Pharmacology Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the types and effects of adrenergic receptors?

A

Stimulate alpha-1 and beta-1 receptors.
Inhibit alpha-2 and beta-2 receptors.

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2
Q

What do alpha-1 receptors work on?

A

Alpha 1 receptors are adrenergic receptors.
GQ protein coupled to produce stimulatory effect
Found in:
- blood vessels –> Vasoconstriction
Certain smooth muscles of urogenital tract –> contraction e.g. oppose voiding bladder and ejactulation.
- glands –> secretion
- GI tract –> relaxation

Agonist: phenylephrine
Antagonist: prazosin

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3
Q

What do beta-1 receptors work on?

A

Found in:
- Heart
SA note –> increase rhythmicity increase heart rate
AV node –> increase conduction velocity
ventricular myocytes –> increase contractility
- Juxtaglomerular cells in kidneys –> increase renin release

Selective agonist: Dobutamine
Selective antagonist: metoprolol, atenolol, etc

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4
Q

What do Beta 2 receptors act on?

A

Found in:
Bronchi –> Bronchodilation
Blood Vessels –> vasodilation
uterus –> relaxation
GI tract –> relaxation
Pancreas –> glucagon secretion
Eye –> increase aqueous secretion
Detrusor muscle –> relaxation

Selective agonist: Salbutamol, terbutaline
Selective antagonist: alpha-methyl propanolol

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5
Q

What do beta 3 receptors act on?

A

Found in adipose tissue and detrusor muscle to cause relaxation
Selective agonist: mirabegron

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6
Q

What are the effects of the dopamine and its receptors when stimulated?

A

Dopamine is a catecholamine that has mixed adrenergic effects.
It has little alpha-adrenergic effects

lower doses (0.5-3mcg/kg/min): Dilate renal mesenteric coronary vascular beds. Useful in oliguric renal failure.

higher doses (5-13 mcg/kg/min): has beta-1 adrenergic agonist affects resulting in vasodilation. Can be used to improve cardiac output by decreasing afterload.

Dose range: 1-20mcg/kg/min. Discontinue if tachycardic or arrhythmic.

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7
Q

What are the effects of norepinephrine?

A

Norepinephrine is a mixed adrenergic agonist with a stronger effect on alpha-1 receptors than beta receptors.

It causes increased vasoconstriction.
It will commonly lower heart rate on account of baroreceptor reflex with increased blood pressure
Caution: Large dose of norepinephrine can cause profound bradycardia

Concern: to much vasoconstriction increases afterload causing decreased cardiac output.

Dose: 0.1 - 2mcg/kg/min

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8
Q

What are the effects of phenylephrine?

A

Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 agonist.
Indicated for hypotension when beta-adrenergic agonist effects are not desirable.
Can cause increased blood pressure and bradycardia.
too much vasoconstriction can increase afterload and decrease output. (Use with caution in patient with bradycardia or cardiac disease).

Dose: 0.1-2mcg/kg/min

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9
Q

What are the effects of vasopressin?

A

Vasopressin is also known as anti-diuretic hormone.

It causes vasoconstriction independent of adrenergic stimulation.
It is commonly used in conjunction with norepinephrine for refractory hypotension.
Vasopressin is not affected by pH making it ideal for use during prolonged CPR.

Dose: 0.01-0.04units/kg/min
Strength: 0.01units/ml

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10
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine?

A

Epinephrine is a mixed adrenergic agonist with both alpha 1 and beta one agonist properties

Low dose: beta-adrenergic effects predominate improving cardiac output and cardiac contractility

higher doses: more of an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist resulting in vasoconstriction.

CRI dose: 0.1-2.0mcg/kg/min

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11
Q

What do alpha-2 receptors work on?

A

Gi/Go coupled proteins acting on adenylyl cyclase cAMP pathway to produce inhibitory effects

receptors located prejunctional in nerve endings to inhibit transmitter release
Receptors in the brain decrease sympathetic flow
receptors in the pancreatic beta cells inhibit the release of insulin
Alpha 2 promotes platelet aggregation
receptors in the blood vessels induces vasoconstriction

results in profound sedative and analgesic qualities. Alpha-2 are effective emetics in cats

Agonist: Clonidine, dexmeditomidine, xylazine
Antagonist: Yohimbine

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12
Q

Cholinergic Muscarinic receptors

A

Involved in peristalsis, micturition, bronchoconstriction and several other parasympathetic reactions.

Muscarinic receptors are type of ligand-gated G-protein coupled receptor and are linked to second messenger systems.

Muscarinic receptor varies with the receptor subtype.

These receptors occur in the CNS and the autonomic parasympathetic division of the PNS.

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13
Q

Cholinergic receptors

A

Two types of cholinergic receptors: Nicotinic and muscarinic

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14
Q

Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

A

Found on skeletal muscles in the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and in the central nervous system.

Nicotinic receptors are monovalent cation channels through which both sodium and potassium can pass.

Nicotinic receptors divided into two subtypes:
N1 - peripheral neuromuscular junction - muscle contraction, if on adrenal glands - release adrenaline and norepinephrine
N2 - central nervous systemor neuronal

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15
Q

Adrenergic receptors

A

Are divided into two classes (alpha and beta) with multiple subtypes each.

Adrenergic receptors are linked to G proteins and initiate a second messenger cascade.

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16
Q

Glutaminergic Receptors

A

Metabotropic glutaminergic receptors act through G-protein-coupled receptors. Two types of glutaminergic receptors are receptor channels.

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17
Q

Glutamate

A

The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS and also acts as a neuromodulator.

Action of glutamate at a particular synapse depends on which of its receptor types occurs on the target cell

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18
Q

alpha amino-3-hydroxy-5 methylisoxazole-4-proprionic acid)

AMPA receptors

A

Ligand-gated monovalent cation channels are similar to nicotinic acetylcholine channels.

Glutamate binding opens the channel, and the cell depolarizes due to net sodium influx.

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19
Q

N-methyl-D-aspartate

NMDA receptors

A

cation channels that allow sodium, potassium, and calcium to pass through the channel

Channel opening requires both glutamate binding and a change in membrane potential.

NMDA receptor channel is blocked by magnesium ions at resting membrane potentials.

Glutamate binding opens the ligand-activated gate, but ions cannot flow past the magnesium. If the cell depolarizes, the magnesium blocking the channel is expelled, and ions flow through the pores.

The NMDA receptor is a CNS receptor that ultimately has an excitatory effect CNS effect. Activation of NMDA receptors has been associated with altered modulation pathways and the formation of chronic pain including hyperalgesia, allodynia and reduced functionality of opioid receptors.

Ketamine is believed to be an NMDA antagonist that essentially shus off the NMDA receptor and believed to prevent and treat hyperalgesia and allodynia.

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20
Q

Hyperalgesia

A

phenomenon resulting in prolonged exposure of receptors to noxious stimuli, leading to stimulus that should cause mild pain producing an excessive sense of pain.

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21
Q

allodynia

A

a type of nerve pain that causes pain from stimuli that normally wouldn’t cause pain. e.g. a mild stimulus may feel more painful when sunburned or inflammed.

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22
Q

Gamma-aminobutyric acid type A (GABA A)

A

Ligand-gated ion channels that allow chloride ions to pass into cells.

one of the body’s main inhibitory transmitters. When stimulated will suppress excitability in the central nervous system.

Drugs that stimulate GABA A receptors: Avermectins, Benzodiazepines, propofol, Etomidate, Alfaxalone

Conditions that increase activity of GABA system: hepatic encephalopathy

Drugs that will decrease GABA: Metaldhyde, Lead interferes with GABA

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23
Q

What does ACEi stand for? What does it do?

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors that disrupt the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

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24
Q

Which organs does angiotensin II act on and what is the outcome of its mechanism of action?

A

Converted from Angiotensin I by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Angiotensin II is a hormone that binds to receptors in various tissues to exert various effects.

Acts on the adrenal cortex, causing it to release aldosterone.

stimulates vasoconstriction in systemic arterioles

Promotes sodium reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubules of the kidneys.

In the CNS:
It acts on the hypothalamus to stimulate thirst and encourage water intake
It induces the posterior pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone
It reduces the sensitivity of the baroreceptors’ response to increase blood pressure

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25
Q

What is the role of angiotensin-converting enzyme?

A

It converts Angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

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26
Q

What are some effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibition (ACEi)?

A

decrease proteinuria
promote vasodilation and ventilation
reduce plasma volume

All of the above sums to decrease systolic blood pressure

ACEi can also decrease the metabolism of vasodilatory agent bradykinin resulting in decrease in vascular tone.

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27
Q

What is first line of treatment for systemic hypertension in dogs?

A

ACE inhibitors

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28
Q

What are two of the most common ACEi?

A

Enalapril and Benazepril

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29
Q

Is ACEi a recommended first line treatment for SHT in cats? Why?

A

ACEi is not a recommended fist line treatment for cats as it does not sufficiently nor consistently lower blood pressure.

Benazepril may be beneficial in conjunction with calcium channel blocker.

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30
Q

What is the concern with ACEi in patients who are dehydrated or azotemic?

A

There is potential to worsen glomerular filtration rate and renal function through preferential dilation of the efferent arteriole that would thereby decrease glomerular filtration pressure.

Overall risk is low unless the patient also being treated with diuretic therapy or the patient has severe azotemia.

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31
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance might ACEi administration contribute?

A

hyperkalemia secondary to inhibition of aldosterone. However, this is unlikely to be clinically relevant event when given in conjunction with aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.

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32
Q

What effects do angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) exert?

A

Blocks the ability of angiotensin II to activate its receptors.
It does not affect the metabolism of bradykinin.

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33
Q

What is a contraindication for angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)?

A

Do not use in severely dehydrated or azotemic patients

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34
Q

What class of drug is Spironolactone?

A

aldosterone antagonist

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35
Q

How do aldosterone antagonist exert their effects?

A

Block the effects of aldosterone on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

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36
Q

Aldosterone

A

It is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex when stimulated by Angiotensin II.

It helps control the balance of water and salts in the kidney by keeping sodium and releasing potassium from the body.

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37
Q

What are the effects of chronic exposure to aldosterone?

A

Induces vascular remodeling in the glomerulus to retain sodium and water resulting in systemic hypertension.

Aldosterone also exerts proinflammatory effects promoting fibrosis.

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38
Q

What is a primary indication for use of spironolactone?

A

Hyperaldosteronism

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39
Q

When is it reasonable to suspect hyperaldosteronism in cats?

A

hypertension
hypernatremia
hypokalemia

mostly in chronic kidney disease

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40
Q

What is a potential adverse effect of spironolactone?

A

development of hyperkalemia. However, this is unlikely unless used with ACEi, ARBs or Beta blocker

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41
Q

Dihydropyridines

A

Dihydropyridines are a type of calcium channel blocker (CCB) that block calcium channels located in the muscle cells of the heart and arterial blood vessels, thereby reducing the entry of calcium ions into the cells. By blocking these channels, CCBs promote:
vasodilation
increase strength in contractility
minimal effect on cardiac conduction though the decrease in blood pressure may trigger a reflex tachycardia.

E.g. Amlodipine and Nicardipine

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42
Q

What is first line treatment for antihypertensives in cats?

A

Amlodipine because it has shown to be more effective than ACEi.

If the cat is refractory to amlodipine, then it may require an addition of ACEi or ARB

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43
Q

Side effects of CCBs

A

Reflex tachycardia
weakness, lethargy and decrease in appetite
intrarenal hemodynamics –> CCB promotes preferential afferent arteriolar dilation over the efferent arteriole, which may result in increased intraglomerular pressure, resulting in damage to the glomerulus and worsening proteinuria.

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44
Q

Adrenergic Antagonist

A

It can help manage SHT, especially if the underlying mechanism is sympathetically driven.

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45
Q

Prazosin

A

Selective alpha 1 antagonist to promote smooth muscle vascular relaxation.

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46
Q

Acepromazine

A

Dopamine antagonist with the potential to cause hypotension and GI upset

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47
Q

Atenolol

A

Beta 1 selective antagonist
Decreases heart rate and contractility
Reduces renin release and peripheral vascular resistance

Used more in cats with SHT and hypethyroidism

Used in dogs as adjunct for refractory SHT with reflex tachycardia

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48
Q

Propanolol

A

Non-selective beta antagonist
Decreases heart rate and contractility
Reduces renin release and peripheral vascular resistance

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49
Q

What is an adverse side effect of atenolol

A

Excessive bradycardia

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50
Q

Labetalol

A

Injectable mix of alpha and beta antagonists.
Used to manage severe acute hypertension
promotes vasodilation and prevents associated tachycardia
The use has been explored in dogs undergoing craniotomy or adrenalectomy

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51
Q

Hydralazine

A

Promotes vasodilation by altering smooth muscle intracellular metabolism.

works primarily on arteries

Causes vasodilation, afterload reduction and lowering of blood pressure

The mechanism is not entirely understood but the end result is smooth muscle relaxation and decrease in peripheral vascular resistance.

It is not used as a first-line drug but used as an adjunct in chronic management.

Injectable form used in urgent/emergent treatment due to its potent vasodilatory effects, and rapid onset.

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52
Q

What are adverse side effects to hydralazine?

A

Arteriolar vasodilator

excessive or irreversible hypotension
reflex tachycardia
sodium and water retention
GI upset

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53
Q

Sodium nitroprusside (SNP)

A

Arteriolar vasodilator

promotes potent vasodilation through release of nitric oxide.
Nitric oxide diffuses to vascular smooth muscle
decrease influx of calcium, activation of actin/myosin chains and overall contractile forces

Effects: smooth muscle relaxation and decreased vascular tone and peripheral vascular resistance

The injectable form has a short half-life and is easy to titrate, so it is ideally used for hypertensive crises. Administer as CRI.

Used to treat acute hypertensive crises or fulminant CHF

Contraindicated in hypotensive patients

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54
Q

IV nitroglycerine

A

promotes potent vasodilation through release of nitric oxide.
Nitric oxide diffuses to vascular smooth muscle
decrease influx of calcium, activation of actin/myosin chains and overall contractile forces

Effects: smooth muscle relaxation and decreased vascular tone and peripheral vascular resistance

The injectable form has a short half-life and is easy to titrate, so it is ideally used for hypertensive crises.

No risk of cyanide poisoning

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55
Q

What are the adverse side effects associated with sodium nitroprusside?

A

generation of cyanide and thiocyanate at high doses and prolonged use.
Patients with kidney and liver disease have decreased metabolism, therefore greater risk of cyanide toxicity.
Clinical signs of toxicosis: metabolic acidosis, depression, stupor, seizures

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56
Q

Fenoldopam

A

Selective agonist of dopamine 1 receptor. Promotes peripheral and renal vasodilation and natriuresis
Increases glomerular filtration rate
Injectable has a short half life.

Good potential for application in hypertensive crisis, but needs further investigation in vet med.

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57
Q

Class 1 Antiarrhythmics

A

Sodium channel blockers
Interferes intracellularly with sodium conduction through sodium channels
Subclassification determined by potency of effects on sodium channel, activated/inactivated blockade and effects on other channel receptors.

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58
Q

Class 1A antiarrhythmic agents

A

Quinidine and procainamide

Effective against ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias.

fast sodium channel blocking effects and moderate blockade of rapid component of the delayed rectifier potassium current resulting in action potential elongation.

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59
Q

Procainamide

A

Class 1 A antiarrhythmic

Sodium channel blocker

Depresses conduction velocity and prolongs refractory period in a variety of tissues, including atrial and ventricular myocardium

Administer slowly IV over 5-10 minutes to prevent hypotension

Adverse effects more commonly associated with cats and humans; include anorexia, nausea, and vomiting

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60
Q

Class IB Antiarrhythmic

A

Inhibits fast sodium channels, primarily in the open and inactivated state, with rapid onset.

Sodium current is also inhibited, resulting in the shortening of action potential in normal myocardial tissue

Lidocaine and mexiletine

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61
Q

Lidocaine

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic

Sodium channel blocker.

The ability of lidocaine to block sodium currents is better during acidosis.

Benefit: minimal hemodynamic, SA, AVN affect at standard doses

Hepatic clearance determines serum concentration

Heart failure, hypotension, and severe hepatic disease can decrease lidocaine metabolism and predispose patients to lidocaine toxicity.

Adverse effects: higher incidence in cats
Nausea, vomiting, lethargy, tremors, seizure activity (usually symptoms stop when lidocaine is discontinued)

Dosing: Bolus 2mg/kg over 20-30 seconds; bolus can be repeated up to 8mg/kg within 10 minute period barring adverse effects
CRI: 25-75mcg/kg/min

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62
Q

Mexiletine

A

Class 1B antiarrhythmic

most common oral class in dogs

Highly protein-bound and excreted by the kidneys

Use and adverse effects similar to Lidocaine (rarely used in cats because of adverse effects)

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63
Q

Tocainide

A

Class 1B antiarrhythmic

Similar to lidocaine, rarely used in small animals because of high incidence of serious adverse effects including renal failure and corneal dystrophy

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64
Q

Class 1C Antiarrhythmic

A

Potent blockade of the open state fast sodium channel with greater effects as the depolarization rate increases

These agents prolong the refractory period in atrial and ventricular tissues
Propafenone and Flecainide

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65
Q

Propafenone

A

Class 1C antiarrhythmic
used to treat narrow complex tachyarrhythmias
usually combined with diltiazem
also has mild beta blocking properties

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66
Q

Flecainide

A

Class 1C antiarrhythmic
potent negative inotropic properties
Side effects include GI, but not commonly seen
Rarely used in veterinary medicine

Monitor heart rate, blood pressure and ECG when administering

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67
Q

Class II antiarrhythmic

A

Beta-adrenergic antagonists or beta-blockers are the most used cardiovascular drugs.

Must be cognizant of animals’ underlying disease when prescribing.

Beta-blockers contraindicated in patients with evidence of sinus nodal dysfunction, AVN conduction disturbances, pulmonary disease or CHF (must be evaluated for fluid retention and condition must be stabilized before implementing beta-blockade).

Reduces heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand and increases atrioventricular conduction time.

Inhibits pacemaker current I(f) that promotes proarrhythmic depolarization in damaged cardiomyocytes

Inhibits calcium current by decreasing tissue cyclic adenosine monophosphate levels ; the magnitude of effects depends on the sympathetic state. Greater effect with higher adrenergic states

Beta-adrenergic antagonists slow AVN conduction in SVT by slowing sinus discharge rate in inappropriate sinus tachycardia and suppresses ventricular tachycardia that may be exacerbated by increased sympathetic tone.

Used to treat supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias.

Also used in HCM to control heart rate and decrease myocardial oxygen demand

Can cause hypotension due to decreased heart output.

Extremely low dosages must be used with patients with systolic myocardial dysfunction. Because of that, beta blockers are not generally first choice for acute anti-arrhythmic therapy because the amount required is not well tolerated.

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68
Q

Propranolol

A

Non-selective beta receptor antagonist (targets both beta-1 and 2 receptors).

Function: decrease heart rate and contractility. Decrease renin release and peripheral vascular resistance

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69
Q

Esmolol

A

Class II Antiarrhythmic

Short-acting Beta-1 blocker that can help control sympathetically driving ventricular tachycardia . Administered as a CRI on telemetry.

Side effects: Negative inotropic effects may be too pronounced in some patients and cause cardiovascular collapse. Requires blood pressure monitoring.

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70
Q

Atenolol

A

Class II antiarrhythmic.

The most common oral beta blocker in small animals.

Relative beta 1 selectivity and long half-life compared to propranolol.

Water soluble and eliminated by the kidney.

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71
Q

Metoprolol

A

Class II antiarrhythmic.

Common oral beta blocker in small animals.

Long half-life compared to propranolol.

Metabolized and eliminated through the liver.

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72
Q

Class III Antiarrhythmic agents

A

Block the repolarization of I(k) resulting in prolongation of action potential durations and effective refractory period.

Blocks rapid component of I(k) instead of the slow component – therefore effects are accentuated at slower heart rates rather than at the problematic tachyarrhythmic rates.

Puts patients at risk of early afterdepolarization (accounts of proarrhythmic effects of class III AA drugs) - risk is increased in patients with hypokalemia, bradycardia, intact females, increasing age, macrolide antibiotic therapy/other drug therapies

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73
Q

Amiodarone

A

Class III Antiarrhythmic

Alpha and Beta blocking properties.

Effects on sodium, potassium, and calcium channels.

Broadest spectrum exhibiting properties of all 4 AA classes.

Makes action potential durations more uniform throughout the myocardium and has the least reported proarrhythmic activity of any of the class III agents.

Used for refractory tachyarrhythmias, both atrial and ventricular

Significant side effects in dogs, including hepatopathy and anaphylaxis.

Monitor heart rate, blood pressure and ECG with administer.

Available as oral or injectable.

Major drawback: associated with a host of multi-systemic adverse side effects that do not occur with sotalol.

Adverse side effects (more common with higher maintenance doses): vomiting, anorexia, hepatopathies, thrombocytopenia

Two brands:
Cardarone IV, Nextarone

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74
Q

Cardarone IV

A

IV formulation of amiodarone

Serious side effects attributed to vasoactive solvents in the formulation.

Side effects include life-threatening hypotension, anaphylaxis, bradycardia, acute hepatic necrosis, and death.

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75
Q

Nexterone

A

Premixed aqueous solution of IV amiodarone.

No adverse hemodynamic effects of other adverse cllinical effects in healthy research dogs.

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76
Q

Class IV antiarrhythmic agents

A

Calcium channel antagonist

Slow AVN conduction and prolong the effective refractory period of nodal tissue

Effects are more notable at faster stimulation rates and in depolarized fibers.

Effective in slowing the ventricular response rate to atrial tachyarrhythmias and can prolong AVN’s effective refractory period to terminate AVN-dependent tachyarrhythmia.

It is mainly indicated to reduce the rate of arrhythmias passing through the AV node, such as supraventricular arrhythmias.

Major negative inotropic effects due to interactions with calcium in the smooth muscles.

Causes vasodilation

Limit amount of calcium available in cardiac contractility.

Diltiazem is the most widely used IV antiarrhythmic drug

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77
Q

Diltiazem

A

Class IV antiarrhythmic

Calcium channel blocker.

Minimal negative inotropic effects.

Used in dogs to immediately terminate a severe AVN-dependent tachyarrhythmia or slow ventricular response rate to an atrial tachyarrhythmia.

Adverse side effects: hypotension and bradyarrhythmia.

Administer IV slowly over 2-3 minutes.

Oral diltiazem administered TID.

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78
Q

Digoxin

A

Class V anti-arrhythmic (other)

Effects occur indirectly through the autonomic nervous system by enhancing central and peripheral vagal tone.

Used as an antiarrhythmic due to its ability to slow AV conduction time and have parasympathomimetic effects

Treats SVT to slow AV nodal conduction and reduce ventricular rate

Positive inotrope that will increase cardiac contractility in systolic disease

The risk of toxicity manifests as neurological, GI, and cardiac involvement.

Predisposed to toxicity if the patient has renal dysfunction, hypokalemia, elderly, chronic lung disease, hypothyroidism.

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79
Q

Magnesium Sulfate

A

1st line treatment for torsades de pointes

Used to treat hypomagnesemia

Administer slowly IV @ 30mg/kg over 5-10 minutes

Adverse effects: CNS depress, weakness, bradycardia, hypotension, hypocalcemia and QT prolongation

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80
Q

Adenosine

A

Used in humans to terminate AVN dependent tachyarrhythmias.

No study to date has shown effectiveness in dogs and cats.

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81
Q

Antiarrhythmic devices/procedures

A

Transvenous radiofrequency catheter ablation

Permanent pacemaker implantation

Implantable cardioverter defibrillators

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82
Q

Transverse radiofrequency catheter ablation

A

Identify reentrant circuit or automatic focus for ablation

Deliver radiofrequency energy via electrode causing thermal desiccation of small volume tissue to interrupt tachycardia circuit

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83
Q

Permanent pacemaker implantation

A

Manage bradyarrhythmias

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84
Q

Implantable cardioverter defibrillators

A

experimental in dogs

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85
Q

Anticholinergics

A

class of drugs taht block the action of acetylcholine (ACh), a neurotransmitter that sends signals between cells that affect a bodily function.

By blocking ACh at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system, anticholinergics inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system.

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86
Q

Atropine

A

Anticholinergic

inhibit acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors

Clinical effects include increasing heart rate, resolving vagally mediated bradycardia, decreasing GI motility, pupillary dilation, bronchodilation, urinary retention and drying or secretion

Most commonly used to treat vagal-mediated bradycardias and toxicities

Able to pass the placental barrier.

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87
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A

Anticholinergic

inhibit acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors

Clinical effects include increasing heart rate, resolving vagally mediated bradycardia, decreasing GI motility, pupillary dilation, bronchodilation, urinary retention and drying or secretion

Most commonly used to treat vagal-mediated bradycardias and toxicities

Glycopyrrolate is associated with more stable cardiovascular system with fewer arrhythmias

Glycopyrrolate has a stronger anti-saliva secretion effect than atropine

It does not pass the placental barrier and, therefore, is the agent of choice for pregnant animals.

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88
Q

Diuretics (7 classes)

A

Loop diuretics
Osmotic Diuretics
Potassium sparing diuretics
Thiazide diuretics
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Aldosterone Antagonist
Aquaretics (new)

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89
Q

Goals for diuretic therapy

A

Enhanced excretion of retained water, solutes and toxins

Promote urine flow

decrease urine concentration of solutes and toxins

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90
Q

Common indications for diuretic use

A

Oligoanuric acute renal failure
decompensated kidney disease
Congestive heart failure
ascites from liver failure
other fluid and electrolyte disorders

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91
Q

When it is justified to use diuretics to treat edema?

A

Only when fluid retention is caused by an increase in hydrostatic pressure.

When vascular permeability is increased, further depletion of vascular volume with diuretics is rarely indicated and often detrimental

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92
Q

Adverse effect of exaggerated diuresis

A

May activate RAAS by reducing intravascular volume and ventricular filling and may subsequently decrease tissue perfusion.

Therefore, diuresis requires therapeutic monitoring

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93
Q

Pathologic conditions that contribute to diuresis

A

pressure natriuresis
osmotic diuresis

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94
Q

pressure natriuresis

A

A negative feedback in hypervolemic hypertensive states

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95
Q

Diuretics operating on which part of the nephron is most effective and why?

A

Diuretics at the loop of Henle are the most effective because of the large amount of filtrate delivered to this site and the lack of efficient distal reabsorption region.

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96
Q

What triggers an increase to antidiuretic production?

A

Elevated plasma osmolality
hypovolemia
hypotension
(lesser extent) nausea
increased concentration of angiotensin II

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97
Q

Osmotic diuresis

A

passive mechanism due to abnormal urine concentration of osmotically active solutes such as glucose and sodium

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98
Q

What is required for antidiuretic hormone to function?

A

functional renal tubular system
medullary concentration gradient of sodium and urea
functional ADH receptor system

without any one of these factors will result in inappropriate diuresis

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99
Q

What may affect function of diuretics that work on proximal tubule?

A

Diuretics that work on proximal tubule can modulate a greater bulk of sodium, but their efficacy may be overcome by distal compensatory increases in sodium reabsorption.

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100
Q

What may limit efficacy of diuretics operating on distal tubule?

A

Diuretics operating on distal tubule may be limited by small amount of sodium reaching distal tubule

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101
Q

Osmotic Diuretics

A

hyperosmolality causes water shift from the intracellular fluid compartment to extracellular space, causing ECF expansion

Used to contract ICF in cases with cerebral edema associated with an increase in ICF and elevated intracranial pressure

Contraindicated for patients in or at risk of heart failure.

Effective in patients with anuric or oliguric rental disease, cerebral edema and increased intraocular pressure

eg. Mannitol

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102
Q

Mannitol

A

osmotically active non reabsorbed sugar alcohol

filtered by the glomerulus; does not undergo tubular reabsorption, thereby increasing tubular flow rate and osmotic diuresis

An increase in tubular flow rate reduces urea absorption, resulting in increased urinary clearance and serum urea concentration.

Potential benefits of mannitol:
Prostaglandin-induced renal vasodilation
reduced tendency of erythrocytes to aggregate
reduced renal vascular congestion
reduced hypoxic cellular edema
protection of mitochondrial function
reduced oxidative damage
renoprotectant when administered before toxic or ischemic event
*No data supports above benefits in renal failure cases

At high doses, mannitol can cause renal vasoconstriction and tubular vacuolization

Use cautiously with oliguric animals to avoid volume overload, hyperosmolality and further renal damage.

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103
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

A

Clinical application of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - mainly used to treat elevated intraocular pressure in glaucoma.

Work by suppressing the activity of carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme in red blood cells that converts carbon dioxide into carbonic acid and bicarbonate ions. CAIs can reduce secretion of H+ ions by the kidney tubule and can also impair the reabsorption of sodium, chloride and bicarbonate.

eg. Acetazolamide

Carbonic anhydrase also located on other organs.

Blockade of ocular and brain CA decreases the production of aqueous humor and CSF.

Blockade of red blood cell CA hampers carbon dioxide transport

Gastric CA - minimally affected by inhibitors.

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104
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Function: diuretic

Inhibits mostly the type II (cytoplasmic) and IV(membrane) proximal tubular carbonic anhydrases, decreasing the reabsorption of sodium bicarbonate.

Results in metabolic acidosis and natriuresis - minimal and self-limiting because progressively less bicarbonate is filtered as the proximal tubule becomes less responsive to carbonic anhydrase inhibition and the distal sodium reabsorption increases to compensate for the proximal losses.

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105
Q

Loop Diuretics

A

Binds to and inhibits Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransporters on the apical membrane of epithelial cells of the thick ascending loop of Henle.

Inhibition of reabsorption of both Na and Cl, ions remain in the tubular lumen and
water follows, resulting in diuresis and increased Na secretion

○ High sodium concentration later in the nephron results in increased sodium and
potassium exchange, which leads to increased potassium secretion as well

○ Increased calcium secretion also occurs

○ Also believed to decrease renal vascular resistance and increase renal blood
flow

Prototypical loop diuretic: furosemide
Torsemide

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106
Q

Furosemide

A

Loop diuretic

Improves renal parenchymal oxygenation by decreasing the energy expenditure of the secondary active Na-K-2Cl transporter

Mannitol + furosemide > synergistic in inducing diuresis in dogs with acute renal failure

Relative short half-life: 1-1.5 hours in dogs > can result in intermittent rebound sodium retention with loss of efficacy.

most commonly used in patients in heart failure.

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107
Q

Torsemide

A

potent loop diuretic of pyridine-sulfonylurea class

longer half-life (8 hours)

higher bioavailability (80%-100%)
strong diuretic effect than furosemide

Large scale study - effective in dogs with mitral valve disease, but high rate of renal adverse events.

Additional benefits observed in other species: vasodilation, improved cardiac function, reduction of myocardial remodeling, mineralocorticoid-receptor blockade with anti-aldosterone effect - has not been shown in small animals

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108
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

exert their action by inhibiting the NaCl cotransporter on distal tubule.

Mainly used for anticalciuretic properties to prevent calcium-containing uroliths

Managing CHF in conjunction with other diuretics

treating ascites associated with right-sided heart failure

also used for treating polyuria of diabetes insipidus by inducing a mild hypovolemia and increasing proximal sodium conservation.

eg. Hydrochlorothiazide

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109
Q

Aldosterone Antagonist

A

Antagonize aldosterone by binding to its receptor in the late distal tubule and the collecting duct

increases sodium, calcium and water excretion and decreases potassium loss

e.g. Spironolactone and eplerenone

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110
Q

When to suspect hyperaldosteronism

A

concurrent hypernatremia, severe hypokalemia

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111
Q

Spironolactone

A

Aldosterone antagonist
potassium sparing diuretic

Best used in cases of hyperaldosteronism
Main clinical applications in liver and heart failure.

Also used as an antihypertensive in hyperaldosteron cases.

Usually, it is in combination with a more efficient loop diuretic.

Also seems to have a positive effect on myocardial remodeling and the reduction of cardiac fibrosis

Commonly added to other diuretics to reduce their potassium-wasting effects

Main adverse effect: development of hyperkalemia

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112
Q

potassium-sparing diuretics

A

Inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and the collecting duct; suppressing the driving force for potassium secretion.

Only weak diuretic and natriuretic properties

Mostly used to counterbalance potassium-wasting effects of proximal diuretics.

e.g. Amiloride and triamterene

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113
Q

Aquaretics

A

New class of diuretics that antagonize the vasopressin V2 receptor in the kidney and promote solute-free water clearance

Vaptans - vasopressin receptor antagonist

Clinical use: free water rention in hypervolemic hyponatremia or normovolemic hyponatremic

drugs: conivaptan, tolvaptan and mozavaptan

Not used in small animals

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114
Q

Pimobendan

A

Function: positive inotropic and vasodilatory effects

Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor
Calcium sensitization

Used to treat congestive heart failure

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115
Q

Mechanism of Pimobendan via calcium sensitization

A

increase contractility via increasing binding affinity to the regulatory site on troponin C for calcium

sensitizes the myocyte contractile apparatus to calcium without increasing the amount of calcium within the cell.

Pimobendan is not dependent on catecholamines

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116
Q

Mechanism of pimobendan via phosphodiesterase III inhibition

A

increase contractility by increasing intracellular calcium levels.

PDE III inhibition increases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), which in turn increases cAMP-dependent protein kinase.

Increase in calcium sequestration during diastole and increase in calcium influx during systole - both contribute to positive inotropy

PDE III and PDE V are found in vascular smooth muscle. Inhibition of PDE III and PDE V increases intracellular cAMP and cGMP - which facilitates calcium update through intracellular storage sites. Results in reduction of available calcium for contraction > greater vascular smooth muscle relaxation.

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117
Q

Elimination of Pimobendan

A

undergoes hepatic demethylation

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118
Q

bioavailability and duration of affect of Pimobendan

A

Pimobendan is highly protein bound with greater than 90% bioavailability.

Maximal cardiac effects at 2-4 hours following oral administration and persists up to 8 hours.

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119
Q

Clinical use of pimobendan

A

FDA approved to treat CHF with myxomatous mitral valve degeneration or DCM

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120
Q

Adverse effects of pimobendan

A

generally well tolerated but may cause GI upset - inappetence, vomiting, diarrhea and lethargy

121
Q

Anti-hypertensives (7 mechanisms of action)

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
Angiotensin receptor blocker
aldosterone antagonist
calcium channel blocker
alpha 1 antagonist
beta antagonist
arteriolar vasodilator

122
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor)

A

Family of drugs designed to disrupt the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

Medications function by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

ACE inhibitors can decrease proteinuria
promote vasodilation, venodilation and reduction in plasma volume with reduction in systolic blood pressure

ACE inhibitors can cause decreased metabolism of vasodilatory agent bradykinin –> further reduction in vascular tone

Clinical application of ACE inhibitors where systemic hypertension is caused by known or suspected increase in RAAS - most commonly related to chronic kidney disease and or glomerular disease.

Most commonly considered 1st line treatment for dogs (not cats).

Generally well tolerated.

Biggest concern: potential to worsen glomerular filtration rate and renal function through preferential dilation of the efferent arteriole (thereby reducing glomerular filtration pressure)

e.g. Enalapril, benazepril, lisinopril

123
Q

Enalapril

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

124
Q

Benazepril

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

125
Q

Lisinopril

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

126
Q

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

A

Class of drugs that block angiotensin II from its receptor.

Does not affect the metabolism of bradykinin

ARBs can decrease proteinuria
promote vasodilation, vasodilation and reduction in plasma volume with a reduction in systolic blood pressure

Side effects: similar side effects as ACEi; avoided or cautiously used in patients with severe dehydration or azotemia.

e.g. Telmisartan, losartan

127
Q

Telmisartan

A

Angiotensin receptor blocker

128
Q

Calcium channel blockers

A

decrease calcium influx into cardiac tissues (antiarrhythmic properties) and vascular smooth muscles (antihypertensive properties)

May cause reflex bradycardia

Other side effects could include weakness, lethargy, decreased appetite

CCBs promote preferential afferent arteriolar dilation over the efferent arteriole, which increases intraglomerular pressure, which could damage the glomerulus and worsen proteinuria.

129
Q

Amlodipine

A

Belongs to the dihydropyridines family

Calcium channel blocker

Relative selectivity for vascular smooth muscles so promotes vasorelaxation and reduces systemic vascular resistance

An associated decrease in blood pressure may trigger reflex tachycardia.

First-line antihypertensive of choice for managing SHT in cats

130
Q

Phentolamine

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist

used in hypertensive crisis, specifically as rescue therapy during pheochromocytoma surgery

131
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist

commonly used to stabilize patients with pheochromocytoma prior to surgical intervention

132
Q

Vasopressor

A

Any drug specifically used to cause constriction to blood vessels
increase cardiac afterload, produce vasoconstriction, increase vasomotor tone and systemic vascular resistance
most common pathway is alpha 1 adrenergic agonism

133
Q

positive inotrope

A

Any drug specifically used to increase cardiac contractility
most common pathway to achieve this is beta 1 adrenergic agonistm

134
Q

Negative inotrope

A

decrease cardiac contractility

135
Q

Dopamine

A

Catecholamine and sympathomimetic

Primary receptors: dopaminergic, beta-1 and alpha 1 adrenergic agonist

different doses = different effects

Low range - stimulate urine production in oliguiric or anuric AKI

Intermediate range: predominantly positive inotropic effects

High doses: vasoconstriction/increase in vascular resistance

Effects: increases renal blood flow
improves inotropy
increases heart rate
increases systemic vascular resistance
increases blood pressure
increases cardiac out put

Deliver as a CRI

Side effect: arrhythmias, tachycardia, hypertension

Continuous ECG, BP monitoring recommended

136
Q

Dobutamine

A

Sympathomimetic

receptors: Beta-1 and Adrenergic-2 agonist

Effects: improves inotropy
+/- increase in heart rate
Increase in cardiac output
+/- increase in blood pressure
decrease systemic vascular resistance

Deliver as a CRI

Side effects: arrhythmias, tachycardia, hypertension, bradycardia

Monitoring: ECG/BP continuous

137
Q

Norepinephrine

A

catecholamine and sympathomimetic

Receptors: Alpha-1 and beta 1 adrenergic agonist

Effects: increase in inotropy
decrease in heart rate
increase in systemic vascular resistance
increase in blood pressure

Deliver as a CRI

Side effects: arrhythmias, hypertension, bradycardia, excessive vasoconstriction

138
Q

Epinephrine

A

Catecholamine

Receptors: alpha 1 and beta 1 adrenergic agonist

Lower doses have predominantly beta agonist effect: vasodilation, bronchodilation, increased cardiac contractility and cardiac output, increased heart rate

higher doses: more alpha 1 adrenergic effects: vasoconstriction

Used to treat anaphylaxis

Side effects: arrhythmia

Monitoring: continuous ECG/BP

Deliver as IV bolus, CRI, IM or intratracheally

139
Q

Phenylephrine

A

sympathomimetic

receptor: alpha-1 adrenergic agonist

Effects: decrease in heart rate
increase in systemic vascular resistance (marked vasoconstriction) increase in blood pressure

May improve blood pressure, but the increase in cardiac afterload may decrease stroke volume and cardiac output

Deliver as a bolus or CRI

Side effects: arrhythmia, hypertension, bradycardia, excessive vasoconstriction

140
Q

Ephedrine

A

Sympathomimetic

receptors: beta-1 agonist, and alpha 1 adrenergic agonist

effects: increase inotropy
increase in blood pressure
increase in cardiac output
+/- Heart rate
increase in systemic vascular resistance

deliver as a bolus (short duration of effect) or CRI

Side Effects: arrhythmias, tachyphylaxis (reduced sensitivity after repeated administration), hypertension, bradycardia, tachycardia

141
Q

Vasopressin

receptors?
Effects?
Delivery method?
side effects?

A

Non-adrenergic hormone AKA anti-diuretic hormone

receptors: V1 vasopressin Agonist

effects: increase systemic vascular resistance
increase blood pressure

Increase in cardiac afterload may decrease stroke volume and cardiac output, resulting in decrease oxygen delivery to tissue

Alternative or conjunctive therapy to epinephrine in CPCR

More effective than epinephrine when patient in acidosis.

deliver as a bolus or CRI

Side effects: arrhythmias, hypertension, bradycardia, excessive vasoconstriction

142
Q

What stimulates the release of vasopressin?

by which mechanisms?

A
  • increases in plasma osmolality - central chemoreceptors detect systemic osmolality. Peripheral chemoreceptors in mesenteric and portal veins detect changes in osmolality of ingesta. Afferent impulses ascend via vagus nerve to stimulate vasopressin release. Plasma tonicity sened by hypothalamus to stimulate more vasopressin release.
  • decreases in blood pressure - shifts osmolality. Baroreceptors in left atrium, aortic arch and carotid sinus sense drops in blood pressure and circulating blood volume. Allows for release of disinhibition of vasopressin release.
  • drop in circulating blood volume
143
Q

Vasopressin release can be inhibited by which drugs?

A

glucocorticoids
low dose opioids
atrial natriuretic factor
GABA neurotransmitter

144
Q

Vasopressin receptors:
V1 receptor

location and mechanism of action

A

found primarily on smooth muscle cells

Activation of voltage gated calcium channels, increases intracellular calcium levels allowing for vasoconstriction.

V1-R in platelets - facilitates thrombosis because of intracellular calcium

V1-R in kidneys decrease blood flow to inner medulla and limit anti-diuretic effects; selective cause contraction of efferent arterials to increase GFR

There are species variations in V1R locations.

145
Q

Vasopressin receptors:
V2 receptor

location and mechanism of action

A

Found primarily on basolateral membrane of distal tubule and principle cells of cortical and medullary rental collecting duct

triggers fusion of aquaporins with plasma membrane of collecting duct –> increasing water absorption.

stimulates release of platelets from bone marrow and enhances release of Von Willebrand’s factor and Factor VIII from endothelial cells

146
Q

Role of vasopressin in homeostasis

A

regulating fast shuttling of aquaporin-2 to cell surface
stimulates synthesis of RNA encoding aquaporin 2

hereditary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus have V2-R gene mutations

147
Q

Vasopressin metabolism and excretion

A

half life is 24 minutes
cleared by renal excretion and metabolized by tissue peptidases

148
Q

Adverse effects of Vasopressin

A

contraction of bladder and gallbladder smooth muscles
increase peristalsis
decrease in gastric secretions
increase in GI sphincter pressure

Local irritation at injection site.
If extravasated, may cause skin necrosis

May increase liver enzymes and bilirubin levels
decrease platelet count
hyponatremia
anaphylaxis/urticaria
bronchospams
abdominal pain
hematuria

water intoxication reported with high dose treatment of diabetes

149
Q

Terlipressin

A

selective for V1R
prolong duration - 6 hours half life
Used to manage hemorrhagic gastroenteritis

increase adverse effects - peripheral cyanosis/ischemia (use with caution)

150
Q

Selepressin

A

V1R agonist

found to reduce risk of coronary ischemia
less adverse effects on mesenteric blood flow and gastric mucosal perfusion
effective substitute for maintaining MAP, reducing vascular leak, edema formation and shortening duration of shock.
Comparative study with norepi -> no improved outcome

151
Q

Desmopressin acetate

A

synthetic vasopressin
intranasal and injectable form
binds primarily to V2R
more potent antidiuretic and procoagulant

152
Q

Streptococcus

A

gram-positive cocci arranged in chains

153
Q

Group A streptococci

A

It can cause pharyngitis, glomerulonephritis, and rheumatic fever in humans.

It rarely causes illness in dogs and cats, although dogs can carry the organisms.

154
Q

Group C streptococci

A

rare causes of illness in healthy dogs and cats

155
Q

Group G

A

common resident microflora and are the cause of most streptococcal infections in dogs and cats.

Streptococcus canis is the most common.

156
Q

Streptococcus canis

A

The main source of infection in anal mucosa in dogs.

May be found in cats in abscesses, pyelonephritis, sinusitis, arthritis, metritis or mastitis

In dogs, it may be the cause of nonspecific infections including wounds, mammary tissues, urogenital tract, skin and ear canal.

May cause toxic shock syndrome in dogs.

Tx: Penicillin-G and ampicillin are effective for most infections

157
Q

Group D streptococci

A

Enterococcal

Commensal bacteria that inhabit the alimentary tract of humans and animals

Most commonly see in post op wounds and urogenital infections.

158
Q

Staphylococcal Infection

A

Gram positive bacteria, developing resistance to antimicrobials.
cephalosporins, penicillins and fluoroquinolones decreasing in effectivness.

159
Q

Gram Negative

A

significant cause of morbidity and mortality in critically ill patients

160
Q

Lipid A

A

known to be toxic

Induces proinflammatory responses and endothelial dysfunction
harmful effects of endotoxin include vasodilation, enhanced vascular permeability, tissue destruction, and activation of coagulation pathways

161
Q

Apomorphine

A

Stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce emesis as a non-selective dopamine agonist

Side effects: Failure to produce emesis, refractory vomiting, nausea, sedation

Adverse sedative effects can be reversed with an opioid agonist such as naloxone

162
Q

Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonist

A

Induces emesis
Thought to occur through the stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone at least in part through the area of postrema of the medulla oblongata
Concerns include sedation, hyperglycemia, bradycardia, increased systemic vascular resistance, and increased cardiac afterload. Drug: dexmeditomidine

163
Q

Xylazine

A

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist

164
Q

Dexmeditomidine

A

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist

165
Q

Peripheral acting emetics

A

most common include hydrogen peroxide, syrup of ipecac, and salt paste

syrup of ipecac no longer used due to potential for abuse and fatal cardiac arrhythmia.

Salt paste no longer clinically used due to risk of hypernatremia and questionable efficacy

Hydrogen peroxides: irritate oral, esophageal and gastric mucosa

166
Q

Phenothiazine Derivatives

A

Acepromazine, chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine

Reduce emesis through blockade of dopamine receptors in CRTZ and emetic centers

No longer used because of potential side effects and availability of more effective agents
Produce an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist which causes systemic vascular resistance and vasodilation; can result in hypotension

167
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Prokinetic

Dopamine and serotonin antagonist and cholinergic agonist

Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone, facilitates gastric emptying

short half-life, thus usually prescribed as a CRI

contraindication: mechanical obstructions in the GI tract and intussusceptions

168
Q

Ondansetron

A

Serotonin (5-HT3) Antagonist
Block serotonin receptors in the CRTZ and peripherally
Appear to be more effective than phenothiazine and metoclopramide
Side effects are rare

169
Q

Maropitant

A

Neurokinin-1 (NK) antagonist
Blocks substance P at vomiting center in the brain

170
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitors

A

Omeprazole, pantoprazole, esomeprazole

Inhibits Na/K ATPase pump activity
Recommended treatment for acid suppression; controls proton deposition in the gastric lumen and hydrochloric acid secretion

171
Q

H2 Histageneric Antagonist

A

Famotidine, ranitidine, cimetidine
H2 blockers
Specific antihistamines that reduce the action of histamine at histamine receptors on gastric parietal cells; reduce stomach acid

172
Q

Sucralfate

A

Sucrose sulfate-aluminum complex
Binds to locally injured GI lining and creates a physical barrier
Promotes bicarb production and may increase production of prostaglandin E2
Commonly used to treat GI or duodenal ulcers
Can also be beneficial in esophageal strictures

173
Q

Misoprostol

A

Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue
It improves gastric blood flow, decreases gastric acid production, increases mucus production and bicarb secretion, and promotes cell turnover.
Specifically used to help prevent NSAID-induced GI injury and ulceration
Also has effects on myometrial contraction
Wear gloves when handling

174
Q

Beta-2 adrenergic agonist

A

Bronchodilators and enhance mucus clearance via mucociliary system

Relaxes smooth muscle in respiratory passageways

May also cause vasodilation in muscles.

Commonly used to trat asthma in cats, chronic bronchitis in dogs or hyperkalemia

drugs: terbutaline, albuterol, salmeterol

Most common side effects: tachycardia, increased cardiac contractility and arrhythmia

175
Q

Terbutaline

A

beta-2 adrenergic agonist

Bronchodilator

Commonly used to treat asthma in cats, chronic bronchitis in dogs or hyperkalemia

Administered orally or parenterally

Common side effects are tachycardia, increased cardiac contractility and arrhythmia

176
Q

Albuterol

A

beta-2 adrenergic agonist

Bronchodilator

administered via inhaler

Common side effects are tachycardia, increased cardiac contractility and arrhythmia

I.e. albuterol toxicity

177
Q

Methylxanthines

A

bronchodilator

Inhibit phosphodiesterase and blocking adenosine

believed to inhibit leukotriene synthesis and reduce inflammation

Narrow therapeutic range

Occasionally used to treat pulmonary hypertension and tracheal collapse.

adverse effects are tachycardia, arrhythmia and GI signs

examples of Methylxanthines:

Caffeine and theobromine - toxic to animals

178
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

Antihistamine

Inverse agonist of H1 histagenergic receptor (produces opposite effect of histamine since its an inverse agonist)

influences muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, sodium channels and potentially reuptake of serotonin

Predominately used for:

  • reducing signs of acute allergic reactions
  • treat increase capillary permeability secondary to histamine release.
  • reducing symptoms of histamine release from Mast cell tumors.
  • crosses the blood brain barrier –> affect CNS; cause sedation or excitement (rare in dogs and cats)

Do not administer SQ because of irritating effects.

179
Q

Meclizine

A

antihistamine

Used for patients with vestibular disease

Antiemetic and motion sickness

180
Q

Cyproheptadine

A

antihistamine

serotonin agonist

Used as a mild appetite stimulant

Can also be used to treat serotonin syndrome –> evidence to support efficacy is limited

181
Q

Mirtazapine

A

antihistamine

Has an effect on serotonin, adrenergic, dopamine and muscarinic receptors

weak appetite stimulant and antiemetic

182
Q

Asprin

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

blocks platelet cyclo-oxygenase (COX)1 which causes inhibition of thromboxane A2 (TXA2)

Effect is irreversible

Primarily used to treat hypercoagulable states or states of increased platelet reactivity

183
Q

Clopidogrel

A

Thienopyridine class drug

Blocks adenosine diphosphate (ADP) induced platelet aggregate through binding the platelet P2Y12 receptor

Primarily used to treat hypercoagulable states or states of increased platelet reactivity

Does not remove already formed blood clots

184
Q

Heparins

A

Naturally occurring - stored within mast cells and released into vasculature at sites of tissue injury

Drug - Unfractionated heparin: heparin sulfate

can be reversed using protamine sulfate

Drug - low molecular weight heparins: Dalteparin and enoxaparin

Does not dissolve preexisting blood clots

185
Q

Enoxaparin

A

Low molecular heparin

Associated with fewer bleeding events, more predictable absorption and can be given less frequently than UFH

Inhibits factor Xa

Incompletely reversed by protamine sulfate

186
Q

Heparin sulfate

A

Unfractionated heparin

Binds to antithrombin and inhibits factors IIA, IXa, Xs, XIa, and XIIa
can be reversed using protamine sulfate

187
Q

Direct Factor Xa Inhibitors

A

Rivaroxaban and apixaban

Does not require antithrombin for factor Xa inhibition and clinical effects

Does not dissolve blood clots that have already formed

188
Q

Rivaroxaban

A

Trade name: Xarelto

Direct Factor Xa inhibitor

Oral anticoagulant used to prevent or treat thrombosis in high risk patients

Contraindicated in patient with uncontrolled pathologic bleeding, severe hepatic disease, hepatic disease associated with coagulopathy or with significant renal impairment

189
Q

Thombolytics

A

Drugs: streptokinase, urokinase, tissue plasma activator (t-PA)

Not widespread in vetmed

Should be administered as early as possible to be most effective

contraindicated or inappropriate in situations of known coagulopathy, states of active bleeding, cardiac thrombi, neoplasia that invades the vasculature and infective endocarditis

Complication associated with thrombolytic agents: Bleeding

190
Q

What are the two pathways in the arachidonic acid cascade?

A

1) 5-lipoxygenase (LOX)
2) Cyclo-oxygenase (COX)

191
Q

What is the first thing that occurs when tissue is injured in the process of inlammation?

A

Arachidonic acid is released from the cell membranes, triggered by phospholipase A2

192
Q

What occurs during LOX?

A

Arachidonic acid is metabolized into leukotrienes by LOX

193
Q

What occurs during the Cox pathway?

A

arachidonic acid is metabolized into prostaglandins, prostacyclin and thromboxanes by COX

194
Q

Two isoenzymes of COX

A

COX 1 and COX2

195
Q

COX 1

A

Primarily responsible for basal prostaglandin production for normal homeostatic processes within the body, including gastric mucus production, platelet function, and, indirectly, hemostasis.

196
Q

COX 2

A

found at sites of inflammation and some basal production of constitutive prostaglandins.

Ideally, selective inhibition of prostaglandins produced primarily by COX-2, however currently there are no pure COX2 inhibitors.

197
Q

Arachidonic Acid

A

Present in phospholipid portion of plasma membrane.

It is an inflammatory mediator which causes vasodilation and vasoconstriction.

Inflammation = vasodilation
blood coagulation = vasoconstriction

Phospholipase A2 releases Arachidonic Acid.

Arachidonic Acid can then be broken down to prostaglandins or the leukotriens by COX or LOX respectively.

198
Q

What inhibits phospholipase A2?

A

steroids

Therefore steroids are anti-inflammatory

199
Q

NSAIDs function and adverse effects

A

NSAIDs inhibit COX enzyme, which inhibits formation of prostaglandins.
NSAIDs are metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys.
Give with food.

Adverse side effects:
Because prostaglandins play a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity, some of the side effects of NSAIDs are gastroenteritis, ulceration, and potentially GI perforation.
Use cautiously in patients with hypotension, hypovolemia, pre-existing renal disease (due to increased potential for renal vascular vasoconstriction which could lead to worsening of renal insufficiency)
use with caution perioperatively because of decreased platelet function –> may increase risk of operatie hemorrhage.

200
Q

leukotrienes

A

Produced when lipoxygenase acts on arachidonic acid.

Lipid-like bronchoconstrictors that are released during the inflammatory response.

Asthma is treated with inhaled and oral medications that include beta-2 adrenergic agonist anti-inflammatory drugs and leukotriene antagonist

201
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Produced when cyclooxygenase (COX) acts on arachidonic acid.

Many functions including:
Inflammation, Reproduction, gastric secretions, blood clotting

Two types of prostaglandins depending on tissue type.

Location: Platelets –> Thromboxane
Location: Endothelium –> Prostacyclin

Thromboxane –>vasoconstriction +bronchoconstrictor = procoagulation
Prostacyclin –> vasodilation + prevent platelet aggregation = anticoagulation

Prostaglandins protect GI mucosa from environment of stomach

202
Q

Thromboxane (3 functions)

A

Vasoconstrictor
increases platelet aggregation
bronchoconstrictor

203
Q

Prostacyclin

A

“keeps blood cyclin”
1. vasodilator
2. decreases platelet aggregation

204
Q

Prostaglandin (PGE2) functions

A
  1. Promote fever
  2. promotes pain
205
Q

Steroids

A

Inhibits Arachidonic acid
prostaglandins and leukotriens

206
Q

What promotes Phospholipase A2?

A

tissue injury
thrombin
bradykinin
angiotensin II (stimulates vasoconstriction)
epinephrine (stimulates vasoconstriction)

207
Q

meloxicam

A

NSAID

208
Q

carprofen

A

Rimadyl, Carprovet, Truprofen
NSAID

209
Q

firocoxib

A

Previcox or Equioxx
NSAID

210
Q

deracoxib

A

Deramaxx
NSAID

211
Q

grapiprant

A

Galliprant
NSAID

212
Q

robenacoxib

A

Onsior
NSAID

213
Q

Endogenous steroids are produced by which organ?

A

Adrenal gland, gonads and placenta

214
Q

What are the two classes of corticosteroids?

A

Glucocorticoids and Mineralcorticoids

215
Q

Function of Gluococorticoids

A

Increase carb, protein and fat metabolism
growth (specifically in utero)
increase contractile activity of left ventricle
signal kidneys to reabsorb sodium
inhibit activity of cells that are used to promote connective tissue production
alter turnover of bone
stop GI from absorbing calcium and promote calcium excretion from kidney
Inhibit formation of prostaglandins and bradykinins -> inhibit inflammation
suppress white blood cells (lymphocytes and eosinophils)

216
Q

Antimicrobial stewardship and deescalation (3 key components)

A
  1. optimize antimicrobial use
  2. minimize the duration of prescription
  3. Re-escalating antimicrobial therapy when culture and susceptibility results have returned
217
Q

Exceptions to 7 day administration of antimicrobials

A
  1. endocarditis
  2. prosthetic implants
  3. persistent neutropenia
218
Q

Time dependent antimicrobials efficacy

A

only efficacious when [drug] in plasma is above the MINIMUM INHIBITORY CONCENTRATION (MIC) for that pathogens.

Note: in critically ill patients, ft>MIC may be 100%

219
Q

ft>MIC

A

percentage of time drug concentration is above the minimum inhibitory concentration.

220
Q

Concentration dependent antimicrobials

A

usually bind irreversibly to their target
their efficacy is usually predicted by comparing the maximum concentration (Cmax) to the MIC)
Critical illness Cmax:MIC should be >8

221
Q

How might fluid overload affect antimicrobial pharmacokinetics?

A

Depending on if the antimicrobial is hydrophilic or lipophilic
Volume of distribution of the antimicrobial will be affected

e.g. If the antimicrobial is hydrophilic, the net effect of volume distribution is higher, decreasing [antimicrobial] in plasma –> decreasing [antimicrobial] in target tissue

222
Q

Effects of AKI on antimicrobial elimination and considerations

A

AKI –> elimination via kidney is decreased therefore fT>MIC is increased.

However, must consider risk of toxicity is increased due to drug accumulation

223
Q

Effects of augmented renal clearance (ARC) on antimicrobial elimination

A

Augmented renal clearance –> increased removal of substrate by the kidneys
Antimicrobials may remain at subtherapeutic levels resulting in worsening patient outcomes
Incidence not studied in VetMed.

224
Q

Effects of hepatic dysfunction on antimicrobial administration

A

Antimicrobial clearance may be decreased for hepatically metabolized drugs.
(Usually takes reduction of 90% of liver) –> therefore patients in fulminant liver failure = consider dose reduction

Generally no change needed if biochem panel shows hepatic dysfunction.

225
Q

What are the 4 classes of Beta-lactams?

A

Penicillins
cephalosporin
carbapenam
monobactam

226
Q

Beta-lactams distinguishing feature and mechanism of action

A

beta lactam ring

effects exerted by disrupting the synthesis of the cell wall during bacterial replication by binding to the “penicillin-binding proteins” (PBP)

when beta lactam ring binds to PBP –> results in degradation of cell wall and imparis synthesis of new cell wall leaving bacteria exposed to local environment and resulting in bacterial lysis

Beta lactams are bactericidal

227
Q

Four factors that influence resistance to beta lactams

A

alterations to PBP
development of antimicrobial efflux pumps
changes to porins in bacterial cell wall
inactivation by beta lactamases –> can be acquired or intrinsic resistance

228
Q

Penicillins

A

Beta-lactam
Gram positive and anaerobic coverage
Minimal gram negative coverage
Able to kill enteric flora which can cause vomiting and diarrhea.

C

229
Q

Penicillin excretion

A

Excreted unchanged in urine

highly effective in UTI

230
Q

Penicillin Drugs

A

benzylpenicillin (Pen-G), phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V), procaine penicillin, benzathine penicillin (pen B)

231
Q

Cloxacillin, methicillin, oxacillin

A

Beta-lactamase resistant

Most effective against gram positive aerobes and anaerobes.

232
Q

Cephalosporin

A

Beta-lactam

5 generations: grouped into generations based on their relative spectrum of activation

lower the generation, the better gram positive spectrum
the higher the generation, the better gram negative coverage
more stable against beta lactamases than penicillins

233
Q

1st generation Cephalosporin

A

beta-lactam

effective against variety of gram positive
limited activity against anaerobic bacteria.
drugs: cefazolin, cephalexin, cefadroxil

234
Q

2nd generation Cephalosporins

A

moderate gram positive and gram negative
increase spectrum against anaerobes
drugs: cefoxitan, cefotetan, cefuroxime

235
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins

A

Broad spectrum activity with resistance to many beta lactamases
relies on normal plasma albumin for effective therapeutic serum levels
Good penetration of CSF
drugs: ceftiofur, cefotaxime, ceftazidime, cefovecin(Convenia - 1 injection for 14 days), cefpodoxime (only drug in this gen available as oral medication)

236
Q

4th generation cephalosporin

A

excellent activity against enteric organisms
drugs: cefepime, cefpirome and cefquinome

237
Q

5th generation cephalosproin

A

only 1 drug: ceftaroline
spectrum of action similar to 3rd gen - good gram positive coverage
retains efficacy to Staphylococcus spp. that are resistant to methicillin

238
Q

Monobactams

A

Drug: Aztreonam
Gram Negative coverage
Not used much in vetmed

239
Q

Carbapenems

A

broad spectrum
resistant to many beta lactamases
considered top tier antimicrobial goup and should not be used empirically
Drugs: imipenem, doripenem, ertapenem and meropenem

240
Q

Imipenem

A

Carbapenem beta lactam antimicrobial
nephrotoxic - drug degrades in renal tubule by kidney enzyme dehydropeptidase 1
Administer with Cilastatin to prevent degradation
associated with seizures in humans

241
Q

Meropenem

A

Carbapenem beta lactam antimicrobial
not nephrotoxic

242
Q

Beta-lactamase inhibitors (3)

A

clavulanic acid
sulbactam
tazobactam

bind irreversibly to beta lactamases so when administered with a beta lactam, the beta lactam can bind to bacterial PBP.

243
Q

Beta lactam adverse effects

A

Toxicity to beta lactam group considered very low.

Potential adverse reactions:
Type 1 hypersensitivity from urticaria to anaphylaxis - frequency unknown in small animals (occurs in 0.7%-10% of people receiving penicillin
Type 2 hypersensitivity can also occur – hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia reported
Type 4 reactions usually manifest as cutaneous disease

Can rigger immune-mediated reactions such as IMHA

Can kill neric flora which cause nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
High doses can result in seizures and other neurologic diseases (more likely if brain diseases already present)

244
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Antimicrobial used to treat gram negative infections
Rely on aerobic bacterial metabolism
parenteral administration only
requires monitoring of renal function
Exhibit synergistic bactericidal effects when administered in combination with beta lactams

245
Q

Aminoglycosides mechanism of action (3 stage model theory)

A

Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosome resulting in faulty protein.

further synthesis increases aminoglycoside uptake by the cell which eventually leads to complete cessation of ribosomal activity.

Stage 1: outer bacterial lipopolysaccharide membranes are negatively charged while aminoglycoside is positively charged. Ionic binding allows aminoglycoside entry into cell and increase cell wall permeability

Stage 2: Energy dependent phase Faulty protein synthesis inserted into cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria allowing for more aminoglycoside entry (slow process and relies on ATP hydrolysis –> therefore reduced activity in anaerobic conditions). This stage can be blocked by inhibitors of oxidative phosphorylation or electron transport

Stage 3: Aminoglycoside accumulate quickly after nonspecific membrane channels inserted –> increasing rate of mistranslation of protein synthesis

246
Q

3 mechanisms of actions to aminoglycoside resistance + intrinsic resistance

A
  1. enzymatic mutation of aminoglycoside molecules
  2. target modification in ribosomal 30s subunit structure
  3. increase in aminoglycoside efflux
  4. intrinsic resistance to anaerobes
247
Q

Aminoglycoside absorption, distribution, metabolism and elimination

A

Absorption: water soluble; poorly absorbed from GI tract therefore must be administered parenterally

Distribution: primarily extravascular - can reach bone, synovial fluids, peritoneal fluid (especially if inflammation present). Distribution to bronchial secretions is good. Does not penetrate cell membranes well because of positive charge. Not recommended for CNS, eyes or prostate.

Elimination: primarily through kidneys unchanged by glomerular filtration.

248
Q

Aminoglycosides Adverse Effects

A

Aminoglycosides readily taken up by cells in proximal tubules and in ears
5-15% will suffer aminoglycoside induced nephrotoxicity (excreted through kidneys)

Nephrotoxicity:
dose dependent
majority of aminoglycoside is excreted but small amount is absorbed by renal tubules
Necrotic cells slough into tubular lumen which can result in obstruction
Underlying renal dysfunction predisposes patient to aminoglycoside induced nephrotoxicity
Often damage is reversible if caught early.

Ototoxicity:
hair cells update drug resulting in cell death and inflammation
dose and duration dependent
Ototoxicity is not reversible

Neuromuscular blockade
Rarely reported, but can be severe enough to cause respiratory depression
@ high doses - calcium release impaired at level of neuromuscular junction –> hypocalcemia. Concurrent use of neuromuscular blockade medications or myorelaxants may augment effets.

249
Q

Aminoglycoside drugs

A

Amikacin
Gentamicin sulfate
Tobramycin sulfate
neomycin

250
Q

Amikacin

A

aminoglycoside

Monitor for casts in urine and increases in BUN/Creat
dosage may need to be adjusted in critically ill patients

can be administered IV, IM, SQ q 24 hrs

251
Q

Gentamicin Sulfate

A

Aminoglycoside
Monitor for casts in urine and increases in BUN/Creat

Can be administered IV, IM, SQ, q 24 hours

252
Q

Tobramycin sulfate

A

Amino glycoside
Monitor for casts in urine and increases in BUN/Creat

Can be administered IV, IM, SQ q24 hours

253
Q

Neomycin

A

Aminoglycoside
Used to treat hepatic encephalopathy
Minimal GI absorption
administer PO q 6-12 hrs

254
Q

Fluoroquinolones

Mechanism of action
effectiveness and resistance

A

synthetic antimicrobials
Inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase which prevents bacterial DNA synthesis, replication and division, resulting in cell death
Bactericidal
Widest spectrum against gram-negative bacteria
Incomplete effectiveness against gram-positive and anaerobic bacteria
RESISTANCE TO FLUOROQUINOLONES CAN DEVELOP DURING THE COURSE OF THE TREATMENT

255
Q

Fluroquinolones

metabolism and elimination

A

hepatic metabolism and excreted in bile +/- urine either unchanged or as metabolites

Most are eliminated by the kidneys

Half-life depends on renal elimination and dose

256
Q

Resistance to fluroquinolones

A

increasing rate of resistance
attributed to widespread use of fluoroquinolones
Use of fluoroquinolones can lead to development of resistance to other antimicrobial classes
Fluoroquinolones should not be used as 1st line treatment. (exception - pyelonephritis, lower respiratory tract infections, bacterial prostatitis, hepatobiliary infections).

257
Q

Adverse effects of fluoroquinolones

A

GI upset: V/D, nausea, abdominal cramping

Neurologic: rapid administration risk CNS adverse effects including seizures
It may lower the seizure threshold; therefore, do not use or use it with extreme caution in patients with seizure disorders.

Juveniles: cartilage defects - not recommended in growing animals

retinopathy: irreversible blindness in cats

Rapid IV administration may result in histamine release in dogs

Can chelate with positively charged ions - contains beta-keto acid group that can bind to and chelate with positively charged ions; most profoundly seen with aluminum and copper, but can also happen with magnesium and calcium

Cardiovascular signs can result in hypotension, bradycardia, prolonged QT

Rare reports of fluoroquinolones used in patients with necrotizing fasciitis resulted in activating bacteriophage, rapid bacterial cell lysis, and release of bacteriophage superantigen and the potential sequelae of toxic shock syndrome.

258
Q

Enrofloxacin

A

2nd fluoroquinolone
only one available as injectable for dogs and cats
generally safe, though adverse effects can be permanent
Adverse effects can include:
- blindness in cats
- cartilage defects in juvenile animals
Max dose in cats if 5mg/kg q24hrs
primary metabolite of enrofloxacin is ciprofloxacin.

259
Q

Marbofloxacin

A

2nd gen fluroquinolone
longest post-antibiotic effect and half-life
No clinical trials support the translation of long half-life to superior antimicrobial efficacy.

260
Q

Pradofloxacine

A

3rd gen fluoroquinolone
Labeled for use in cats 12 weeks +, off-label for dogs (use in dogs associated with bone marrow suppression)
broad spectrum activity including many anaerobic bacteria
High potency with lower MIC values when compared with other fluoroquinolones

261
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

2nd gen fluoroquinolone
not labeled for veterinary use
Significantly higher doses needed in dogs than in humans and even so does not always achieve desired serum levels

262
Q

Moxifloxacin

A

4th gen fluoroquinolones

improved activity against gram-positive and gram-negative

only used in human medicine

263
Q

Metronidazole

drug class

Indications and mechanism of action

A

nitromidazole antimicrobial

Indicated to treat most gram-positive anaerobic and all gram negative anaerobic organisms
At higher dosages - effective against protoozoal diseases (giardia, amebiasis, trichomoniasis); however higher doses associated with CNS adverse effects

Concentration dependent

Within the bacteria: reduced and incorporates into bacterial DNA causing loss in helical structure
inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
results in cell death
Bactericidal

264
Q

Metronidazole

Bioavailability, distribution, elimination

A

Good oral bioavailability

Excellent tissue distribution with good penetration to BBB and CSF

Elimination is dose dependent with renal and biliary routes

Hepatic metabolism –> dose reduction with liver dysfunction

Use with caution in patients with neurologic disease

265
Q

Metronidazole

Adverse effects

A

GI upset
neurologic signs associated with higher doses and prolonged use

Clinical signs: vertical nystagmus, ataxia, paraparesis, tetraparesis, hypermetria, head tilt, tremors

Treatment: discontinue therapy and provide supportive care (IV fluids, antiemetics, sedatives PRN). Most patients improve within 3 days.

266
Q

Chloramphenicol

drug class
mechanism of actions

A

Phenicol

Bacteriostatic

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit
In mammalian cells, can also inhibit mitochondrial protein synthesis (especially erythropoietic cells).

267
Q

Chloramphenicol effectiveness

A

Gram-positive
Gram-negative
anaerobic
intracellular organisms such as: Chlamydia, mycoplasma and rickettsia
Not effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

268
Q

Chloramphenicol

bioavailability, metabolism and elimination

A

Good bioavailability through oral administration and tissue distribution

Penetrates CNS
Limited prostate

Hepatic metabolism –> dose reduction with liver dysfunction

Excreted in kidneys in mostly inactive form

269
Q

Chloramphenicol

Toxicity

A

Dose-dependent bone marrow suppression in humans, dogs and cats (cats more sensitive)
DO NOT SPLIT
DO NOT PULVERIZE
Caretakers to wear gloves
Dogs: hind end weakness and GI signs

270
Q

Chloramphenicol + drugs requiring CYP450 (phenobarbital)

A

Chloramphenicol is a potent inhibitor of CYP450.

Drugs that require CYP450 may need dose adjust to prevent toxicity.

271
Q

Chloramphenicols + concurrent antimicrobials of other classes

A

Competitive inhibitors of 50S ribosomal subunits
Do not give chloramphenicols with lincosamides and macrolides

Tetracyclines bind to 30S subunit
Therefore Chloramphenicols may act synergistically with tetracyclines

272
Q

Clindamycin

drug class
Mechanism of action

A

Lincosamide Antimicrobial

binds to 50S subunit of ribosome
Bacteriostatic and time dependent

273
Q

Clindamycin effectivness

A

Effective against gram-positive aerobes and anaerobes
Effective against mycoplasma and toxoplasmosis

274
Q

Clindamycin bioavailability

Distribution, metabolism and elimination

A

Good bioavailability after oral administration. Can also be administered SQ and IV

Good tissue distribution especially to skin and bone
penetrates CNS
penetrates blood prostate barrier –> good for gram-positive bacterial prostatitis
penetrates biofilms –> use for gingivitis, and peridontal disease

275
Q

Clindamycin

Side effects

A

Overall rare

Humans: overgrowth of C. diff

276
Q

Doxycycline

drug class
Mechanism of actions

A

Tetracycline

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit
bacteriostatic
Lipid soluble –> greater bacterial penetration

277
Q

Doxycycline

effectiveness

A

1st line therapy for tick borne rickettsial diseases
felin upper airway
canine respiratory

Gram-positive, gram-negative, mycoplasma, chlamydia, rickettsial, spirochetes
not considered effective against anaerobic infections

278
Q

Doxycycline resistance

A

found in all bacteria secondary to presence of efflux pumps
alterations to binding sites
bacterial enzymatic destruction

279
Q

Doxycycline

bioavailability
distribution, metabolism and elimination

A

high bioavailability
drug is lipophilic so will also distribute into placenta and milk
limited in prostate
highly protein bound
30%-40% CSF

elimination: mostly unknown with 16% in urine unchanged
predominance for intestinal elimination and enterohepatic recirculation

280
Q

Doxycycline Adverse effects

A

Adverse effects more likely with decrease in rental function.
Give with food to decrease GI upset
Associated with ESOPHAGEAL EROSION - follow with 6ml water
Incorporates into bone and enamel resulting in discoloration

IV Doxycycline needs to be diluted and ideally given through central line to reduce risk of thrombophlebitis
Give over 1 hour as anaphylactic shock has been reported
Rarely hepatotoxic

281
Q

Doxycycline

Concurrent administration of medications and fluids

A

should not be administered with antacids, aspirin or calcium containing fluids as it chelates with cations

May bind to cholestyramine because of its lipophilic nature

282
Q

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim

A

individually - bacteriostatic
used together = bactericidal and time dependent

work on different stages of bacterial folic acid production

Combo therapy 1:5 trimethoprim: sulfonamide

283
Q

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim

effectivess

A

broad spectrum
gram-positive, gram-negative and anaerobes

Ineffective against mycoplasma and rickettsial disease

284
Q

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim
distribution, metabolism and elimination

A

goo tissue distribution to include CNS for sulfadiazine and prostate for trimethoprim

Both drugs undergo hepatic metabolism
metabolites thought to be responsible for allergic and idiosyncratic reactions
Both active drug and metabolites renally excreted

TMS highly concentrated in urine therefore considered 1st line therapy for bacterial cystitis

285
Q

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim

Adverse effects

A

allogenic, immunogenic and toxic metabolites (Dobermans, Samoyeds and Mini schnauzers more sensitive)
hypersensitivity reactions: fever, polyarthritis, pancreatitis, hepatitis, glomerulonephritis, anemia, ITP, mucosal skin lesions.

KCS most common because of direct cytotoxic effects of sulfonamides on lacrimal gland
reversible with short treatments (<5 days), but may be irreversible with long term use.

decrease in thyroid hormone in dogs –> reversible

286
Q

Macrolides

Drug examples
mechanism of actions

A

drugs: Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

Mechanism of action: binds to 50S subunit inhibiting protein synthesis

Bacteriostatis

287
Q

Macrolides effectiveness

A

Mainly effective against gram-positive bacteria and intracellular bacterial infections
limited effectiveness against Gram-negative bacteria
Not effective against anaerobic bacteria

288
Q

Macrolides advantage

A

Alternative drug option for patients that cannot take beta-lactams (allergies)

289
Q

Erythromycin

A

Macrolide

enteral and parenteral administration
rapid degradation by gastric acid when given orally
DO NOT CRUSH TABLETS b/c coating helps prevent rapid degradation
Drug of choice for Campylobacter jejuni

290
Q

Azithromycin

A

Macrolide

Greater activity against gram-negative organisms
More stable in acid –> higher bioavailability when taken orally

291
Q

Macrolides side effects

A

GI upset most commonly reported
also highly effective as a prokinetic when administered at subantimicrobial doses

292
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A

Prescription based on culture and susceptibility and lack of any other viable alternative

treatment for multi drug resistant UTI
inhibits cell wall synthesis, bacterial protein and DNA synthesis
bactericidal
Gram Positive and gram negative
resistance is rare
side effects: irreversible peripheral neuropathies
use with caution in cats –> potential for hemolysis

293
Q

Vancomycin

A

Prescription based on culture and susceptibility and lack of any other viable alternative

glycopeptide antibiotic

Reserved only for serious life-threatening multi-drug resistant gram-positive bacterial infections that cannot be treated with other agents (ie MRSA)

Mechanism of action: inhibits proper cell wall synthesis by binding to subunits preventing cross-link formation in peptidoglycan cell wall

Adverse effects: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
Rapid IV administration can be associated with histamine release
Extravasation can result in severe soft tissue damage

294
Q

Rifampin

A

Prescription based on culture and susceptibility and lack of any other viable alternative

used to treat Methicillin-resistant staphylococcal pyodermas

Mechanism of action: inhibits RNA synthesis

Resistance develops in as short as 2 days when used as monotherapy
Use in combo with other drugs to decrease emergence to resistance
Rifampin + fluoroquinolone –> antagonistic
Fair to good oral bioavailability when fasted
Side effects: GI upset and hepatotoxicity
Pretreatment and weekly biochem monitoring for hepatotoxicity

295
Q

Oxazolidinones

A

Prescription based on culture and susceptibility and lack of any other viable alternative

Linezolid - synthetic antibiotic
Treatment for multidrug resistant skin infections, pneumonia and bacteremia
Mechanism of action: binds to p-site of 50S ribsomal subunit –> inhibit protein synthesis
Bacteriostatic
effective against gram-positive, including methicillin and vancomycin resistant staphylococci
Anaerobic spectrum similar to clindamycin
Good bioavailability with tissue distribution to lungs, CSF , bones
well tolerated with dogs.
No studies on cat pharmacokinetics

296
Q

Lipopeptides

A

Prescription based on culture and susceptibility and lack of any other viable alternative

Most recently discovered

Drug: Daptomycin
indicated for Gram-positive that are vancomycin resistant

effective against gram-positive and anaerobic

Mechanism of action: forms ion channels in cell membrane allowing it to depolarize and result in rapid cell death

Gram-negative organisms inherently resistant

Adverse effects: highly toxic, causes skeletal muscle damage

297
Q

Antifungals (2 classes)

A

Polyene antibiotics
Azole derivatives

298
Q

polyene antibiotics
two types

A
  1. amphotericin B
  2. lipid-complexed emphotericin B