Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the reversal agent of dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

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2
Q

What is the reversal agent for rivaroxiban and apixaban?

A

Andexanet alfa

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3
Q

What is the MOA of dabigatran?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

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4
Q

What is the MOA of rivaroxiban/apixaban/edoxaban?

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitor

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5
Q

How is dabigatran excreted?

A

Renally

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6
Q

How is rivaroxiban excreted?

A

Hepatic

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7
Q

How is apixaban excreted?

A

Faecally

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8
Q

How is edoxaban excreted?

A

Faecally

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9
Q

What are the classical symptoms of polycythaemia vera?

A

Intense itching which usually occurs after exposure to hot water or hot and humid weather

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10
Q

The absence of what type of cell indicates a lack of acute leukaemia?

A

Blast cells

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11
Q

What will be seen on an FBC in CML?

A

High white cell count which is due to high numbers of myeloid cells, but anaemia and thrombocytopenia due to bone marrow dysfunction

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12
Q

What is first-line management for CML?

A

The tyrosine kinase inhibitor - Imatinib

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13
Q

What is the first-line management for CLL?

A

Fludarabine and cyclophosphamide

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14
Q

In what type of blood cancers may rituximab be used?

A

Leukaemias and lymphomas of lymphocyte origin, rituximab being a chimeric monoclonal antibody directed at CD20, a lymphocyte marker

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15
Q

How does sequestration crises present in sickle cell anaemia?

A

Sickling within organs such as the spleen or lungs causes pooling of blood with worsening of the anaemia - it is associated with an increased reticulocyte count

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16
Q

What is the most common cause of death in adulthood in sickle cell crisis?

A

Acute chest syndrome

17
Q

How does aplastic crisis occur in sickle cell anaemia?

A

A sudden fall in Hb, with bone marrow suppression causing a reduced reticulocyte count, cause by parvovirus

18
Q

What is the typical blood panel picture in DIC?

A
Low platelets
Low fibrinogen
Raised PT & APTT
Raised fibrinogen degradation products
Schistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
19
Q

How would you expect a clotting panel to look in a warfarinised pt?

A
PT = prolonged
APTT = normal
Bleeding time = normal
Platelet count = normal
20
Q

What are the causes of paraproteinaemia?

A
Myeloma
Monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS)
Benign monoclonal gammopathy
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
Amyloidosis
CLL, lymphoma
Heavy chain disease
POEMS
21
Q

What do you seen on a blood film in CLL?

A

Smudge cells (also called Smear cells)

22
Q

What are the features of CLL?

A

Often none: may be picked up by an incidental finding of lymphocytosis
Constitutional: anorexia, weight loss
Bleeding
Infections
Lymphadenopathy more marked than chronic myeloid leukaemia

23
Q

What is the empirical Abx of choice in suspected neutropenic sepsis?

24
Q

How is sickle cell anaemia inherited?

A

Autosomal recessive

25
What is the first-line management for polycythaemia vera?
Venesection
26
What is the most common inherited thrombophillia?
Activated protein C resistance (Factor V Leiden) is the most common inherited thrombophilia Prothrombin gene mutation is the second most common cause
27
Which types of transfusion carry the highest risk of bacterial contamination?
Platelet transfusion
28
Which 'B' symptoms imply a poor prognosis in Hodgkin's lymphoma?
1. Weight loss > 10% in last 6 months 2. Fever > 38ºC 3. Night sweats
29
Presence of what cell type characterise Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Reed-Sternberg cells
30
What are the causes of massive splenomegaly?
``` Myelofibrosis CML Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) Malaria Gaucher's syndrome ```
31
Which is the most common type of haemophilia?
Haemophilia A (deficiency in factor VIII)
32
Which factor is deficient in Haemophilia B (Christmas disease)
Factor IX
33
Which side of the clotting cascade does PT represent?
Extrinsic system - factors V, VII and X, as well as prothrombin and fibrinogen
34
Which side of the clotting cascade does APTT represent?
Intrinsic system - factors VII, IX, XI and XII
35
What does a peripheral smear show in thalassaemia?
1. Microcytic, hypochromic red cells | 2. Target cells