Heart Disease and Blood Pressure Flashcards

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1
Q

What does ACEi stand for? What does it do?

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors that disrupt the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

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2
Q

Which organs does angiotensin II act on and what is the outcome of its mechanism of action?

A

Converted from Angiotensin I by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Angiotensin II is a hormone that binds to receptors in various tissues to exert various effects.

Acts on the adrenal cortex, causing it to release aldosterone.

stimulates vasoconstriction in systemic arterioles

Promotes sodium reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubules of the kidneys.

In the CNS:
It acts on the hypothalamus to stimulate thirst and encourage water intake
It induces the posterior pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone
It reduces the sensitivity of the baroreceptors’ response to increase blood pressure

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3
Q

What is the role of angiotensin-converting enzyme?

A

It converts Angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

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4
Q

What are some effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibition (ACEi)?

A

decrease proteinuria
promote vasodilation and ventilation
reduce plasma volume

All of the above sums to decrease systolic blood pressure

ACEi can also decrease the metabolism of vasodilatory agent bradykinin resulting in decrease in vascular tone.

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5
Q

What is first line of treatment for systemic hypertension in dogs?

A

ACE inhibitors

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6
Q

What are two of the most common ACEi?

A

Enalapril and Benazepril

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7
Q

Is ACEi a recommended first line treatment for SHT in cats? Why?

A

ACEi is not a recommended fist line treatment for cats as it does not sufficiently nor consistently lower blood pressure.

Benazepril may be beneficial in conjunction with calcium channel blocker.

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8
Q

What is the concern with ACEi in patients who are dehydrated or azotemic?

A

There is potential to worsen glomerular filtration rate and renal function through preferential dilation of the efferent arteriole that would thereby decrease glomerular filtration pressure.

Overall risk is low unless the patient also being treated with diuretic therapy or the patient has severe azotemia.

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9
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance might ACEi administration contribute?

A

hyperkalemia secondary to inhibition of aldosterone. However, this is unlikely to be clinically relevant event when given in conjunction with aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.

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10
Q

What effects do angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) exert?

A

Blocks the ability of angiotensin II to activate its receptors.
It does not affect the metabolism of bradykinin.

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11
Q

What is a contraindication for angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)?

A

Do not use in severely dehydrated or azotemic patients

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12
Q

What class of drug is Spironolactone?

A

aldosterone antagonist

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13
Q

How do aldosterone antagonist exert their effects?

A

Block the effects of aldosterone on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

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14
Q

Aldosterone

A

It is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex when stimulated by Angiotensin II.

It helps control the balance of water and salts in the kidney by keeping sodium and releasing potassium from the body.

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15
Q

What are the effects of chronic exposure to aldosterone?

A

Induces vascular remodeling in the glomerulus to retain sodium and water resulting in systemic hypertension.

Aldosterone also exerts proinflammatory effects promoting fibrosis.

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16
Q

What is a primary indication for use of spironolactone?

A

Hyperaldosteronism

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17
Q

When is it reasonable to suspect hyperaldosteronism in cats?

A

hypertension
hypernatremia
hypokalemia

mostly in chronic kidney disease

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18
Q

What is a potential adverse effect of spironolactone?

A

development of hyperkalemia. However, this is unlikely unless used with ACEi, ARBs or Beta blocker

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19
Q

Dihydropyridines

A

Dihydropyridines are a type of calcium channel blocker (CCB) that block calcium channels located in the muscle cells of the heart and arterial blood vessels, thereby reducing the entry of calcium ions into the cells. By blocking these channels, CCBs promote:
vasodilation
increase strength in contractility
minimal effect on cardiac conduction though the decrease in blood pressure may trigger a reflex tachycardia.

E.g. Amlodipine and Nicardipine

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20
Q

What is first line treatment for antihypertensives in cats?

A

Amlodipine because it has shown to be more effective than ACEi.

If the cat is refractory to amlodipine, then it may require an addition of ACEi or ARB

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21
Q

Side effects of CCBs

A

Reflex tachycardia
weakness, lethargy and decrease in appetite
intrarenal hemodynamics –> CCB promotes preferential afferent arteriolar dilation over the efferent arteriole, which may result in increased intraglomerular pressure, resulting in damage to the glomerulus and worsening proteinuria.

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22
Q

Adrenergic Antagonist

A

It can help manage SHT, especially if the underlying mechanism is sympathetically driven.

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23
Q

Prazosin

A

Selective alpha 1 antagonist to promote smooth muscle vascular relaxation.

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24
Q

Acepromazine

A

Dopamine antagonist with the potential to cause hypotension and GI upset

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25
Q

Atenolol

A

Beta 1 selective antagonist
Decreases heart rate and contractility
Reduces renin release and peripheral vascular resistance

Used more in cats with SHT and hypethyroidism

Used in dogs as adjunct for refractory SHT with reflex tachycardia

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26
Q

Propanolol

A

Non-selective beta antagonist
Decreases heart rate and contractility
Reduces renin release and peripheral vascular resistance

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27
Q

What is an adverse side effect of atenolol

A

Excessive bradycardia

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28
Q

Labetalol

A

Injectable mix of alpha and beta antagonists.
Used to manage severe acute hypertension
promotes vasodilation and prevents associated tachycardia
The use has been explored in dogs undergoing craniotomy or adrenalectomy

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29
Q

Hydralazine

A

Promotes vasodilation by altering smooth muscle intracellular metabolism.

works primarily on arteries

Causes vasodilation, afterload reduction and lowering of blood pressure

The mechanism is not entirely understood but the end result is smooth muscle relaxation and decrease in peripheral vascular resistance.

It is not used as a first-line drug but used as an adjunct in chronic management.

Injectable form used in urgent/emergent treatment due to its potent vasodilatory effects, and rapid onset.

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30
Q

What are adverse side effects to hydralazine?

A

Arteriolar vasodilator

excessive or irreversible hypotension
reflex tachycardia
sodium and water retention
GI upset

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31
Q

Sodium nitroprusside (SNP)

A

Arteriolar vasodilator

promotes potent vasodilation through release of nitric oxide.
Nitric oxide diffuses to vascular smooth muscle
decrease influx of calcium, activation of actin/myosin chains and overall contractile forces

Effects: smooth muscle relaxation and decreased vascular tone and peripheral vascular resistance

The injectable form has a short half-life and is easy to titrate, so it is ideally used for hypertensive crises. Administer as CRI.

Used to treat acute hypertensive crises or fulminant CHF

Contraindicated in hypotensive patients

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32
Q

IV nitroglycerine

A

promotes potent vasodilation through release of nitric oxide.
Nitric oxide diffuses to vascular smooth muscle
decrease influx of calcium, activation of actin/myosin chains and overall contractile forces

Effects: smooth muscle relaxation and decreased vascular tone and peripheral vascular resistance

The injectable form has a short half-life and is easy to titrate, so it is ideally used for hypertensive crises.

No risk of cyanide poisoning

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33
Q

What are the adverse side effects associated with sodium nitroprusside?

A

generation of cyanide and thiocyanate at high doses and prolonged use.
Patients with kidney and liver disease have decreased metabolism, therefore greater risk of cyanide toxicity.
Clinical signs of toxicosis: metabolic acidosis, depression, stupor, seizures

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34
Q

Fenoldopam

A

Selective agonist of dopamine 1 receptor. Promotes peripheral and renal vasodilation and natriuresis
Increases glomerular filtration rate
Injectable has a short half life.

Good potential for application in hypertensive crisis, but needs further investigation in vet med.

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35
Q

Class 1 Antiarrhythmics

A

Sodium channel blockers
Interferes intracellularly with sodium conduction through sodium channels
Subclassification determined by potency of effects on sodium channel, activated/inactivated blockade and effects on other channel receptors.

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36
Q

Class 1A antiarrhythmic agents

A

Quinidine and procainamide

Effective against ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias.

fast sodium channel blocking effects and moderate blockade of rapid component of the delayed rectifier potassium current resulting in action potential elongation.

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37
Q

Procainamide

A

Class 1 A antiarrhythmic

Sodium channel blocker

Depresses conduction velocity and prolongs refractory period in a variety of tissues, including atrial and ventricular myocardium

Administer slowly IV over 5-10 minutes to prevent hypotension

Adverse effects more commonly associated with cats and humans; include anorexia, nausea, and vomiting

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38
Q

Class IB Antiarrhythmic

A

Inhibits fast sodium channels, primarily in the open and inactivated state, with rapid onset.

Sodium current is also inhibited, resulting in the shortening of action potential in normal myocardial tissue

Lidocaine and mexiletine

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39
Q

Lidocaine

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic

Sodium channel blocker.

The ability of lidocaine to block sodium currents is better during acidosis.

Benefit: minimal hemodynamic, SA, AVN affect at standard doses

Hepatic clearance determines serum concentration

Heart failure, hypotension, and severe hepatic disease can decrease lidocaine metabolism and predispose patients to lidocaine toxicity.

Adverse effects: higher incidence in cats
Nausea, vomiting, lethargy, tremors, seizure activity (usually symptoms stop when lidocaine is discontinued)

Dosing: Bolus 2mg/kg over 20-30 seconds; bolus can be repeated up to 8mg/kg within 10 minute period barring adverse effects
CRI: 25-75mcg/kg/min

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40
Q

Mexiletine

A

Class 1B antiarrhythmic

most common oral class in dogs

Highly protein-bound and excreted by the kidneys

Use and adverse effects similar to Lidocaine (rarely used in cats because of adverse effects)

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41
Q

Tocainide

A

Class 1B antiarrhythmic

Similar to lidocaine, rarely used in small animals because of high incidence of serious adverse effects including renal failure and corneal dystrophy

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42
Q

Class 1C Antiarrhythmic

A

Potent blockade of the open state fast sodium channel with greater effects as the depolarization rate increases

These agents prolong the refractory period in atrial and ventricular tissues
Propafenone and Flecainide

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43
Q

Propafenone

A

Class 1C antiarrhythmic
used to treat narrow complex tachyarrhythmias
usually combined with diltiazem
also has mild beta blocking properties

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44
Q

Flecainide

A

Class 1C antiarrhythmic
potent negative inotropic properties
Side effects include GI, but not commonly seen
Rarely used in veterinary medicine

Monitor heart rate, blood pressure and ECG when administering

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45
Q

Class II antiarrhythmic

A

Beta-adrenergic antagonists or beta-blockers are the most used cardiovascular drugs.

Must be cognizant of animals’ underlying disease when prescribing.

Beta-blockers contraindicated in patients with evidence of sinus nodal dysfunction, AVN conduction disturbances, pulmonary disease or CHF (must be evaluated for fluid retention and condition must be stabilized before implementing beta-blockade).

Reduces heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand and increases atrioventricular conduction time.

Inhibits pacemaker current I(f) that promotes proarrhythmic depolarization in damaged cardiomyocytes

Inhibits calcium current by decreasing tissue cyclic adenosine monophosphate levels ; the magnitude of effects depends on the sympathetic state. Greater effect with higher adrenergic states

Beta-adrenergic antagonists slow AVN conduction in SVT by slowing sinus discharge rate in inappropriate sinus tachycardia and suppresses ventricular tachycardia that may be exacerbated by increased sympathetic tone.

Used to treat supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias.

Also used in HCM to control heart rate and decrease myocardial oxygen demand

Can cause hypotension due to decreased heart output.

Extremely low dosages must be used with patients with systolic myocardial dysfunction. Because of that, beta blockers are not generally first choice for acute anti-arrhythmic therapy because the amount required is not well tolerated.

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46
Q

Propranolol

A

Non-selective beta receptor antagonist (targets both beta-1 and 2 receptors).

Function: decrease heart rate and contractility. Decrease renin release and peripheral vascular resistance

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47
Q

Esmolol

A

Class II Antiarrhythmic

Short-acting Beta-1 blocker that can help control sympathetically driving ventricular tachycardia . Administered as a CRI on telemetry.

Side effects: Negative inotropic effects may be too pronounced in some patients and cause cardiovascular collapse. Requires blood pressure monitoring.

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48
Q

Atenolol

A

Class II antiarrhythmic.

The most common oral beta blocker in small animals.

Relative beta 1 selectivity and long half-life compared to propranolol.

Water soluble and eliminated by the kidney.

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49
Q

Metoprolol

A

Class II antiarrhythmic.

Common oral beta blocker in small animals.

Long half-life compared to propranolol.

Metabolized and eliminated through the liver.

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50
Q

Class III Antiarrhythmic agents

A

Block the repolarization of I(k) resulting in prolongation of action potential durations and effective refractory period.

Blocks rapid component of I(k) instead of the slow component – therefore effects are accentuated at slower heart rates rather than at the problematic tachyarrhythmic rates.

Puts patients at risk of early afterdepolarization (accounts of proarrhythmic effects of class III AA drugs) - risk is increased in patients with hypokalemia, bradycardia, intact females, increasing age, macrolide antibiotic therapy/other drug therapies

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51
Q

Amiodarone

A

Class III Antiarrhythmic

Alpha and Beta blocking properties.

Effects on sodium, potassium, and calcium channels.

Broadest spectrum exhibiting properties of all 4 AA classes.

Makes action potential durations more uniform throughout the myocardium and has the least reported proarrhythmic activity of any of the class III agents.

Used for refractory tachyarrhythmias, both atrial and ventricular

Significant side effects in dogs, including hepatopathy and anaphylaxis.

Monitor heart rate, blood pressure and ECG with administer.

Available as oral or injectable.

Major drawback: associated with a host of multi-systemic adverse side effects that do not occur with sotalol.

Adverse side effects (more common with higher maintenance doses): vomiting, anorexia, hepatopathies, thrombocytopenia

Two brands:
Cardarone IV, Nextarone

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52
Q

Cardarone IV

A

IV formulation of amiodarone

Serious side effects attributed to vasoactive solvents in the formulation.

Side effects include life-threatening hypotension, anaphylaxis, bradycardia, acute hepatic necrosis, and death.

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53
Q

Nexterone

A

Premixed aqueous solution of IV amiodarone.

No adverse hemodynamic effects of other adverse cllinical effects in healthy research dogs.

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54
Q

Class IV antiarrhythmic agents

A

Calcium channel antagonist

Slow AVN conduction and prolong the effective refractory period of nodal tissue

Effects are more notable at faster stimulation rates and in depolarized fibers.

Effective in slowing the ventricular response rate to atrial tachyarrhythmias and can prolong AVN’s effective refractory period to terminate AVN-dependent tachyarrhythmia.

It is mainly indicated to reduce the rate of arrhythmias passing through the AV node, such as supraventricular arrhythmias.

Major negative inotropic effects due to interactions with calcium in the smooth muscles.

Causes vasodilation

Limit amount of calcium available in cardiac contractility.

Diltiazem is the most widely used IV antiarrhythmic drug

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55
Q

Diltiazem

A

Class IV antiarrhythmic

Calcium channel blocker.

Minimal negative inotropic effects.

Used in dogs to immediately terminate a severe AVN-dependent tachyarrhythmia or slow ventricular response rate to an atrial tachyarrhythmia.

Adverse side effects: hypotension and bradyarrhythmia.

Administer IV slowly over 2-3 minutes.

Oral diltiazem administered TID.

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56
Q

Digoxin

A

Class V anti-arrhythmic (other)

Effects occur indirectly through the autonomic nervous system by enhancing central and peripheral vagal tone.

Used as an antiarrhythmic due to its ability to slow AV conduction time and have parasympathomimetic effects

Treats SVT to slow AV nodal conduction and reduce ventricular rate

Positive inotrope that will increase cardiac contractility in systolic disease

The risk of toxicity manifests as neurological, GI, and cardiac involvement.

Predisposed to toxicity if the patient has renal dysfunction, hypokalemia, elderly, chronic lung disease, hypothyroidism.

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57
Q

Magnesium Sulfate

A

1st line treatment for torsades de pointes

Used to treat hypomagnesemia

Administer slowly IV @ 30mg/kg over 5-10 minutes

Adverse effects: CNS depress, weakness, bradycardia, hypotension, hypocalcemia and QT prolongation

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58
Q

Adenosine

A

Used in humans to terminate AVN dependent tachyarrhythmias.

No study to date has shown effectiveness in dogs and cats.

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59
Q

Antiarrhythmic devices/procedures

A

Transvenous radiofrequency catheter ablation

Permanent pacemaker implantation

Implantable cardioverter defibrillators

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60
Q

Transverse radiofrequency catheter ablation

A

Identify reentrant circuit or automatic focus for ablation

Deliver radiofrequency energy via electrode causing thermal desiccation of small volume tissue to interrupt tachycardia circuit

61
Q

Permanent pacemaker implantation

A

Manage bradyarrhythmias

62
Q

Implantable cardioverter defibrillators

A

experimental in dogs

63
Q

Anticholinergics

A

class of drugs taht block the action of acetylcholine (ACh), a neurotransmitter that sends signals between cells that affect a bodily function.

By blocking ACh at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system, anticholinergics inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system.

64
Q

Atropine

A

Anticholinergic

inhibit acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors

Clinical effects include increasing heart rate, resolving vagally mediated bradycardia, decreasing GI motility, pupillary dilation, bronchodilation, urinary retention and drying or secretion

Most commonly used to treat vagal-mediated bradycardias and toxicities

Able to pass the placental barrier.

65
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A

Anticholinergic

inhibit acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors

Clinical effects include increasing heart rate, resolving vagally mediated bradycardia, decreasing GI motility, pupillary dilation, bronchodilation, urinary retention and drying or secretion

Most commonly used to treat vagal-mediated bradycardias and toxicities

Glycopyrrolate is associated with more stable cardiovascular system with fewer arrhythmias

Glycopyrrolate has a stronger anti-saliva secretion effect than atropine

It does not pass the placental barrier and, therefore, is the agent of choice for pregnant animals.

66
Q

Diuretics (7 classes)

A

Loop diuretics
Osmotic Diuretics
Potassium sparing diuretics
Thiazide diuretics
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Aldosterone Antagonist
Aquaretics (new)

67
Q

Goals for diuretic therapy

A

Enhanced excretion of retained water, solutes and toxins

Promote urine flow

decrease urine concentration of solutes and toxins

68
Q

Common indications for diuretic use

A

Oligoanuric acute renal failure
decompensated kidney disease
Congestive heart failure
ascites from liver failure
other fluid and electrolyte disorders

69
Q

When it is justified to use diuretics to treat edema?

A

Only when fluid retention is caused by an increase in hydrostatic pressure.

When vascular permeability is increased, further depletion of vascular volume with diuretics is rarely indicated and often detrimental

70
Q

Adverse effect of exaggerated diuresis

A

May activate RAAS by reducing intravascular volume and ventricular filling and may subsequently decrease tissue perfusion.

Therefore, diuresis requires therapeutic monitoring

71
Q

Pathologic conditions that contribute to diuresis

A

pressure natriuresis
osmotic diuresis

72
Q

pressure natriuresis

A

A negative feedback in hypervolemic hypertensive states

73
Q

Diuretics operating on which part of the nephron is most effective and why?

A

Diuretics at the loop of Henle are the most effective because of the large amount of filtrate delivered to this site and the lack of efficient distal reabsorption region.

74
Q

What triggers an increase to antidiuretic production?

A

Elevated plasma osmolality
hypovolemia
hypotension
(lesser extent) nausea
increased concentration of angiotensin II

75
Q

Osmotic diuresis

A

passive mechanism due to abnormal urine concentration of osmotically active solutes such as glucose and sodium

76
Q

What is required for antidiuretic hormone to function?

A

functional renal tubular system
medullary concentration gradient of sodium and urea
functional ADH receptor system

without any one of these factors will result in inappropriate diuresis

77
Q

What may affect function of diuretics that work on proximal tubule?

A

Diuretics that work on proximal tubule can modulate a greater bulk of sodium, but their efficacy may be overcome by distal compensatory increases in sodium reabsorption.

78
Q

What may limit efficacy of diuretics operating on distal tubule?

A

Diuretics operating on distal tubule may be limited by small amount of sodium reaching distal tubule

79
Q

Osmotic Diuretics

A

hyperosmolality causes water shift from the intracellular fluid compartment to extracellular space, causing ECF expansion

Used to contract ICF in cases with cerebral edema associated with an increase in ICF and elevated intracranial pressure

Contraindicated for patients in or at risk of heart failure.

Effective in patients with anuric or oliguric rental disease, cerebral edema and increased intraocular pressure

eg. Mannitol

80
Q

Mannitol

A

osmotically active non reabsorbed sugar alcohol

filtered by the glomerulus; does not undergo tubular reabsorption, thereby increasing tubular flow rate and osmotic diuresis

An increase in tubular flow rate reduces urea absorption, resulting in increased urinary clearance and serum urea concentration.

Potential benefits of mannitol:
Prostaglandin-induced renal vasodilation
reduced tendency of erythrocytes to aggregate
reduced renal vascular congestion
reduced hypoxic cellular edema
protection of mitochondrial function
reduced oxidative damage
renoprotectant when administered before toxic or ischemic event
*No data supports above benefits in renal failure cases

At high doses, mannitol can cause renal vasoconstriction and tubular vacuolization

Use cautiously with oliguric animals to avoid volume overload, hyperosmolality and further renal damage.

81
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

A

Clinical application of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - mainly used to treat elevated intraocular pressure in glaucoma.

Work by suppressing the activity of carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme in red blood cells that converts carbon dioxide into carbonic acid and bicarbonate ions. CAIs can reduce secretion of H+ ions by the kidney tubule and can also impair the reabsorption of sodium, chloride and bicarbonate.

eg. Acetazolamide

Carbonic anhydrase also located on other organs.

Blockade of ocular and brain CA decreases the production of aqueous humor and CSF.

Blockade of red blood cell CA hampers carbon dioxide transport

Gastric CA - minimally affected by inhibitors.

82
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Function: diuretic

Inhibits mostly the type II (cytoplasmic) and IV(membrane) proximal tubular carbonic anhydrases, decreasing the reabsorption of sodium bicarbonate.

Results in metabolic acidosis and natriuresis - minimal and self-limiting because progressively less bicarbonate is filtered as the proximal tubule becomes less responsive to carbonic anhydrase inhibition and the distal sodium reabsorption increases to compensate for the proximal losses.

83
Q

Loop Diuretics

A

Binds to and inhibits Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransporters on the apical membrane of epithelial cells of the thick ascending loop of Henle.

Inhibition of reabsorption of both Na and Cl, ions remain in the tubular lumen and
water follows, resulting in diuresis and increased Na secretion

○ High sodium concentration later in the nephron results in increased sodium and
potassium exchange, which leads to increased potassium secretion as well

○ Increased calcium secretion also occurs

○ Also believed to decrease renal vascular resistance and increase renal blood
flow

Prototypical loop diuretic: furosemide
Torsemide

84
Q

Furosemide

A

Loop diuretic

Improves renal parenchymal oxygenation by decreasing the energy expenditure of the secondary active Na-K-2Cl transporter

Mannitol + furosemide > synergistic in inducing diuresis in dogs with acute renal failure

Relative short half-life: 1-1.5 hours in dogs > can result in intermittent rebound sodium retention with loss of efficacy.

most commonly used in patients in heart failure.

85
Q

Torsemide

A

potent loop diuretic of pyridine-sulfonylurea class

longer half-life (8 hours)

higher bioavailability (80%-100%)
strong diuretic effect than furosemide

Large scale study - effective in dogs with mitral valve disease, but high rate of renal adverse events.

Additional benefits observed in other species: vasodilation, improved cardiac function, reduction of myocardial remodeling, mineralocorticoid-receptor blockade with anti-aldosterone effect - has not been shown in small animals

86
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

exert their action by inhibiting the NaCl cotransporter on distal tubule.

Mainly used for anticalciuretic properties to prevent calcium-containing uroliths

Managing CHF in conjunction with other diuretics

treating ascites associated with right-sided heart failure

also used for treating polyuria of diabetes insipidus by inducing a mild hypovolemia and increasing proximal sodium conservation.

eg. Hydrochlorothiazide

87
Q

Aldosterone Antagonist

A

Antagonize aldosterone by binding to its receptor in the late distal tubule and the collecting duct

increases sodium, calcium and water excretion and decreases potassium loss

e.g. Spironolactone and eplerenone

88
Q

When to suspect hyperaldosteronism

A

concurrent hypernatremia, severe hypokalemia

89
Q

Spironolactone

A

Aldosterone antagonist
potassium sparing diuretic

Best used in cases of hyperaldosteronism
Main clinical applications in liver and heart failure.

Also used as an antihypertensive in hyperaldosteron cases.

Usually, it is in combination with a more efficient loop diuretic.

Also seems to have a positive effect on myocardial remodeling and the reduction of cardiac fibrosis

Commonly added to other diuretics to reduce their potassium-wasting effects

Main adverse effect: development of hyperkalemia

90
Q

potassium-sparing diuretics

A

Inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and the collecting duct; suppressing the driving force for potassium secretion.

Only weak diuretic and natriuretic properties

Mostly used to counterbalance potassium-wasting effects of proximal diuretics.

e.g. Amiloride and triamterene

91
Q

Aquaretics

A

New class of diuretics that antagonize the vasopressin V2 receptor in the kidney and promote solute-free water clearance

Vaptans - vasopressin receptor antagonist

Clinical use: free water rention in hypervolemic hyponatremia or normovolemic hyponatremic

drugs: conivaptan, tolvaptan and mozavaptan

Not used in small animals

92
Q

Pimobendan

A

Function: positive inotropic and vasodilatory effects

Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor
Calcium sensitization

Used to treat congestive heart failure

93
Q

Mechanism of Pimobendan via calcium sensitization

A

increase contractility via increasing binding affinity to the regulatory site on troponin C for calcium

sensitizes the myocyte contractile apparatus to calcium without increasing the amount of calcium within the cell.

Pimobendan is not dependent on catecholamines

94
Q

Mechanism of pimobendan via phosphodiesterase III inhibition

A

increase contractility by increasing intracellular calcium levels.

PDE III inhibition increases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), which in turn increases cAMP-dependent protein kinase.

Increase in calcium sequestration during diastole and increase in calcium influx during systole - both contribute to positive inotropy

PDE III and PDE V are found in vascular smooth muscle. Inhibition of PDE III and PDE V increases intracellular cAMP and cGMP - which facilitates calcium update through intracellular storage sites. Results in reduction of available calcium for contraction > greater vascular smooth muscle relaxation.

95
Q

Elimination of Pimobendan

A

undergoes hepatic demethylation

96
Q

bioavailability and duration of affect of Pimobendan

A

Pimobendan is highly protein bound with greater than 90% bioavailability.

Maximal cardiac effects at 2-4 hours following oral administration and persists up to 8 hours.

97
Q

Clinical use of pimobendan

A

FDA approved to treat CHF with myxomatous mitral valve degeneration or DCM

98
Q

Adverse effects of pimobendan

A

generally well tolerated but may cause GI upset - inappetence, vomiting, diarrhea and lethargy

99
Q

Anti-hypertensives (7 mechanisms of action)

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
Angiotensin receptor blocker
aldosterone antagonist
calcium channel blocker
alpha 1 antagonist
beta antagonist
arteriolar vasodilator

100
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor)

A

Family of drugs designed to disrupt the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

Medications function by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

ACE inhibitors can decrease proteinuria
promote vasodilation, venodilation and reduction in plasma volume with reduction in systolic blood pressure

ACE inhibitors can cause decreased metabolism of vasodilatory agent bradykinin –> further reduction in vascular tone

Clinical application of ACE inhibitors where systemic hypertension is caused by known or suspected increase in RAAS - most commonly related to chronic kidney disease and or glomerular disease.

Most commonly considered 1st line treatment for dogs (not cats).

Generally well tolerated.

Biggest concern: potential to worsen glomerular filtration rate and renal function through preferential dilation of the efferent arteriole (thereby reducing glomerular filtration pressure)

e.g. Enalapril, benazepril, lisinopril

101
Q

Enalapril

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

102
Q

Benazepril

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

103
Q

Lisinopril

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

104
Q

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

A

Class of drugs that block angiotensin II from its receptor.

Does not affect the metabolism of bradykinin

ARBs can decrease proteinuria
promote vasodilation, vasodilation and reduction in plasma volume with a reduction in systolic blood pressure

Side effects: similar side effects as ACEi; avoided or cautiously used in patients with severe dehydration or azotemia.

e.g. Telmisartan, losartan

105
Q

Telmisartan

A

Angiotensin receptor blocker

106
Q

Calcium channel blockers

A

decrease calcium influx into cardiac tissues (antiarrhythmic properties) and vascular smooth muscles (antihypertensive properties)

May cause reflex bradycardia

Other side effects could include weakness, lethargy, decreased appetite

CCBs promote preferential afferent arteriolar dilation over the efferent arteriole, which increases intraglomerular pressure, which could damage the glomerulus and worsen proteinuria.

107
Q

Amlodipine

A

Belongs to the dihydropyridines family

Calcium channel blocker

Relative selectivity for vascular smooth muscles so promotes vasorelaxation and reduces systemic vascular resistance

An associated decrease in blood pressure may trigger reflex tachycardia.

First-line antihypertensive of choice for managing SHT in cats

108
Q

Phentolamine

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist

used in hypertensive crisis, specifically as rescue therapy during pheochromocytoma surgery

109
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist

commonly used to stabilize patients with pheochromocytoma prior to surgical intervention

110
Q

Vasopressor

A

Any drug specifically used to cause constriction to blood vessels
increase cardiac afterload, produce vasoconstriction, increase vasomotor tone and systemic vascular resistance
most common pathway is alpha 1 adrenergic agonism

111
Q

positive inotrope

A

Any drug specifically used to increase cardiac contractility
most common pathway to achieve this is beta 1 adrenergic agonistm

112
Q

Negative inotrope

A

decrease cardiac contractility

113
Q

Dopamine

A

Catecholamine and sympathomimetic

Primary receptors: dopaminergic, beta-1 and alpha 1 adrenergic agonist

different doses = different effects

Low range - stimulate urine production in oliguiric or anuric AKI

Intermediate range: predominantly positive inotropic effects

High doses: vasoconstriction/increase in vascular resistance

Effects: increases renal blood flow
improves inotropy
increases heart rate
increases systemic vascular resistance
increases blood pressure
increases cardiac out put

Deliver as a CRI

Side effect: arrhythmias, tachycardia, hypertension

Continuous ECG, BP monitoring recommended

114
Q

Dobutamine

A

Sympathomimetic

receptors: Beta-1 and Adrenergic-2 agonist

Effects: improves inotropy
+/- increase in heart rate
Increase in cardiac output
+/- increase in blood pressure
decrease systemic vascular resistance

Deliver as a CRI

Side effects: arrhythmias, tachycardia, hypertension, bradycardia

Monitoring: ECG/BP continuous

115
Q

Norepinephrine

A

catecholamine and sympathomimetic

Receptors: Alpha-1 and beta 1 adrenergic agonist

Effects: increase in inotropy
decrease in heart rate
increase in systemic vascular resistance
increase in blood pressure

Deliver as a CRI

Side effects: arrhythmias, hypertension, bradycardia, excessive vasoconstriction

116
Q

Epinephrine

A

Catecholamine

Receptors: alpha 1 and beta 1 adrenergic agonist

Lower doses have predominantly beta agonist effect: vasodilation, bronchodilation, increased cardiac contractility and cardiac output, increased heart rate

higher doses: more alpha 1 adrenergic effects: vasoconstriction

Used to treat anaphylaxis

Side effects: arrhythmia

Monitoring: continuous ECG/BP

Deliver as IV bolus, CRI, IM or intratracheally

117
Q

Phenylephrine

A

sympathomimetic

receptor: alpha-1 adrenergic agonist

Effects: decrease in heart rate
increase in systemic vascular resistance (marked vasoconstriction) increase in blood pressure

May improve blood pressure, but the increase in cardiac afterload may decrease stroke volume and cardiac output

Deliver as a bolus or CRI

Side effects: arrhythmia, hypertension, bradycardia, excessive vasoconstriction

118
Q

Ephedrine

A

Sympathomimetic

receptors: beta-1 agonist, and alpha 1 adrenergic agonist

effects: increase inotropy
increase in blood pressure
increase in cardiac output
+/- Heart rate
increase in systemic vascular resistance

deliver as a bolus (short duration of effect) or CRI

Side Effects: arrhythmias, tachyphylaxis (reduced sensitivity after repeated administration), hypertension, bradycardia, tachycardia

119
Q

Vasopressin

receptors?
Effects?
Delivery method?
side effects?

A

Non-adrenergic hormone AKA anti-diuretic hormone

receptors: V1 vasopressin Agonist

effects: increase systemic vascular resistance
increase blood pressure

Increase in cardiac afterload may decrease stroke volume and cardiac output, resulting in decrease oxygen delivery to tissue

Alternative or conjunctive therapy to epinephrine in CPCR

More effective than epinephrine when patient in acidosis.

deliver as a bolus or CRI

Side effects: arrhythmias, hypertension, bradycardia, excessive vasoconstriction

120
Q

What stimulates the release of vasopressin?

by which mechanisms?

A
  • increases in plasma osmolality - central chemoreceptors detect systemic osmolality. Peripheral chemoreceptors in mesenteric and portal veins detect changes in osmolality of ingesta. Afferent impulses ascend via vagus nerve to stimulate vasopressin release. Plasma tonicity sened by hypothalamus to stimulate more vasopressin release.
  • decreases in blood pressure - shifts osmolality. Baroreceptors in left atrium, aortic arch and carotid sinus sense drops in blood pressure and circulating blood volume. Allows for release of disinhibition of vasopressin release.
  • drop in circulating blood volume
121
Q

Vasopressin release can be inhibited by which drugs?

A

glucocorticoids
low dose opioids
atrial natriuretic factor
GABA neurotransmitter

122
Q

Vasopressin receptors:
V1 receptor

location and mechanism of action

A

found primarily on smooth muscle cells

Activation of voltage gated calcium channels, increases intracellular calcium levels allowing for vasoconstriction.

V1-R in platelets - facilitates thrombosis because of intracellular calcium

V1-R in kidneys decrease blood flow to inner medulla and limit anti-diuretic effects; selective cause contraction of efferent arterials to increase GFR

There are species variations in V1R locations.

123
Q

Vasopressin receptors:
V2 receptor

location and mechanism of action

A

Found primarily on basolateral membrane of distal tubule and principle cells of cortical and medullary rental collecting duct

triggers fusion of aquaporins with plasma membrane of collecting duct –> increasing water absorption.

stimulates release of platelets from bone marrow and enhances release of Von Willebrand’s factor and Factor VIII from endothelial cells

124
Q

Role of vasopressin in homeostasis

A

regulating fast shuttling of aquaporin-2 to cell surface
stimulates synthesis of RNA encoding aquaporin 2

hereditary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus have V2-R gene mutations

125
Q

Vasopressin metabolism and excretion

A

half life is 24 minutes
cleared by renal excretion and metabolized by tissue peptidases

126
Q

Adverse effects of Vasopressin

A

contraction of bladder and gallbladder smooth muscles
increase peristalsis
decrease in gastric secretions
increase in GI sphincter pressure

Local irritation at injection site.
If extravasated, may cause skin necrosis

May increase liver enzymes and bilirubin levels
decrease platelet count
hyponatremia
anaphylaxis/urticaria
bronchospams
abdominal pain
hematuria

water intoxication reported with high dose treatment of diabetes

127
Q

Terlipressin

A

selective for V1R
prolong duration - 6 hours half life
Used to manage hemorrhagic gastroenteritis

increase adverse effects - peripheral cyanosis/ischemia (use with caution)

128
Q

Selepressin

A

V1R agonist

found to reduce risk of coronary ischemia
less adverse effects on mesenteric blood flow and gastric mucosal perfusion
effective substitute for maintaining MAP, reducing vascular leak, edema formation and shortening duration of shock.
Comparative study with norepi -> no improved outcome

129
Q

Desmopressin acetate

A

synthetic vasopressin
intranasal and injectable form
binds primarily to V2R
more potent antidiuretic and procoagulant

130
Q

define natriuresis

A

Sodium secretion in urine through the kidneys

natriuresis decreases concentration of sodium in blood and lowers blood volume because osmotic forces draw water out of circulation into urine.

131
Q

What is the natriuretic peptide system?

A

Hormones produced by cardial tissues to induce natriuresis, diuresis and vasocilation in response to stretch or stress of myocardial tissue.

natriuretic peptides counter regulate RAAS and SNS

132
Q

What are the two main hormones in the natriuretic peptide system?

A

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

133
Q

What are 3 factors that influcence natriuresis?

A

ventricular and atrial natriuretic peptides, calcitonin and aldosterone.

Aldosterone inhibits natriuresis

134
Q

Concentrations of ANP and BNP indicate what?

A

severity of cardiac disease

135
Q

What is Endothelin 1?

A

potent vasoconstrictior produced by the vascular endothelial cells in response to sheer stress, Angiotensin II and other various cytokines

136
Q

What are adverse side effects of Endothelin I?

A

it alters normal calcium cycling within muscle cells and is directly toxic to myocardiocytes.

137
Q

what is concentric hypertrophy?

A

cardiac remodeling in response to conditions causing pressure overload (increase afterload). The sarcomeres replicate in parallel increasing the thickness of ventricular walls

138
Q

What is essentric hypertrophy?

A

cardiac remodeling in response to volume overload where sarcomeres replicate in series, causing elongation of myocytes and dilation of ventricular chamers

139
Q

What are the consequences and limitations of concentric hypertrophy?

A

increased myocardial oxygen demands
endocardial ischemia
fibrosis
collagen disruptions
injury to small coronary vessels

140
Q

What are the conequences and limitations of eccentric hypertrophy?

A

myocardial wall stress
myocyte injury or necrosis
myocyte slippage

141
Q

What is the Frank-Starling mechanism?

A

In relation to myocyte stretch and contractility

Stroke volume will increase as the volume of the heart increases due to myocyte stretch, causing a more forceful systolic contraction.

142
Q

Consequence of heart disease on Frank-Starling principle

A

relationship of Frank starling principle is depressed as contractions are less vigorous with increase preload. This results in fluid retention and shortness of breath.

143
Q

What are three factors that affect ventricular compliance?

A
  1. thickness of ventricle walls
  2. changes in cytokeleton and extracellular matrix (eg. fibrosis decreases compliance).
  3. function of the pericardium (pericardial disease or effuction reduces ventricular distensibility).
144
Q
A
145
Q

What is the effect on diastole when there is myocardial ischemia?

A

During diastole, enery is required as movement of calcium back into sarcoplasmic reticulums uses ATP. Therefore, if there is myocardial ischemia or other energy deficiencies, active relaxation is delayed and early filling of ventricles is diminished.

Poor diastolic function results in decreased cardiac output.

146
Q

What are treatment options for diastolic dysfunction?

A

improving ventricular relaxation
increasing ventricular compliance
alleviating preexisitng pericardial disease

If pericardial disease is not a factor, treatment focus can be on reducing heart rate, supressing arrhythmias and alleviating congestions through diuretics and vasodilators.

147
Q

Does inotrops play a role in managing diastolic dysfunction?

A

No and may actually be deleterious.

148
Q

Assessing heart failure

A

Class A: overtly healthy - no risk or detectable evidence of cardiac disease but woud benefit from screening programs(e.g. Cavalier king charles, dobermans > 4 years, adult maine coons)

Class B: Diagnostic evidence of heart disease but no clinical signs.
> B1: Little to no radiographic /echocardiographic eveidence of cardiac enlargement or remodeling
> B2: significant radiographic/echocardiographic evidence of cardiac remodeling that indicates potential benefits from initiating medical interventions.

Class C: Aniamls with cardiac remodeling and current or historical clinical signs of heart failure

Class D: severe and debilitating signs of heart failure, even at rest

149
Q
A