does not

184
Q

What are the dermatological lesions of 1-2-3 syphilis ?

A

PRIMARY chancre

SECUNDARY condylomata late

TERTIARY gumma

185
Q

Color of lactose fermenters and non-lactose fermenters in MacConkey agar ….

A

FERMENTERS. PINK!!!!!!

NON FERMENTERS WHITE !!!!!!

186
Q

When can be seen cold agglutinins?(3)

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae
Epstein Barr virus
Hematologic malignancy

187
Q

Management for pinworm (enterobius vermicularis)

A

ALBENDAZOL!!!!

Or pyrantel pamoate

188
Q

Actions of Rivavirin and clinical use

A

INHIBIT DUPLICATION OF VIRAL GENETIC MATERIAL

🚫IMP dehydrogenase
🚫RNA dependent RNA polymerase

⬆️Th1 ⬇️Th2

🔹Hepatitis C
🔹VSR

189
Q

Use of ketoconazole (450 inhibitor) will increase the serum concentrations of what antibiotics?

A

MACROLIDS Eritromicin Claritromycin

190
Q

What is the toxins of C. Perfringes (gangrene) and Diphteria?

A

C. Perfringes lecithinase or phospholipase C ( phospholipid splitting )

Diphtheria ribosylation of Elongation Factor-2

191
Q

Mechanism of action of C.difficile toxin?

A

Actin depolymerization

192
Q

What are the antibiotics used to Neisseria meningitides prophylaxis?(3)

A

Rifampin
Ciprofloxacin
Ceftriaxone IM

193
Q

What gram positive coccus can produce dextrans from sucrose?

A

S. VIRIDANS !!!

194
Q

What are transpeptidases in bacteria?

A

There are PENICILIN-BINDING PROTEINS

which cross-link peptidoglican in bacterial cell wall

195
Q

Which microorganism cause cat-scratch disease?

A

BARTONELLA HENSELAE!!!!

Can cause bacillary angiomatosis

196
Q

What type of patients cannot receive primaquine?

A

G6PDH deficiency patients

197
Q

Pathogenesis of prion disease?

A

Protein change from Alpha helix chance to beta-plated sheet (stand to proteases)

Spongiform Change

198
Q

Which virus obtain its envelope from the host cell nucleus?

A

HERPERVIRUS!!!!

199
Q

Principal adverse effects of anti HIV drugs (4)

A

NRTI lactic acidosis
NNRTI SJS Hepatotoxicity neuropsychiatric teratogenic
PI Dibetes
Integrase inhibitor myopathy

200
Q

In gram stain how gram+ and gram- are seen?

A

Gram+. BLUE!!!!

GRAM - RED!!!!

201
Q

What is the diagnostic test for gonorrhea?

And treatment?

A

Nucleic acid amplification test NAAT!!!!!

Ceftriaxone+ azithromycine

202
Q

What’s the diagnostic test for chlamydia and gonorrhea? The first and second most common sexually transmitted disease in U.S.?

A

NAAT

Nuaclear acid amplification testing

203
Q

Management for chlamydia?

A

AZITHROMYCINE!!!

204
Q

Which agent cause scrofula and where is taken?

A

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

WATER SOURCES PONDS

205
Q

Which agent in the capsule of Haemophilus Influenzae bacteria facilitate it invasion and cause meningitis?

A

Poluribosyl ribitol phosphate PRP

206
Q

What kind of vaccine is rabies vaccine?

A

Inactivated vaccine

207
Q

Risk factors to suppurative parotid in adults?(3)

A

⬇️salivary flow
Anthicholinergic
Dehydration INTUBATION!!!!

⬆️AMILASE!!!!

208
Q

What are the CMV-related complications of inutero infected patients?

A 
Chorioretinitis
Sensorineural deafness
Seizures
Jaundice
Hepatosplenomegaly 
Microcephaly
209
Q

What are the complications of diphtheria?(3)

A

Obstruction of respiratory tract
Myocarditis/ heart failure
Neurological toxicity

210
Q

The diphtheria vaccine (in DPT vaccine) produce ….

A

IgG against the DIPHTHERIA TOXIN

211
Q

Which virus has serum heterophile antibodies? (Agglutination of horse erithrocytes in monopost test)
What means positive?
And what if has the mononucleosis-like symptoms but is negative?

A

➕Epstein-Barr!!!

➖CYTOMEGALOVIRUS!!!!
Or HHV-6 , HIV, toxoplasma

212
Q

Listeriosis a cause of meningitis in elderly and babies < 3 months can be transmitted in…

A

Milk products

Raw fruits and vegetables

213
Q

Clinical findings of tabes dorsalis in syphilis tertiaria? (4)

A

Sensory ataxia
Lancinating pains
Neurogenic urinary incontinence
Argyll Robertson pupils ( non react but accommodated 👯)

214
Q

Which type of hepatitis has high mortality rate in pregnancy?
And it’s virus characteristics …

A

HEPATITIS E!!!!

Unenveloped single-stranded RNA virus
Fecal-oral route

215
Q

Transformation cause genomic changes in progeny virions?

A

NO!!!!!!!!

216
Q

How is call the bacteria who exert TRANSFORMATION?

A

Naturally competent

217
Q

Germ tubes resulted after incubated at 37C are pathognomonic of…

A

CANDIDA ALBICANS!!!!

218
Q

enveloped virus with partially double -stranded circular DNA ?

A

HEPATITIS B VIRUS!!!!

219
Q

complications of Measles virus (rubeola)

A
  • pneumonia
  • Neurologic:
  • Encephalitis (days)
  • Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (weeks)
  • Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (years)
220
Q

treatment of acute C. diphtheriae infection in order of importance?

A
  1. Diphtheria antitoxin
  2. Penicillin of Erythromycin
  3. DPT vaccine
221
Q

function of protein A located in the staphylococcus peptidoglycan wall

A

prevents its opsonization and complement activation

binding the Fc portion of IgG (complement binding site)

222
Q

bacteria which produce IgA protease? (2)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

223
Q

principal antibiotics used in MRSA infection?(3)

A

VANCOMYCIN like penicilin but binding D-alanyl-D-alanine r– red man Sd.

DAPTOMYCIN transmembrane channels– myopathy

LINEZOLID inhibit 50s ribosomal subunit– optic neuritis , thrombocytopenia, serotonin syndrome

224
Q

managment for chorioretinitis by cytomegalovirus?

A

GANCICLOVIR!!!!!

225
Q

What is the target of EBV?

A

B cells

EBV has gp350 which attach CD21 (CR2)

226
Q

What are the infectious form and non infectious form of strongyloidiasis?

A

Filariform (infectious) penetrate the skin

Rhabditiform (non infectious) excreted in stool for DIAGNOSIS

227
Q

Most common sites of serious infection by cryptococcus, Aspergillus,candida?

A

Cryptococcus: Meningitis
Candida: Candidemia
Aspergillus: pneumonia

228
Q

Culture medium to legionella?

A

BCYE
Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract ( L-cysteine)

SILVER STAIN!!!!

229
Q

Agent which cause tinea Capitis and tinea corporis?

A

Microsporum

230
Q

Where betalactamase genes are Encoding?

A

plasmids!!!

231
Q

Gram negative rods , lactose fermenter indol ➕ and indol ➖

A

indol ➕ E. COLI!!!!

indol ➖ ENTEROBACTER!!!!!

232
Q

What is the major virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae type b?

A

Capsule- PRP ( polyrobosylribitol phosphate)

Which bind the factor H.

233
Q

How streptococcus prevent complement activation?

A

M PROTEIN bind factor H prevents opsonization

234
Q

Major virulence factor of mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Trehalose dimycolat

protects from macrophages

235
Q

Viruses which replicate into red blood cells precursors and lymphocytes?(2)

A

RBCs. Parvovirus B19

Lymphocytes HHV-6 roseola

236
Q

Hypovitaminosis of Vit A is related with bad prognosis in which viral infection?

A

MEASLES!!!! Rubeola

237
Q

Which microorganisms produce a toxin which inactivate the elongation factor 2? (2)

A

Diphtheria - diphtheria toxin

P. Aeruginosa - Exotoxin A

238
Q

Difference between toxins of B. Pertussis and V. Cholera ?

A

B. Pertussis ⬆️cAMP by ❎Gi ADP

V. Cholera ⬆️cAMP by ✅Gs ADP

239
Q

Clinical findings In perinatal hepatitis B infection ?(3)

A

No symptoms (immune tolerant)
90% chronic infection
High viral load & HBeAg ➕

240
Q

How does amphotericin B works ? And principal side effects? (5)

A

Fungal cell lysis by ergosterol binding but bind cholesterol in high doses

  1. Acute : fever hypotension , rigidity
  2. nephrotoxicity
  3. ⬇️magnesium ⬇️potassium
  4. Anemia. By ⬇️EPO
  5. Thrombophlebitis
241
Q

What viruses are non responsive to acyclovir action and why?

A

Epstein-Barr virus
Cytomegalovirus

Lack of thymidine to phosphorylate acyclovir

242
Q

What’s QUELLUNG. Reaction?

A

Dx S. P. Neumoniae

Capsular swelling blue stain bacterial
Specific anti-capsule antibody
Methylene blue dye

243
Q

Most important virulence factor of S. Pneumoniae?

A

Polysaccharide capsule

244
Q

What’s D- glutamic acid capsule ?

A

Is a residue in capsule of B. Anthrax

245
Q

Mechanism of action of Daptomicin?

And side effects ? (2)

A

Create transmembrane channels

Side effect myopathy and rhabdomyolysis

246
Q

Explain the prophylaxis for opportunistic infections in HIV according CD4+ count. (4)

A

<200 P. Jirovecci ⏩ TMP-SMX
<150 Histoplasma ⏩ Itraconazol
<100 T. Gondii. ⏩ TMP-SMX
<50 M. Avium - Intracellulare ⏩ Azithromycin

247
Q

Principal characteristics of Micobacterium Avium Complex ( avium+Intracellulare) infection in HIV+ <50 CD4+? (5)

A 
Anemia
Hepatosplenomegaly
⬆️ Alkaline phosphatase 
⬆️ Lactato Dehydrogenase
Grow 41 grades
248
Q

Function of O antigen?

A

Outermost in LPS

To classify gram (-) bacteria

249
Q

Risk of patients after cystoscopy ,colonoscopy and obstetric procedures and agent?

A 
ENDOCARDITIS
 by Enterococcus:
🔹Grow in bile
🔹grow in 6.5% NaCl
🔹PYR ➕
250
Q

Goups of antibiotics which inhibit bacterial 50s ribosomal subunit?

A 
MACROLIDE
CHLORAMPHENICOL 
LINEZOLID
CLINDAMICIN
ESTREPTOGRAMINS
251
Q

What antibiotics Inhibit the bacterial 30s ribosomal subunit? (4)

A

DoxyCYCLINE
tetraCYCLINE
minoCYCLINE
AMINOGLYCOSIDES

252
Q

How enterotoxigenic E. Coli and Yersinia enterocolitica produce watery diarrhea and electrolyte loss?

A

⬆️Intracellular cGMP

253
Q

How Clostridiun difficile enterotoxin A and cytotoxin B works?
And diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis ?

A

Enterotoxin A Watery diarrhea

Cytotoxin B Disrupting the cytoskeleton
Depolymerixing actin

PCR of toxin genes

254
Q

Explain echinococcus Granulosum infection and How it’s can cause dead in surgery ?

A

Tape worm transmitted from dogs and sheep

HYDATID CYSTS in liver,lungs and muscles eggshell calcification

full of monocytes and eosinophilis manipulation can cause ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK!!!!

255
Q

How acetaminophen, NSAIDS and corticosteroids can decrease fever?

A

⬇️PGE2 reducing the thermoregulatory set point in the hypothalamus

256
Q

What kind of drugs increase the serum levels of Azoles?

A

Cytochrome oxidase inducers

Rifampin
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital

257
Q

Mechanism of action of Flucytosine?

A

Inhibit DNA and RNA fungal synthesis

✅cryptococcosis

258
Q

Food linked with salmonella?(2)

A

🐣Raw egg

🐔Raw chicken

259
Q

Two principal infectious agents linked with ectopic pregnancy?

A

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

Chlamydia Trachomatis

260
Q

Time to presentation of Sydenham chorea?

A

1-8 months!!!!!

261
Q

Localization and etiology of Janeway lesions and Osler nodes in infectious endocarditis?

A

Janeway lesions: Palms & Soles septic 🔹microembolism

Osler nodes: pulp of fingers and toes 🔹immunocomplex

262
Q

Why biofilms are resistant to antibiotics?

A

Intermicrobial communication induces exopolysacaride production

263
Q

Family of streptomycin?

A

AMINOGLYCOSIDE!!!!!

264
Q

Principal mycobacterium tuberculosis resistance to Izoniazid?

A

⬇️catalase-peroxidase activity

265
Q

Principal mycobacterium tuberculosis resistance to Ethambutol?

A

⬆️cell wall polysaccharide synthesis

266
Q

After influenza A outbreak elderly patients are in high risk of pneumonia for which pathogens?

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. Staphylococcus Aureus
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
267
Q

Explain the antyfungal targets of antimucotics. (4 targets)

A

CELL WALL Caspofungin
CELL MEMBRANE amphotericin B, nystatin; Azoles,terbinafine
DNA RNA SYNTHESIS Flucytosine
MITOSIS Griseofulvin

268
Q

Which culture mediums can be used to corynebacterium diphtheria grow?

A

Cysteine- tellurine agar

Loffler’s médium

269
Q

Microscopic features of listeria?(3)

A

Gram+ rods

Tumbling motility ate room temp

270
Q

Specific feature of Gardnerella Vaginalis ?

A

ANAEROBIC GRAM-VARIABLE ROD!!!!!!

271
Q

What are segmented viruses , which permits reassortment, to enhance epidemic features?(5)

A 
Rotavirus
Orthomixovirus
Reovirus
Bunyavirus
Arenavirus
272
Q

Important features of B. Anthracis.

A

ANTIPHAGOCYTIC D GLUTAMATE CAPSULE
Gram - rods

woolstortes disease 🐏
Culture media with medusa head appearance

HEMORRHAGIC MEDIASTINITIS !!!!

273
Q

Intracellular polyphosphate granules are characteristic in?

A

Orynebacterium diphtheriae

274
Q

Important findings of Q fever and agent?

A

Coxiella burnetti

ZOONOSIS animal waste

Headache retroorbital
Fever
Pneumonia consolidation
Thrombocytopenia

275
Q

which infections needs the use of face -masks in health workers?

A

droplets > 5 microns

N. meningitides
influenza
B.pertussis
M. pneumoniae
RSV
276
Q

How bacteria develope resistance against aminoglycosides?

A

By aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes

transfer acetyl-adenyl-phosphate groups

277
Q

which antibiotics acts in 50S RNA and 30S RNA subunits?(4-3)

A

50S chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, macrolides

30S tetracycline, doxycycline, aminoglycosides

278
Q

what type of patients are more susceptible for Babesia infection?

A

Asplenic patients!!!!

279
Q

How is the differencial clinical presentation and Diagnosis of Syphilis, Genital herpes, Chancorid, Granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)?

A

Syphilis: painless ulcer VDRL/RPR , Dark feild

Genital herpes:Painfull ulcers PCR ,Tzanck smear

Chancorid: Painfull deep supurative ulcers Limphadenitis PCR, Gram.

Granuloma inguinale (donovanosis) painless serpenginous ulcers no Lymphadenopathy , Gram - Biopsy

279
Q

How Micobacterium tuberculosis is Isoniazid resistant ?

A

⬇️intracellular catalase peroxidase activity

280
Q

what bacteria is transmitted from domestic animals to humans and is the most common cause of acute gastroenteritis in industrialized countries?

A

CAMPILOBACTER JEJUNI !!!!!!!

282
Q

Explain different drugs which interact with tetrahydrofolate reductase.(3)

A

TMP bacteria
MTX human
Pyrimethamine Protozoa

283
Q

Mechanism of action of metronidazole ?

A

Binds bacterial-Protozoa DNA
Unraveling helical structure
Breaking its strands

284
Q

strategies to decreas central venous catheter infections?(5)

A 
Hand hygiene
Maximal barrier precautions
chlorexidine antiseptic
subclavian or internal jugular insertion
prompt removal
285
Q

mechanism of action of Terbinafine, Caspofungine, Griseofulvine.

A

Terbinafin 🚫squalene epoxidase so 🚫ergosterol synthesis

Caspofungine 🚫 beta-d glucan Aspergillus Candida

Griseofulvine 🚫 microtubules polimerization so 🚫 mitosis

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