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MRCPCH FOP/TAS > Basic science > Flashcards

Basic science Flashcards

1
Q

When does gastrulation occur?

A

Week 3

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2
Q

At what stage does the neural tube close?

A

Week 4

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3
Q

When does an embryo’s heart begin to beat?

A

Week 4

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4
Q

When in embryonic development does genitalia become differentiated?

A

Week 10

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5
Q

What are the three embryonic layers?

A

Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm

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6
Q

The CNS is derived from which embryonic layer?

A

Ectoderm

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7
Q

Most bones and connective tissue are derived from which embryonic layer?

A

Mesoderm

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8
Q

Where is bilirubin conjugated?

A

Liver

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9
Q

Which type of ulcers are more common with HSV 1?

A

Oral lesions

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10
Q

Which type of ulcers are more common with HSV 2?

A

Genital

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11
Q

During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes align at the centre of the cell?

A

Metaphase

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12
Q

Cobblestone appearance suggests…

A

Crohn’s disease

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13
Q

Granulomas are found in which type of IBD?

A

Crohn’s disease

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14
Q

Crypt abscesses are more common in which type of IBD?

A

UC

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15
Q

Measles evades the immune system by interacting with which immune cell?

A

Dendritic cells

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of paracetamol damage to the kidneys?

A

NAPQI-induced renal papillary necrosis

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17
Q

Studies which compare new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests may suffer from which type of bias?

A

Workup bias

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18
Q

What are the main phases of the cell cycle?

A

G1 > S > G2 > M…

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19
Q

At which point in the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A

S

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20
Q

What are the four stages of mitosis?

A

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

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21
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

chromatin condenses, chromosomes become visible

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22
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

Chromosomes line up at centre of the cell

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23
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

Sister chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell

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24
Q

What happens during telophase?

A

Cytoplasm separates, allowing for 2 daughter cells to form

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25
Q

What happens during the urea cycle?

A

Nitrogenous waste products converted to urea, eliminated by urine

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26
Q

What is the accessory bundle called in WPW syndrome?

A

Bundle of Kent

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27
Q

What is meant by ‘left shift’ of the oxy-Hb curve?

A

Increased Hb-O2 affinity and reduced tissue uptake

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28
Q

What is meant by ‘right shift’ of the oxy-Hb curve?

A

Decreased Hb-O2 affinity and increased tissue uptake

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29
Q

Which factors result in ‘right shift’ of the oxy-Hb curve?

A

INCREASED temp, CO2, 2,3-DPG, H+, altitude

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30
Q

Which factors result in ‘left shift’ of the oxy-Hb curve?

A

DECREASED temp, CO2, 2,3-DPG, H+, altitude

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31
Q

What is the effect of CO on the oxy-Hb dissociation curve?

A

Results in left shift

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32
Q

Which antibody is most involved in plasmodium vivax entry into cells?

A

Duffy

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33
Q

Which complement deficiencies can give rise to opportunistic infections?

A

C5-9

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34
Q

Which porphyria is associated with photosensitivity?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

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35
Q

What is the mechanism of action of methylphenidate?

A

Inhibits dopamine reuptake in basal ganglia

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36
Q

Which enzyme is involved in conjugation of bilirubin?

A

UDPGT

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37
Q

Which anti-TB drug can affect INR?

A

Rifampicin

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38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of milrinone?

A

Inhibition of PDE-III

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39
Q

What is the function of the CFTR?

A

Movement of chloride from intracellular to extracellular space in lungs

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40
Q

What colour do gram positive organisms stain?

A

Purple

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41
Q

What colour do gram negative organisms stain?

A

Pink

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42
Q

Do gram positive or negative organisms have a thicker peptidoglycan wall?

A

Positive

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43
Q

Give examples of gram positive cocci.

A

Staph
Strep
Enterococcus

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44
Q

Give examples of gram positive bacilli.

A

AACDL mnemonic
Actinomyces
Anthrax
Clostridium
Diphtheria
Listeria

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45
Q

Treponema pallidum is which kind of organism?

A

Gram negative spirochete

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46
Q

What kind of virus is HIV?

A

Single-stranded RNA reverse transcriptase

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47
Q

What kind of virus is Hepatitis B?

A

Double-stranded DNA reverse transcriptase

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48
Q

Give examples of DNA viruses.

A

Smallpox
Parvovirus
Hep B (reverse transcriptase)

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49
Q

Give examples of RNA viruses.

A

Rotavirus
Coronavirus
Measles
HIV (reverse transcriptase)

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50
Q

Increased PT suggests an issue with which pathway and factor?

A

Extrinsic pathway, factor 7

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51
Q

Increased APTT suggests an issue with which pathway?

A

Intrinsic pathway

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52
Q

Which clotting factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway?

A

8, 9, 11 and 12

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53
Q

Raised PT and APT suggests…

A

common pathway issue

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54
Q

Which factors are involved in the ‘common pathway’?

A

Factors 2,5 and 10

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55
Q

Which factors are Vitamin K dependent?

A

2, 7, 9 and 10

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56
Q

Which factor is deficient in Haemophilia A?

A

Factor 8 (VIII)

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57
Q

Which factor is deficient in Haemophilia B?

A

Factor 9 (IX)

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58
Q

Which factor is deficient in Haemophilia C?

A

Factor 11 (XI)

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59
Q

How is haemophilia C inherited?

A

AR

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60
Q

What is the mechanism of loop diuretics?

A

Inhibits Na/K/2Cl co-transporter in thick ascending loop of Henle to increase water excretion

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61
Q

What is the mechanism of thiazide-like diuretics?

A

Inhibit Na absorption at DCT resulting in water loss

62
Q

What is the mechanism of aldosterone antagonists?

A

Block effects of aldosterone in DCT –> reduced activity of Na/K exchanger resulting in water loss

63
Q

Which ion is most important in cardioplegia solution?

64
Q

What kind of receptor is Ca-sensing receptor?

65
Q

What are the main roles of PTH in calcium metabolsim?

A

Stimulates Ca release from bones
Stimulates Ca uptake by kidneys
Conversion of Vit D to active form

66
Q

What is the main role of Vit D in calcium metabolism?

A

Increase intestinal absorption of Ca

67
Q

Give features of hypocalcaemia.

A

Spasm/parasthesia
Seizures
Arrythmia

68
Q

Renin is primarily secreted in response to…

69
Q

What is the role of Renin?

A

hydrolyses angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I

70
Q

Which structures are included in a myelomeningocoele?

A

Meninges, CSF and spinal nerves

71
Q

Which anti-D immunoglobin is responsible for haemolytic disease of the newborn?

72
Q

What is CVID?

A

Group of hypogammaglobulinaemi syndromes characterised by recurrent infections, increased risk of malignancy and autoimmune disease

73
Q

What is the underlying issue in Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia?

A

Defect in Bruton’s Tyrosine Kinase resulting in severe block in B cell development

74
Q

How is Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia inherited?

A

X-linked recessive

75
Q

Which immune cell is affected in DiGeorge Syndrome?

76
Q

What is the most common cause of SCID?

77
Q

Recurrent bacterial infections, eczema and thrombocytopaenia suggests…

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

78
Q

How is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome inherited?

79
Q

What is the most abundant Ig sub-class in serum?

80
Q

Which is the first immunoglobulin secreted in acute infection?

81
Q

Basophilic stippling suggests…

A

Lead poisoning

82
Q

What is the mechanism of Na valproate?

A

Increased GABA activity

83
Q

What is the mechanism of Carbemazepine?

A

Binds to Na+ channels to increase refractory perior

84
Q

What is the mechanism of Lamotrigine?

A

Na+ channel blocker

85
Q

Which anti-epileptic(s) are P450 inhibitor?

86
Q

Which anti-epileptics are P450 inducers?

A

Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin

87
Q

Which eye drops are typically used to dilate the pupils?

88
Q

Which is the only vaccine to be given intra-dermally?

89
Q

Prostaglandin is produced by…

A

Cyclo-oxygenase

90
Q

What is the mechanism of UVB phototherapy?

A

Induction of pyridimine dimerisation

91
Q

Where is melatonin produced?

A

Pineal gland

92
Q

Which part of the bone is most susceptible to osteomyelitis?

A

Metaphysis

93
Q

Which part of the bone is most susceptible to osteomyelitis?

A

Metaphysis

94
Q

When is a serious case review initiated (England)?

A

Child dies or serious injury and abuse suspected

95
Q

What are the most common causes of meningitis in > 3 months?

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Strep pneumoniae
H influenzae

96
Q

What are the CSF findings in bacterial meningitis?

A

Raised protein, low glucose, increased polymorphs

97
Q

What are the CSF findings in viral meningitis?

A

Increased or normal protein, normal glucose, increased lymphocytes

98
Q

What are the CSF findings in fungal/TB meningitis?

A

Raised protein, low glucose, increased lymphocytes

99
Q

Is grey or white matter more associated with decision making?

100
Q

What is the mechanism of Vigabatrin?

A

GABA inhibitor

101
Q

What is the MOA of levetiracetam?

A

Modulates SVA2 which regulates release of neurotransmitter

102
Q

What is the MOA of ranitidine?

A

H2 receptor antagonist

103
Q

What is the MOA of chlorephenamine?

A

H1 receptor antagonist

104
Q

What is the MOA of Domperidone?

A

Dopamine antagonist

105
Q

What is the role of leptin?

A

Decrease food intake and increase energy expenditure

106
Q

What is the role of Ghrelin?

A

Increase food intake, fat deposition and GH release

107
Q

What is the MOA of ethosuximide?

A

T-type Ca channel blocker

108
Q

What are the typical CSF findings in GBS?

A

Protein +++, normal WCC/glucose

109
Q

Which area is typically affected in IVH?

A

Germinal matrix

110
Q

What is the primary mechanism of botulinum toxin?

A

ACh inhibition

111
Q

What is the main method of paracetamol metabolism in children < 12?

A

Sulphate conjugation

112
Q

Which protein reduces iron transport through enterocytes?

113
Q

What is the MOA of rocuronium?

A

competitive ACh antagonist –> preventing depolarisation

114
Q

What is the most potent beta-agonist?

A

Dobutamine

115
Q

What is the pathological process in SMA?

A

Anterior horn cell degeneration

116
Q

Which part of the nephron is defective in Cystinuria?

117
Q

Isolated premature development of pubic hair is called…

A

Premature adrenarche

118
Q

Bias in which researchers’ ideas/hopes influence result…

A

observation bias

119
Q

How are live attenuated vaccines made?

A

Passed through live foreign host

120
Q

What is the detrimental gene in MRSA?

121
Q

Where is leptin produced?

A

Adipocytes & P cells of stomach

122
Q

Where is ghrelin produced?

A

Enteroendocrine cells in fundus of stomach

123
Q

Where is somatostatin produced?

A

Hypothalamus and delta cells of GI tract

124
Q

Which structure of the visual pathway is affected in a homonymous hemianopia?

A

Optic tract

125
Q

Which structure of the visual pathway is affected in a quadrantanopia?

A

Optic radiation

126
Q

Which structure is affected in an inferior quandrantanopia?

A

Superior optic radiation (parietal lobe)

127
Q

Which structure is affected in a superior quandrantanopia?

A

Inferior optic radiation (temporal lobe)

128
Q

What is the mechanism of phototherapy for jaundice?

A

Photoisomerisation from bilirubin to lumirubin which can be excreted in urine

129
Q

What are the main functions of the PCT?

A

Reabsorb ions, water and nutrients, remove toxins and adjust pH

130
Q

What are the main functions of the DCT?

A

Selective secretion of ions to maintain blood pH and electrolyte balance

131
Q

Where in the nephron are aquaporins primarily located?

A

Descending loop of Henle

132
Q

What is the main function of the ascending loop of Henle?

A

Reabsorb Na/Cl

133
Q

Between which layers is CSF located?

A

Between arachnoid and pia mater

134
Q

What is the main location of CSF production?

A

Ependymal cells in choroid plexus

135
Q

Where is CSF re-absorbed?

A

Arachnoid granulations into superior sagittal sinuses

136
Q

What is the flow of CSF within the ventricles?

A

Foramen of Munro –> Lateral ventricles –> 3rd ventricle —> Cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) –> Foramina of Magendie/Luschka –> 4th ventricle –> sub-arachnoid space

137
Q

What is the most important enzyme in transporting fatty acids from adipose tissue to mitochondria?

A

Carnitine acyltransferase I

138
Q

Histology: Patchy enteropathy with increase in eosinophils and lymphocytes (no increase in inra-cellular lymphocytes).

139
Q

Increase in intraepithelial lymphocyte count on duodenal biopsy suggests…

A

Coeliac disease

140
Q

What is the most appropriate test for galactossaemia?

A

Red blood cell galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase activity

141
Q

Acidosis and raised ammonia suggests…

A

Organic aciduria

142
Q

Slightly low factor VIII and raised APTT suggests…

A

Von-Willebrand disease

143
Q

Which toxin is most involved in bullous impetigo?

A

Exfoliative toxin A

144
Q

Which toxin is most involved in SSSS?

A

Exfoliative toxin B

145
Q

What kind of organism is listeria?

A

Gram positive rod

146
Q

During which embryonic phase do alveoli start to develop?

147
Q

Which layer of skin is most affected by epidemolysis bullosa simplex?

A

Basal epidermis

148
Q

Where is most Vitamin B12 absorbed?

149
Q

Which HLA sub-type is most associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis?

150
Q

Unable to prolong APTT with heparin suggests…

A

AT III deficiency

151
Q

Where is ADH synthesised?

A

Hypothalamus

MRCPCH FOP/TAS (11 decks)

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