Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSRA > Musculoskeletal > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

On what movement does subacromial impingement cause pain?

A

Shoulder abduction, between 60 and 120 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What feature of ank spond might distinguish it from other pathology?

A

Pain at night that improves on getting up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an intracapsular fracture?

A

From the edge of the femoral head to the insertion of the capsule of the hip joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an extracapsular fracture?

A

Either be trochanteric or subtrochanteric (the lesser trochanter is the dividing line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a Garden system type I fracture?

A

Stable fracture with impaction in valgus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a Garden system type II fracture?

A

Complete fracture but undisplaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a Garden system type III fracture?

A

Displaced fracture, usually rotated and angulated, but still has boney contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a Garden system type IV fracture?

A

Complete boney disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a heliotrope rash?

A

A purplish rash to the eye lids seen in dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are Gottron’s papules?

A

Roughened red papules over the extensor surfaces of the fingers seen in dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the Ottawa Rules for ankle x-rays?

A

Pain in the malleolar zone plus any one of the following:
Bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone
Bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone
Inability to walk four weight bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What skin change is most associated with antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Livedo reticularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which organism is most commonly indicated in discitis?

A

S aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For how many months must symptoms persist to be termed chronic fatigue?

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How should polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) be treated?

A

Steroids - should be a rapid improvement in symptoms (within a week) - failure to respond rapidly should result i in considerations of alternative diagnoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How raised is ESR in PMR?

A

> 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When in pain elicited most in lateral epicondylitis?

A

Resisted wrist extension/supination whilst elbow extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is lateral epicondylitis also known as?

A

Tennis elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When in pain elicited most in medial epicondylitis?

A

Pain is elicited during wrist flexion and pronation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is medial epicondylitis also known as?

A

Golfer’s elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the conditions where doctors should offer immediate bone protection on commencement of long-term steroids?

A

Pt >65, or those that have previously suffered fractures - offer alendronate and ensure calcium and vitamin D replete

Pt’s <65 should be offered a bone density scan instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How should you manage a pt according to their T-score in bone density scanning?

A

> 0 = reassure
0 - -1.5 = repeat scan in 1-3 years
< -1.5 = offer bone protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What proportion of talipes is bilateral?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Using the Ponseti method, after how long is talipes usually corrected after birth?

A

6-10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For how long should night-time braces be worn by children with talipes?

A

Up to the age of 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most common cause of talipes?

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the main S/E of colchicine?

A

Diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the pathopneumonic feature of pseduogout?

A

Chrondrocalcinosis on XR - presents as ‘linear calcifications of the articular cartilage’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the RFs for the development of pseudogout at <50 y/o?

A 
Haemochromatosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Low magnesium, low phosphate
Acromegaly
Wilson's disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of crystals are deposited in the synovium in pseudogout?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Anaphylaxis - antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Cell bound - IgG or OgM binds to antigen on cell surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are type III hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Immune complex - free antigen and antibody combine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Delayed hypersensitivity - T-cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Graves disease and MG are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 4 features of osteoarthritis on XR?

A

Decrease of joint space
Subchondral sclerosis
Subchondral cysts
Osteophytes forming at joint margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is meralgia parasthetica caused by?

A

Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are myxoid cysts?

A

Also known as mucous cysts, they are benign ganglion cysts usually found on the distal, dorsal aspect of the finger. There is usually osteoarthritis in the surrounding joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What anti-rheumatic drug should be avoided in pt’s with aspirin allergy?

A

Sulphasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the risk associated with a scaphoid fracture?

A

Risk of avascular necrosis due to the blood supply to the scaphoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the poor prognostic features of RA?

A 
Rheumatoid factor positive
Anti-CCP antibodies
Poor functional status at presentation
X-ray: early erosions (e.g. after < 2 years)
Extra articular features e.g. nodules
HLA DR4
iInsidious onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is tested for McMurray’s Test?

A

Meniscal tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What can alendronate be switched for when significant upper GI side effects are experienced?

A

Risedronate or etidronate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which test may be positive in referred lumbar spine pain?

A

Femoral nerve stretch test may be positive - lie the patient prone. Extend the hip joint with a straight leg then bend the knee. This stretches the femoral nerve and will cause pain if it is trapped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the red flags for back pain?

A 
Age < 20 years or > 50 years
History of previous malignancy
Night pain
History of trauma
Systemically unwell e.g. weight loss, fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How is the femoral head epiphysis displaced in SUFE?

A

Postero-inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most common cause of posterior heel pain?

A

Achilles tendon disorders

48
Q

What are the features of ank spond?

A

The A’s =

  1. Apical fibrosis
  2. Anterior uveitis
  3. Aortic regurgitation
  4. Achilles tendonitis
  5. AV node block
  6. Amyloidosis
49
Q

What are common features of meniscal tears?

A

Knee locking and feeling of ‘giving way’

50
Q

What are the classical features of untreated Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Bowing of tibia

Bossing of skull

51
Q

What is meant by ‘Finkelstein test positive’?

A

Pain over her radial styloid on forced abduction/flexion of the thumb

52
Q

In what condition is Finkelstein test positive?

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

53
Q

When does chondromalacia patellae (patellofemoral pain syndrome) classically cause pain?

A

Anterior knee pain on walking up and down stairs and rising from prolonged sitting.

54
Q

Is azathioprine safe in pregnancy?

A

Yes

55
Q

What is the classical description of pain in iliotibial band syndrome?

A

Tenderness 2-3cm above the lateral joint line

56
Q

What are the most common causes of drug-induced lupus?

A

Procainamide

Hydralazine

57
Q

How is Paget’s disease of the bone treated?

A

Bisphosphonates - e.g. alendronate

58
Q

What should be done with regard to allopurinol prophylaxis in acute gout flares?

A

Allopurinol should be continued at normal dose during a gout flare

59
Q

Within what age range is the FRAX tool valid?

A

Age 40-90 years old

60
Q

What are the conditions for which NICE recommends a DEXA scan rather than clinical risk score?

A
  1. Before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density
  2. In people <40 y/o who have a major risk factor, such as history of multiple fragility fracture, major osteoporotic fracture, or current or recent use of high-dose oral or high-dose systemic glucocorticoids (more than 7.5 mg prednisolone or equivalent per day for 3 months or longer)
61
Q

Which nerve root compressions will result in a positive femoral stretch test?

A

L3 or L4

62
Q

Which nerve root compression will result in a positive sciatic nerve stretch test?

A

L5 or S1

63
Q

What is a flattened deltoid as a result of?

A

Axillary nerve damage - C5-C6 - may occur as a result of a humeral neck fracture or dislocation

64
Q

What does radial nerve palsy result in?

A

Wrist drop (radial nerve = C5-C8) - may occur as a result of a humeral mid-shaft fracture

65
Q

Damage to what may result in carpel tunnel syndrome?

A

Median nerve - C6, C8, T1

66
Q

What is ‘claw hand’ as a result of?

A

Damage to the ulnar nerve - C8, T1 - may occur as a result of medial epicondyle fracture

67
Q

What is ‘winged scapula’ as a result of?

A

Long thoracic nerve - C5-C7 - may occur during sport (e.g. following a blow to the ribs), or as a complication of mastectomy

68
Q

What is ‘waiter’s tip’ as a result of?

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy - damage to C5-C6 of the brachial plexus, may be secondary to shoulder dystocia during birth

69
Q

What is Klumpke injury as a result of?

A

Due to damage of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus - C8, T1 - may be secondary to shoulder dystocia or a sudden upward movement of the hand. It is associated with Horner’s syndrome

70
Q

What are the XR changes seen in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Early findings:

  1. Loss of joint space
  2. Juxta-articular osteoporosis
  3. Soft-tissue swelling

Late findings:

  1. Periarticular erosions
  2. Subluxation
71
Q

Which drugs can precipitate gout?

A 
Thiazides
Furosemide
Ciclosporin
Alcohol
Cytotoxic agents
Pyrazinamide
Aspirin
72
Q

What should be tested for before prescribing azathioprine?

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) - deficiency in this can lead to myelosuppression, and thus predict pt’s whom are at increased risk of azathioprine toxicity

73
Q

What is the most common responsible organism for osteomyelitis in most patients?

A

S. aureus

74
Q

What is the most common responsible organism for osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?

A

Salmonella

75
Q

What is the most common reason total hip replacements need revision?

A

Aseptic loosening

76
Q

What scale is used to measure disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

DAS28

77
Q

How can you differentiate between acute compartment syndrome and a DVT?

A

Acute compartment syndrome = pain rapidly increases - ‘out-of-proportion’ - and pain on passive extension. Pain on passive dorsiflexion is Homan’s sign and more indicative of DVT

78
Q

Where in the world is Bechet’s disease more common?

A

Turkey, Iran and Japan

79
Q

What is mononeuritis multiplex?

A

A neuropathy of two or more non-anatomically related peripheral nerves - diabetes and RA are a common cause - most cases result in full spontaneous recovery in 3-6 months

80
Q

When should prophylactic treatment be started in relation to an acute attack of gout?

A

1-2 weeks or it can exacerbate the acute episode

81
Q

Which test will be positive in De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

A

Finkelstein’s test (resisted abduction to the thumb is painful in a +ve test)

82
Q

Which nerve is at risk in an anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Axillary nerve - damage results in decreased sensation over the deltoid muscle and weakness

83
Q

How may cluster headaches be treated acutely?

A

Intranasal sumitriptan

Home oxygen - not suitable for smokers

84
Q

What type of fracture occurs in children as a result of FOOSH?

A

Supracondylar fracture of humerus

85
Q

Which autoantibodies are associated with SLE?

A 
ANA
Anti-dsDNA
Anti-Ro
Anti-Sm
Anti-La
86
Q

Which autoantibodies are associated with systemic sclerosis?

A 
ACA
Anti-ScL-70
Anti-RNA polymerase
ANA - 95%
RhF - 30%
87
Q

How do you manage an undisplaced intracapsular fracture?

A

Cannulated screw or replacement (preferred)

88
Q

How do you manage a displaced intracapsular fracture?

A

Hemiarthropathy or THR

89
Q

How do you manage an extracapsular fracture?

A

Cannulated screw

90
Q

How do you manage an extracapsular fracture that is either peritrochanteric or intertrochanteric?

A

Dynamic Hip Screw

91
Q

What is the name of a long-standing ulcer in which an SCC is found?

A

Marjolin’s ulcer

92
Q

Does a negative temporal artery biopsy exclude GCA? And why?

A

No, because skip lesions are common

93
Q

How do patient’s present with patella dislocation?

A

Knee held in flexion, patella laterally dislocated, usually teenage girls

94
Q

What are gout deposits made up of?

A

Monosodium urate

95
Q

How do gout crystals appear?

A

Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals

96
Q

Which autoantibody has 95% sensitivity for SLE?

A

ANA

97
Q

When would Simmonds test (for Achilles tendon rupture) be considered positive?

A

Absence of normal plantar flexion on squeezing the calf muscle indicates a complete tendon rupture

98
Q

How would you investigate an Achilles Tendon Rupture?

A

USS (MRI if the diagnosis were unclear, e.g. Simmonds test wasn’t positive)

99
Q

What type of fracture causes a dinner-fork deformity?

A

Colles’ fracture (of the wrist)

100
Q

What is Gamekeepers Thumb also known as?

A

Skiers Thumb

101
Q

What types of fracture might result from a FOOSH (wrist in flexion)?

A

Falling on the hand outward = Colles’ (of the wrist)

Falling on the hand inward = Smith’s fracture (of the wrist)

102
Q

What is the most prevalent finger tendon injury in sport?

A

Mallet finger

103
Q

What is the most common type of metacarpal fracture?

A

Boxer’s fracture

104
Q

Should glucosamine and/or chondroitin supplements be used in OA?

A

No

105
Q

What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?

A

Anterior - 95% of the time

106
Q

How does an anterior shoulder dislocation appear on XR?

A

AP XR - humeral head lies under the coracoid process

107
Q

What is spondylolisthesis?

A

Slippage of a vertebrae, usually forward, relative to the vertebrae below?

108
Q

What injury tends to occur in children when they FOOSH?

A

Supracondylar fracture (BE AWARE OF NEUROVASCULAR STATUS)

109
Q

What posture may people with ank spond presnt with?

A

Question-mark posture

110
Q

What is Mondor sign? And what is it pathognomonic for?

A

= bruising that tracts distally to the sole of the foot. Sign of calcaneal fracture

111
Q

What is CREST syndrome also called?

A

Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

112
Q

Which autoantibodies are are associated with CREST syndrome?

A

Anti-nuclear and anti-centromere antibodies

113
Q

Which auto-antibody is most specific for RA?

A

Anti-CPP

114
Q

What is Lachman’s test testing for?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury of the knee

115
Q

What is a bumper fracture also known as?

A

Tibial plateau fracture

116
Q

What is a common complication of a scaphoid fracture?

A

Avascular necrosis

MSRA (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions