Environmental & toxicological emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

The development of holes in the cellular membrane associated with electrical injury is called:
a. arcing
b. thermal injury
c. electroporation
d. ulceration

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In the feline, what is responsible for noticing the body’s abnormal position during a fall?
a. Central nervous system
b. Vestibular system
c. Limbic system
d. Peripheral nervous system

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common cause of clinical signs of dry drowning?
a. Diaphragmatic spasm
b. Tachypnea
c. Aspiration
d. Laryngospasm

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The bite from which venomous species leaves a “bullseye” around a central necrotic area?
a. Black widow spider
b. Brown recluse spider
c. Coral snake
d. Water moccasin

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rewarming shock can occur when a patient experiences which of the following?
a. Decreased metabolism once warmed
b. Too fast an increase in core body temperature
c. Vasodilation due to applied heat
d. Fluid shift to the gastrointestinal tract

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is most beneficial when treating a patient with envenomation from a rattlesnake?
a. Glucocorticoids
b. Antibiotics
c. Antihistamines
d. Antivenom

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hypoxemia associated with salt water drowning occurs as a result of which process?
a. Tachypnea
b. Interference of normal gas exchange
c. Apnea
d. Atelectasis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patients that experience electrocution from low voltage currents (A/C) will most likely experience which cardiac conduction disturbance?
a. Asystole
b. Premature ventricular complexes
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Ventricular fibrillation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is true regarding high rise syndrome?
a. It is not a problem with cats because their PNS helps them land on their feet
b. The injuries occur from vertical deceleration trauma
c. There is less trauma in falls from heights of 7–10 stories
d. It is always fatal, regardless of treatment

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the primary method for cooling an awake canine or feline?
a. Evaporation
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. Convection

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drug class is apomorphine?
a. Dopaminergic antagonist
b. Dopaminergic agonist
c. Alpha antagonist
d. Alpha agonist antagonist

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following drugs would not be used to reduce calcium levels in a patient with cholecalciferol toxicity?
a. Furosemide
b. Pamidronate
c. Calcitonin
d. Calcitriol

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ethylene glycol toxicity results in which metabolic disturbance?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following can be helpful when attempting to induce vomiting in a case of toxin ingestion?
a. Feeding the patient a small meal
b. Administering hydrogen peroxide
c. Walking the patient around
d. Administering an antiemetic

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Liver damage, hemolysis, methemoglobinemia, and KCS can all occur as a result of the ingestion of which agent?
a. Ethylene glycol
b. Acetaminophen
c. Organophosphates
d. Amitraz

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which toxin initially results in gastrointestinal signs, then can progress to neurological signs, and may cause basophilic stippling?
a. Lilies
b. Strychnine
c. Bromethalin
d. Lead

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

nducing emesis results in the expulsion of approximately what percentage of stomach contents?
a. 20–40%
b. 40–60%
c. 60–80%
d. 80–100%

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient ingesting which toxin would not be expected to benefit from the administration of ILE?
a. Diltiazem
b. Moxidectin
c. Bupivacaine
d. Xylitol

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which clotting factors are affected when a toxic amount of a vitamin K1 antagonist rodenticide is ingested?
a. II, VII, IX, X
b. I, II, V, VII
c. VIII, IX, X, XI
d. II, VI, X, XII

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Activated charcoal administration after ingestion of which toxin would not be beneficial?
a. Chocolate
b. Bromethalin
c. Xylitol
d. Ibuprofen

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Activated charcoal administration after ingestion of which toxin would not be beneficial?
a. Chocolate
b. Bromethalin
c. Xylitol
d. Ibuprofen

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Primary treatment for toxin exposure

A

Decontamination and detoxification and initiating supportive care: gastroprotectants, hepatoprotectants, neurological support, IVFT, ILE, antidotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ILE treatment

A

Initial 1.5-4ml/kg over 5min then 0.25ml/kg/min for 1 hour.
If repeat doses are required 0.5ml/kg/hr until improvement of clinical signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ILE indications

A

Can be used as nutritional support
Lipophilic drug toxicoses (macrolytic lactones, lidocaine, pyrethrums, Ca channel blockers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Decontamination options

A

Emesis
Gastric lavage
Forced dieresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Toxins warranting gastric lavage

A

Metaldehyde
Strychnine
Ca blockers
Baclofen
B-blockers
Macrolytic lactones
Organophosphate/carbamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Activated charcoal doses

A
  1. 5g/kg with cathartic I.e. sorbitol
  2. Repeated doses 1-2g/kg without cathartic q4-6 for 24h (toxins that undergo enterohepatic recirculation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Contraindications to activated charcoal

A

Drugs that don’t readily bind to AC
Endoscopy
GI obstruction/haemorrhage/perforation
Recent surgery
Late stage presentation with clinical signs
Dehydration/hypovolaemic shock
Ileus
Compromised airway etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cathartics

A

Increase transit time to increase toxin clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

Drug-induced excessive serotonergic agonism resulting in altered mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities and autonomic instability. Usually occurs when two serotonergic drugs given together and is fatal when SSRI + MAOI given together.

30
Q

Clinical signs of serotonin syndrome

A

Mild; tremors, diarrhoea
Severe; neuromuscular rigidity, delirium & severe hyperthermia

Other: arrhythmias, tachycardia, mydriasis, increased bowel sounds, agitation, DIC, rhabdomyolysis

31
Q

Therapeutic and toxic ranges for SSRI, MAOIs and TCA

A

Therapeutic 2-4mg/kg however toxicosis can occur 0.3-50mg/kg

32
Q

Approach to OD of SSRI, MAOIs, TCA

A
  1. Decontamination (emetics, gastric lavage, AC)
  2. Address ABC’s
  3. Repeat AC q6
  4. IVFT but dieresis won’t enhance excretion (highly protein bound)
  5. Seizure control
  6. Intensive supportive care
  7. Chlorpromazine or cyproheptadine
33
Q

Carbon monoxide

A

Non-irritant gas that has 230-270X affinity for Hg compared to O2 leading to severe anaemic hypoxia from incomplete combustion of carbon containing materials > carbonmonoxide

34
Q

Hydrogen cyanide

A

Burning of wools, silks etc and is a non-irritant gas that induces histotoxic anaemia interfering with the utilisation of O2

35
Q

Thermal injury distal to the larynx

A

Mucosal oedema
Ulceration
Erosion

  • lead to URT obstruction
36
Q

Airway damage and obstruction in smoke inhalation

A

Alveolar Atelectasis > reduced lung compliance due surfactant loss and/or pulmonary oedema and occurs within about 24h of injury > ARDS

Mucosal sloughing
Bronchial disease
Bronchoconstriction
Bacterial pneumonia

37
Q

PaO2 and SpO2 with smoke inhalation

A

May remain normal <100% but as progresses may drop

38
Q

Treatment of smoke inhalation

A

1) oxygen - reduces HL of carbon monoxide to 26-148min (normally 250min)
2) sodium nitrite - if cyanide followed by sodium thiosulfate
3) airway management - tracheostomy, bronchodilator’s, NAC, nebulise
4) opioids/sedatives
5) mechanical ventilation
6) IVFT - higher fluid requirements but avoid overload
7) AB only if indicated

39
Q

Types of heat loss

A

Convection
Conduction
Radiation
Evaporative

40
Q

Hypothermia

A

End result of an animals inability to maintain thermoregulatory homeostasis due to excessive heat loss, decreased heat production or disruption of normal thermoregulatory functions

41
Q

Mild, moderate and severe hypothermia

A

Mild; 32-37 - shivering, ataxia, vasoconstriction
Moderate; 28-32 - decreased consciousness, hypotension, +- shivering
Severe; <28 - loss of shivering, dysrhythmias, profound CNS deficits

42
Q

Thermostat of the body

A

Hypothalamus and also heat senses in skin and deep tissue

43
Q

Normal body heat production

A

Mostly through chemical metabolism of energy substrates in cells

44
Q

Shivering

A

Involuntary, oscillating skeletal muscle activity that can increase metabolic rate by 4-10X and is fuelled by carbohydrate oxidation (or protein and lipid when glycogenesis depleted)

45
Q

How does hypothermia affect the heart

A

Vasoconstriction
Eventually decreased heart rate and blood pressure
Increased CVP
Decreased diastolic and increased systolic pressure
Lowered action potential > dysrhythmias (vfib if severe) - prolonged PR and wide QRS

46
Q

How does hypothermia affect the respiratory system

A

Decreased rate and depth due to reduced sensitivity to drops in CO2 > VQ mismatch due to bronchodilation
Pulmonary tissue injury
O2 dissociation disturbances
Loss of protective mechanisms
Decreased ciliary clearance > risk of aspiration pneumonia
Apnoea
NCPO

47
Q

How does hypothermia affect the neurological system

A

Depressed mental status
Reduced CBF (6-10% per 1 degree when temp <30)
Increased synovial fluid viscosity
Muscle rigidity when severe

48
Q

How does hypothermia affect haemostasis

A

Decrease PLT aggregation
Increases thromboxane
Decreased vWF
Decreased activity of clotting factors > delayed clot formation
Increased PT/aPTT
+- DIC

49
Q

How does hypothermia affect the renal system

A

Initially diuresis but then low GFR and renal tubular dysfunction > loss of electrolytes, increased glucose due to decreased insulin sensitivity, reduced immune function

50
Q

Passive v. Active warming strategies

A

Passive warming involves the patient augmenting there own heat I.e. blankets where active rewarming is via an exogenous source such as hair huggers, fluid warming and lavage.
Mild to moderate hypothermia uses passive strategies and +- active warming where severe requires active warming strategies

51
Q

Rewarming rates

A

1.4 first hour then approx. 2/hr for second hour onwards

  • remove exogenous cooling sources
  • safely raise temp 0.5-2 per hour
52
Q

Neuroprotective benefits of therapeutic hypothermia

A

Prevents apoptosis
Decreases destructive enzymes
Suppresses free radicals
Decreases cerebral O2 demand

53
Q

Hallmark of heat stroke

A

CNS abnormalities associated with multiple organ failure

54
Q

Basic pathophysiology of heat stroke

A

Warm, humid environment +- excercise > dissipative heat strategies overwhelmed by heat production > CBT rises driving failure of thermoregulation, exaggerated acute-phase response and altered heat shock proteins > pro inflammatory and anti inflammatory mediators release > activation of leukocytes triggering SIRS and coagulation > severe endothelial injury, MODS, DIC

55
Q

General presentation of a patient suffering heat stroke

A

Hyperdynamic state: tachycardia, hyperaemia, tachypnoea, weak pulse, vomiting and diarrhoea +- arrhythmias
Alert to comatose with CNS abnormalities

56
Q

Findings of work up in heat stroke

A

Reduced oculocephalic reflexes, cerebral oedema or haemorrhage
AKI
Hepatic encephalopathy
Hypoglycaemia
Coagulopathic
Haemoconcentrated
DIC

57
Q

Treatment of heat stroke

A
  1. Active cooling to 39.4 (avoid alcohols, ice packs)
  2. Shock fluids +- colloids (avoid excessive fluids)
  3. Blood products I.e. FFP
  4. Positive inotropes and vasopressors
  5. Oxygen
  6. Monitor CNS signs (TBI strategies)
  7. Support and monitor UOP
  8. Split products
  9. GI protectants
58
Q

Electrocution

A

Disturbs electrophysical activity causing muscle spasms, arrhythmias, loss of consciousness, arrest. There is direct cellular injury through electroporation.

59
Q

Brief pathophysiology of electrical shock

A

Electrical current > heat > superheated ICF & ECF > coagulation of tissue proteins, small vessel thrombosis and degenerative arterial vessel changes > necrosis to affected tissue and ischaemia to surrounding tissues > clinical manifestations.

Clinical manifestations: ventricular arrhythmias, superficial to full thickness burns, respiratory distress (oedema, haemorrhage), sudden death

60
Q

Low energy v. High energy electrical shock

A

Low energy into high resistance tissue (dry skin) = less shock
High energy into low resistance tissue (wet skin) = more shock

61
Q

Worst electrical shock

A

Alternating currents due to potential increased exposure and shocks of high voltage also

  • muscle contractions for alternating currents prevent release from source so high exposure
62
Q

Cardiac arrhythmias in electrical shock

A

Vfib - low voltage
Asystole - high voltage
If survive ventricular arrhythmias noted

63
Q

Treatment of electrical shock

A
  1. Remove safely from electrical source
  2. Treat clinical manifestations
  3. +- CPR
  4. Strictly controlled IVFT
  5. oxygen +- bronchodilators
  6. Burn management
  7. Pain relief
64
Q

Drowning

A

Only 10% do not aspirate water; drowning results in hypoxaemia, surfactant loss (Atelectasis, intrapulmonary shunt) and those that aspirate <22ml/kg more likely to survive

65
Q

Neurological abnormalities in drowning’s

A

Due to hypoxic brain injury and depends on duration of hypoxia and extent of injury

66
Q

What drowning patients have increased chance of survival and why

A

Those that are submerged in water <5 degrees and this is due to activation of the diving reflex and reduced metabolic demand.

  • diving reflex = trigeminal nerve signal to the CNS > lowers HR, Increases BP and shunts blood to coronary and cerebral circulation
67
Q

Treatment of drowning

A

CPR
Improve tissue oxygenation
Normalise acid-base
Stabilise respiratory, cardiovascular and neurological systems
Mechanical ventilation commonly needed (ARDS not uncommon)
BAL and AB’s
IVFT
Mannitol
Pro gastric tube to remove fluid from stomach

68
Q

Air embolism

A

Almost always iatrogenic from IV injection and the size, rate and patient status all contribute to the severity
Small - may be absorbed by the tissues
Massive - lodge in gravity dependent locations such as the R atrium and pulmonary artery and may cause complete obstruction of blood flow

69
Q

Air embolism tolerance in patients

A

0.35ml/kg/min
About 2ml/1kg will have detrimental effects

70
Q

Which of nitrogen and CO2 is more severe in air embolism

71
Q

Signs of air embolism

A

Rapid drop in CO2
Mill wheel murmur (harsh, churning)
Tachypnoea and hypoxaemia
Physiological shunting

72
Q

Air embolism in laparoscopy

A

Avoid inflating above 15mmHg
Occurs when pressure between intravascular pressure and venous collapse

73
Q

Treatment of air embolism

A

Prevent further air entrapment
Provide 100% O2
Head down, dorsal recumbency
Manual embolus reduction
+- HBOT
+- heparin