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Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the S/Es of rifampicin?

A

Orange bodily fluids, rash, hepatotoxicity, drug interactions

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2
Q

What are the S/Es of isoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, hepatotoxicity

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3
Q

What are the S/Es of pyrazinamide?

A

Arthralgia, gout, hepatotoxicity, nausea

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4
Q

What are the S/Es of ethambutol?

A

Optic neuritis, rash

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5
Q

What drugs can cause urinary retention?

A 
Amitriptyline
Anticholinergics
Opioids
NSAIDs
Disopyramide
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6
Q

How is beta-blocker OD corrected?

A

Atropine –> in resistant cases, glucagon may be used

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7
Q

How is ethylene glycol and methanol OD corrected?

A

Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol –> in refractory cases haemodialysis may be used

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8
Q

How is cyanide poisoning treated?

A

Hydroxocobalamin

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9
Q

How is lead poisoning treated?

A

Dimercaprol

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10
Q

How is iron poisoning treated?

A

Desferrioxamine

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11
Q

How is severe lithium toxicity treated?

A

Haemodialysis

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12
Q

How is cocaine toxicity managed?

A

BZDs in the main, if chest pain develops, BZDs + GTN, then if MI develops PPCI. In HTN = BZD + nitroprusside

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13
Q

What are the criteria for liver transplantation as a result of paracetamol-induced liver failure?

A

Arterial pH < 7.3, 24 hours after ingestion

Or all of the following:
Prothrombin time > 100 seconds
Creatinine > 300 µmol/l
Grade III or IV encephalopathy

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14
Q

Which antibiotics can lower the seizure threshold in epilepsy?

A

Quinolones - e.g. ciprofloxacin and levofloaxacin

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15
Q

How is tricyclic antidepressant OD managed?

A

IV bicarbonate, mainly to reduce the risk of seizures

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16
Q

Which drugs can cause lung fibrosis?

A

Amiodarone
Cytotoxic agents - busulphan, bleomycin
Anti-rheumatoid drugs: methotrexate, sulfasalazine
nitrofurantoin
Ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists - bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide

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17
Q

With what drugs does allopurinol interact?

A

Azathioprine - excessive myelosuppression = increased risk of neutropenic sepsis

Cyclophosphamide = marrow toxicity

Theophylline = increased theophylline plasma concentration

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18
Q

Patients with which syndrome may take allopurinol for life?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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19
Q

When should allopurinol be offered to patients?

A

After their first attack of gout, in particular for patients whom have:
>= 2 attacks in 12 months
Tophi
Renal disease
Uric acid renal stones
Prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics

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20
Q

Which Abx causes a rash when given when a pt has mono?

A

Amoxicillin

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21
Q

Which drugs can precipitate digoxin toxicity?

A 
Amiodarone
Quinidine
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Spironolactone 
Ciclosporin
Also drugs which cause hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics
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22
Q

What are the features of ecstasy poisoning?

A

Neurological - agitation, anxiety, confusion, ataxia
Cardiovascular - tachycardia, hypertension
Hyponatraemia
Hyperthermia
Rhabdomyolysis

23
Q

Which drugs can cause cataracts?

24
Q

Which drugs can cause corneal opacities?

A

Amiodarone

Indomethacin

25
Which drugs can cause optic neuritis?
Amiodarone Metronidazole Ethambutol
26
Which drugs can cause retinopathy?
Chloroquine | Quinine
27
Which drugs can cause thrombocytopenia?
Quinine Abciximab NSAIDs Furosemide Antibiotics - penicillins, sulphonamides, rifampicin Anticonvulsants - carbamazepine, valproate Heparin
28
Which drug can cause a yellow-green change to vision?
Digoxin
29
Which drug can cause a blue tinge to vision?
Sildenafil
30
Which medications can exacerbate heart failure?
Pioglitazone Verapamil NSAIDs/glucocorticoids Flecainide (Class I arrhythmic)
31
What are the enzyme inhibitors?
``` Ciprofloxacin Erythromycin Isoniazid Cimetidine Omeprazole Amiodarone Allopurinol Ketoconazole Fluconazole SSRIs Ritonavir Dodium valproate Acute alcohol intake Quinupristin ```
32
In which patients is diclofenac contraindicated?
Ischaemic heart disease Peripheral arterial disease Cerebrovascular disease Congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV)
33
Which BP drug is most likely to precipitate gout?
Bendroflumethiazide
34
What are the side effects of carbamazepine?
``` Aplastic anaemia Haemolytic anaemia Eosinophilia Leukopenia Thrombocytopenia ```
35
What is amiodarone Rx'd for and what is a side effect?
``` May be Rx'd in AF Can cause S/Es with the mnemonic SLEPT: S - skin pigmentation/sensitivity L - liver dysfunction E - eye changes P - pulmonary dysfunction T - thyroid dysfunction ```
36
What blood monitoring is required for amiodarone, and how often?
TFTs/LFTs/U&Es | 6 months
37
What blood monitoring is required for azathioprine, and how often?
FBC/LFTs | 3 months
38
What blood monitoring is required for lithium, and how often?
U&Es/TFTs - every 6 months | Lithium plasma levels - every 3-6 months
39
What blood monitoring is required for methotrexate, and how often?
FBC/U&Es/LFTs | 2-3 months
40
What are the enzyme inducers?
``` Phenobarbitone Rifampicin Carbamazepine Phenytoin Griseofulvin ```
41
What should be monitored upon commencing simvastatin?
LFTs and lipid profile 3/12 after starting, and then again at 12/12
42
What does a PPI work on?
H+/K+ ATP proton-pump
43
What is a lipid lowering drug suitable for those in whom statins are not well-tolerated?
Ezetimibe
44
When should initial vanc levels be taken for a patient started on vanc?
Day 2 of treatment, pre- 1 st dose of day
45
Which AED is safest in pregnancy?
Lamotrigine
46
What Li therapeutic range should be aimed for in an acute episode?
0.6-1
47
What Li therapeutic range should be aimed for for prophylaxis?
0.4-0.8
48
At what serum level of Li do toxic effects occur reliably?
>1.5
49
At what serum level of Li is urgent treatment required?
>2
50
How can sildenafil affect the vision?
Blue discolouration
51
Which laxative can stain the urine red?
Co-danthramer
52
Which anti-hypertensives can cause a deterioration in glycaemic control?
Thiazide diuretics
53
Which drugs cause gingival hyperplasia?
1. Phenytoin 2. Ciclosporin 3. Nifedipine (+ some other calcium channel blockers)
54
Which type of anti-HTN is most likely to flare gout?
Bendroflumethiazide

MSRA (18 decks)

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