Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Catecholamines

A

Augment arterial BP, contractility and cardiac output
They will not work without cortisol so may require glucocorticoid given simultaneously in the critically ill
Increase the metabolic O2 demand

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2
Q

Addressing hypotension

A
  1. Anticholinergic or reversal is a2
  2. Fluid bolus if Hypovolaemia
  3. Start dopamine CRI at pressor rates (lower rates will vasodilate)
  4. Give antiarrhthmics
  5. If no response to dopamine consider norepinephrine
  6. No response to catecholamines consider vasopressin and/or hydrocortisone
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3
Q

Dopamine

A

Precursor to epinephrine
B and A properties depending on dose (b at lower and a at higher)

Modest vasoconstriction and increase in BP

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4
Q

Dobutmaine

A

Synthetic analog to dopamine with primary b1 agonism
Moderately vasodilate and increases forward blood flow in the face of normal BP (increasing CO)

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5
Q

Ephedrine

A

Increases norepinephrine release from the SNS and is a bronchodilator
Modest decrease in HR whilst increasing CO, SVR and arterial BP
Can deplete norepinephrine stores

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6
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Primarily a agonism
Potent vasoconstriction to increase arterial BP
Will have varying affect on HR and CO depending on volume status
Used when ineffective to dopamine

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7
Q

Phenylephrine

A

A agonism only
Raises the BP after dopamine ruled ineffective

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8
Q

Vasopressin

A

Not technically a catecholamine but is a pure vasoconstrictor that may be useful if no response to catecholamines
Will increase SVR due to baroreceptor reflex in response to a decrease in HR/Vol

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9
Q

Epinephrine

A

Works on all receptors
Not usually a first choice unless CPR
Increases HR, SVR and CO
Increases arterial BP and pacemaker activity

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10
Q

Cardiovascular support drug choice

A
  1. Dopamine and/or dobutamine as increases heart rate and contractility and potentially CO. Modestly increases vasomotor tone; dopamine “pressure” and dobutamine “output”.
  2. Norepinephrine
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11
Q

Combining catecholamines does what?

A

Midway effects of both drugs I.e. increases in heart rate and BP without arrhythmia (norepinephrine and dopamine)

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12
Q

Which of vascular resistance and cardiac output is more powerful in determining arterial BP

A

Vascular resistance

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13
Q

Arterial vasomotor tone

A

Primary determinant of visceral and tissue perfusion

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14
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

Good thing unless affecting perfusion in which case dobutamine may be used to modestly vasodilate without affecting BP but improving the forward flow

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15
Q

Cortisol and catecholamines

A

The cardiovascular system doesn’t operate well without cortisol; low cortisol causes vasoparesis and impaired response to catecholamines (CIRCI/RAI) and so low dose hydrocortisone in the critically ill that aren’t responding to catecholamines will likely help improve catecholamine activity

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16
Q

What are some affects other than cardiovascular catecholamines can have

A

Increased glucose and lactate
Increased K uptake so Hypokalaemia
Increasing metabolic O2 demand
Impaired PLT

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17
Q

Vasopressin

A

Or known as ADH or AVP
Normally released in response to an increase in osmolality, decreased blood volume or decreased BP
G-coupled receptors that primarily induce vasoconstriction
Inhibited by glucocorticoids, opiates, natriuretic factors and GABA

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18
Q

V1 receptors

A

Smooth muscles
Vasoconstriction (vasodilation at cerebral, renal, pulmonary and mesenteric vessels)

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19
Q

V2 receptors

A

Renal collecting ducts, endothelial cells, platelets and vascular endothelium
Increased water permeability
Increased vWF release
Stimulation of aggregation
Vasodilation

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20
Q

V3 receptors

A

Posterior pituitary
ACTH release

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21
Q

Oxytocin (vasopressin receptor)

A

Mammary gland, uterus, GIT and endothelium
Contraction
Vasodilation

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22
Q

In vitro vasopressin

A

More potent vasoconstrictor compared to norepinephrine, angiotensin II, phenylephrine

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23
Q

Apart from vaso effects what is AVP involved in

A

Sleep
Memory
Temperature regulation
ACTH release

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24
Q

Uses of vasopressin

A

CPR
Vasodilatory shock
Central diabetes insipidus (desmopressin) - increased ADH action
vWD (desmopressin)
GI disease
Haemorrhagic shock

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25
Side effects of vasopressin
Local irritation Tissue necrosis Increased liver and TBil enzymes Reduced platelets Low sodium Anaphylaxis Bronchospasm Water intoxication
26
What BP would warrant immediate therapy with anithypertensives
180/120(>140)
27
Diseases that cause hypertension that warrant therapy
Cushings Hepatic diseases DM Chromocytomas EPO Anaemia
28
ACE Inhibitors
Inhibit the conversion of ATI > ATII increasing bradykinin and reducing plasma volume They induce arterial and veno dilation Reduce aldosterone release so sodium and water excretion increased Used for all forms of hypertension but can reduce it too much I.e. enalipril, benazipril, ramipril and lisonopril
29
ATII receptor blockers
May be a safer antihyprtensive for those experiencing renal insufficiency Dose-dependant fall in BP with minimal effects on HR and CO I.e. Losartan, irbesartan, telmisartan
30
Adrenergic receptor antagonists
Block A and/or B I.e. propranolol, atenolol, prazosin B blockade = decreased renin, decreased HR, decreased adrenergy and decreased contractility A blockade = antagonise contriction Used when other anti hypertensives fail or in tachydysrhythmias, may also decrease bladder sphincter tone
31
Aldosterone blockers
I.e spironalactone DCT and collecting ducts and decrease sodium reabsorption and decrease K excretion Weak diuretic effect If used with other hypertensives may induce renal insufficiency
32
Ca blockers
I.e. amlodipine, diltiazem Reduce the Ca influx into smooth muscle cells reduces peripheral VR Used in hypertensive crisis (arterial vasodilators may also be preferable) #1 choice in CKD Tachycardia, constipation, vomiting and weakness not uncommon
33
Arteriolar vasodilators
Usually used in hypertensive crisis because they are very fast acting Dilate arteries and relax resistance I.e. hydralazine, sodium nitroprusside and fenoldopam
34
Hypertensive emergency treatment
Aim to reduce BP 25% in first hour Aim to reduce BP to 160/110-100 in the next 2-6h I.e. sodium nitroprusside, hydralazine (may elect amlopidine) * ischaemia will occur if done too rapidly
35
Diuretics
Correct water and electrolyte excess Act on the nephron to block the reabsorption of water and solute I.e. Na increasing there urinary excretion Kidneys: regulate the absorption and excretion of water and solutes and rely on ADH to do so
36
ADH requires
A functional tubular system otherwise there is inappropriate increase in ADH that requires therapeutic diuretics for water and solute excretion
37
Na and water in the nephron and how this dictates diuretic therapy
Na highest in the PCT and LOH therefore diuretics such as mannitol, acetazolamide and furosemide better for dieresis and spironalactone and thiazides weaker as act on the more distal convoluted tubule area
38
Mannitol (diuretic)
Osmotic diuretic that increases the osmolality of the ECF so fluid moves into this compartment and into IVS Freely filtered by the glomerulus No tubular reabsorption Increasing fluid dieresis Decrease renal vascular resistance Decreases cerebral oedema 0.25-1g/kg
39
Acetazolamide/CA inhibitor
Decreases proximal reabsorption resulting in a self-limiting metabolic acidosis Increases distal Na reabsorption Used in glaucoma
40
Furosemide/loop diuretic
Inhibits Na-K-Cl at the loop of Henle Marked natriuesis and dieresis and causes an osmotic gradient shift Increases renal O2 parenchymal supply and decreases renal resistance Increases ECF fluid removal Used in CHF and fluid overload as well as Oliguria
41
Aquaretics
Act in V2 receptors to promote solute free water clearance Treat FW retention in hypervolaemic and hyponateaemic patients (HF, liver failure, SIADH)
42
Diuretic therapy in renal disease
I.e. mannitol or furosemide Converts Oliguria Will increase dieresis but not improve renal function
43
Diuretic therapy in heart failure
Combination of LOH and DCT diuretics particularly if not fully responsive to furosemide alone
44
Diuretic use in liver failure
Try to reduce portal hypertension and oedema
45
Common causes of GUE and treatment options
Anoxia to the gastrointestinal mucosa such as in hypovolaemic shock and drugs such as NSAIDS. Stress also (SIRS, masses etc) H2RA, PPI, prostaglandin analogs are some options for treatment
46
H2RA
Cimeditine, ranitidine Work at gastric parietal cells and compete for gastric acid secretion > reduce gastric acid secretion P450 metabolism Work rapidly
47
PPI
Irreversible inhibit H-K ATP in luminal parietal cells > stopping gastric secretion and reducing gastric reflux and duodenal ulcers I.e. omeprazole, pantoprazole, esomeprazole First pass metabolism Peak effect after 2-5 days More effective than H2RA
48
Sucralfate
Viscous and binds tightly to epithelial cells creating a physical barrier whilst adhered to gastric ulcer or erosion Signals PG to promote mucosal repair Can absorb some drugs I.e. enro
49
Misoprostal
PG analog that has mucosal protective and antacid properties Acts on parietal cells to reduce gastric acid Helpful in NSAID toxicity
50
Effects of increasing gut pH
More susceptible to bacterial infections
51
Neurokinin-1 antagonist
Maropitant Reduces substance P in CNS and NK-1 in the gut Must be over 11 weeks to avoid bone marrow suppression Good for visceral pain First-pass metabolism in the liver
52
5HT3 antagonists
Ondanserron, granisetron, dolasteron Block serotonin receptors (5HT3) both peripherally and centrally to reduce vomiting Liver metabolism Eliminated in urine and bile
53
Metoclopramide
Both antidopaminergic and 5HT3 blocker reducing nausea and vomiting (block CRTZ) Less effective in cats as lower dopaminergic receptors Gastric prokinetic when given as CRI (increases transit time and reduces reflux) * don’t give if GI obstruction
54
Promazine derivatives in vomiting patients
Centrally act I.e. chlorpromazine and acepromazine Travel sickness Cardiovascular changes so caution to be used Avoid if substantial liver disease
55
Best prokinetic
Cisapride as stronger effects than most other prokinetics I.e. metoclopramide and erythromycin Increases gastric emptying Increases lower oesophageal sphincter tone Not helpful in megaoesophagus as this is striated muscle Good for idiopathic constipation
56
Cholinomimetics as prokinetics
Bethanechol/ranitidine Inhibit ACh Increase colonic motility and gastric emptying
57
Erythromycin
Powerful prokinetic working on motilin receptors Increases lower oesophageal sphincter tone to reduce reflux Increases lower bowel peristalsis ‘Gastric hunger’
58
Opioids
Have little cardiovascular effects when given within therapeutic range Have substantial effects on the respiratory system so care to be taken (pontine and medullary centres) Stereospecific receptor binding throughout CNS and the peripheral system Metabolised by the liver and excreted by the kidneys Some can induce an excitatory response particularly if given with MAOIS and other antidepressants Most increase ADH so cause urine retention Decrease GI motility
59
Morphine, meripidine and methadone can..
Release histamine inducing vasodilation and bronchoconstriction
60
Strongest and weakest analgesic opioids
Fentanyl/remifentanil = strongest Butorphanol = weakest
61
Morphine
Mu opioid agonist Sedation and analgesia May cause histamine release, vomiting, diarrhoea, bradycardia Lasts 4-6h
62
Methadone
Similar to morphine Some NMDA activity Sedation & analgesia Lasts 4-6h
63
Fentanyl/remifentanil
Use to treat severe pain Rapid onset and short duration May induce dysphoria Available in transdermal patches
64
Butorphanol
Kappa agonist Mild pain relief but good sedation Lasts 1-2h Partial mu reversal Ceiling effect
65
Buprenorphine
Partial agonist Mild to moderate pain Longer DOA 8-12h
66
Benzodiazepines
Used as first line anticonvulsants in most patients unless HE/PSS Works on inhibitory GABA receptors to potentialities GABA and may antagonise serotonin Sedation, hypnosis, amnesia, anticonvulsant, skeletal muscle relaxation Diazepam highly protein bound whilst midazolam is water soluble Effects from sedative to excitatory and best given with an opioid to combat this Midazolam at 0.005-0.4mg/kg may stimulate the appetite
67
A2 agonists
Used for sedation and analgesia Decrease autonomic responses by reducing norepinephrine release Inhibit ADH/insulin (Diuresis and increased glucose) Potentiate opioid analgesia even at low doses Can decrease anaesthetic drug requirements <80% Cardiovascular response is biphasic Arrhythmia associate with bradycardia and reduced CO warrants reversal and +- anticholinergic
68
A2 agonist biphasic response
Initially increased BP and SVR, decrease HR and CO Then… decreased BP, HR and CO may remain reduced, variable SVR. * watch whole body perfusion, core organs usually remain perfused but other tissues may not
69
Drugs eliminated via what body system are subject to enterohepatic recycling? a. Renal b. Hepatic c. Urinary d. Biliary
D
70
Which of the following drugs is an example of an osmotic diuretic? a. Furosemide b. Mannitol c. Atropine d. Vasopressin
B
71
Which of the following drugs is the best choice for a patient in congestive heart failure with hypotension? a. Dopamine b. Epinephrine c. Dobutamine d. Norepinephrine
C
72
Mycophenolate, ciclosporin, leflunomide, and azothiaprine are examples of what type of drug? a. Immunosuppressive agents b. Antifungals c. Macrolides d. Calcium channel blockers
A
73
What is the movement of a drug from the site of administration to the circulatory system called? a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Metabolism d. Elimination
A
74
Which process is inefficient in the feline, which leads to their reduced ability to metabolize NSAIDs? a. P450 b. Glucuronidation c. Sulfonation d. Reduction
B
75
In the absence of an initial loading dose, a CRI will not reach steady-state plasma concentrations for how long? a. One hour b. One half-life c. 3–5 hours d. 3–5 half-lives
D
76
A drug that binds to a receptor and blocks its response is known as what? a. Agonist b. Antagonist c. Partial agonist d. Mixed agonist/antagonist
B
77
Which antiemetic is known to inhibit substance P in the vomiting center in the brain? a. Metoclopramide b. Ondansetron c. Chlorpromazine d. Maropitant
D
78
Which of the following would be considered a potassium-sparing diuretic? a. Spironolactone b. Furosemide c. Mannitol d. Torsemide
A