Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCPCH FOP/TAS > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by a Type A drug reaction?

A

Augmented - dose dependent, frequent, predictable, explained by drug pharmacology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is meant by a Type B drug reaction?

A

Bizarre - dose independent, rare, not explained by drug pharmacology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is meant by a Type C drug reaction?

A

Chronic - dose and time dependent, long-term use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is meant by a Type D drug reaction?

A

Delayed - very rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is meant by a Type E drug reaction?

A

End of treatment - due to withdrawal/relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the mechanism of cyclopentolate?

A

M1 muscarinic ACh antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the main adverse effect of dobutamine?

A

Risk of rapid ventricular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the MOA of Omeprazole?

A

H+/K+ATPase pump inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the topical steroids in order of potency?

A

Hydrocortisone 0.1% < Eumovate < Betnovate < Dermovate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which anti-epileptic can cause ataxia?

A

Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the mechanism of methylphenidate?

A

Dopamine and NE reuptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the main side effect of protease inhibitors?

A

Dyslipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many half lives does it take for drug elimination?

A

4-5 half lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an important long term side effect of cyclosporin?

A

Chronic interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality can be associated with salbutamol use?

A

Hypokalaemja

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the mechanism of Fomepizole?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the mechanism of Trimethoprim?

A

interferes with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the mechanism of inflixamab?

A

TNF-alpha inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the MOA of loop diuretics?

A

Inhibits N+/K+/Cl- pump in thick ascending loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?

A

Inhibits Na/Cl pump in DCT

21
Q

What is the mechanism of ranitidine?

A

H2 antagonist

22
Q

What is the MOA of anti-histamines?

A

H1 antagonist`

23
Q

Cephalosporins mainly cover which kind of organisms?

A

Gram negative

24
Q

What is the MOA of milrinone?

A

PDE-III inhibitor

25
Q

What is the MOA of LMWHs?

A

Anti-thrombin dependent inactivation of Factor Xa

26
Q

Which antibiotics bind to the 50s sub-unit?

A

Chloramphenicol, macrolides, clindamycin

27
Q

Which renal complication is associated with acetazolamide?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)

28
Q

What is the mechanism of NAC?

A

Increases glutathione production by providing cysteine

29
Q

What is the target for toculizumab?

30
Q

What is the MOA of Gentamicin?

A

Binds to 30s sub-unit to inhibit protein synthesis

31
Q

What is the MOA of adenosine?

A

Acts on A1 receptors in AV node to reduce conduction velocity

32
Q

What is the MOA of amiodarone?

A

K+ channel blocker

33
Q

Which class of anti-depressants increase the risk of GI bleeding?

34
Q

What is the most common side effect of quinine?

35
Q

Which steroid medication has least mineralocorticoid effect?

A

Dexamethasone

36
Q

Why is ceftriaxone avoided in neonates?

A

Increases bilirubin

37
Q

Which anti-TB medication is associated with peripheral neuropathy?

38
Q

What is the mechanism of sumatriptan?

A

5HT-1D receptor agonist resulting in vasoconstriction of cranial blood vessels

39
Q

Which anti-epileptics may interfere with oral contraceptives?

A

Enzyme inducers - phenytoin, carbemazepine, topiramate

40
Q

What is the MOA of azathioprine in immunosuppression?

A

Inhibition of purine nucleoside synthesis

41
Q

What is the MOA of anankinra?

A

IL-1 inhibitor

42
Q

What is the MOA of adalimumab?

A

Anti-TNF-alpha

43
Q

What class of antibiotics does Vancomycin belong to?

A

Glycopeptide

44
Q

What class of antibiotics does Gentamicin belong to?

A

Aminoglycosides

45
Q

What is the MOA of Atomoxetine?

A

Selective NE re-uptake inhibitor

46
Q

Which type of insulin are found in insulin pumps?

A

Short-acting

47
Q

Which monoclonal antibody may be used for asthma?

A

Omalizumab

48
Q

Which monoclonal antibody may be used for ITP?

49
Q

Which vitamin should be co-prescribed with orlistat?

MRCPCH FOP/TAS (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions