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MSRA > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first line treatment for pneumocystis jiroveci?

A

Co-trimoxazole

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2
Q

What is pneumocystis jiroveci also known as?

A

Pneumocystis carinii = PCP (pneumocystis carinii) - all used interchangeably.

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3
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?

A

PCP - those with a CD4 count of <200 should have PCP prophylaxis

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4
Q

What is a common complication of PCP?

A

Pneumothorax

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5
Q

Which Abx should be added to the treatment of pneumonia, if that pneumonia is secondary to influenza?

A

Flucloxacillin

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6
Q

What is the most likely cause of pneumonia in an alcoholic?

A

Klebisiella

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia after influenza infection?

A

S.aureus (hence need to add fluclox)

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8
Q

When is the tetanus vaccine given?

A 
2 months
3 months
4 months
3-5 years
13-18 years
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9
Q

Do patients with a tetanus-prone wound require any further treatment with regard to tetanus risk if they received a full course, their last dose being <10 years ago?

A

No

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10
Q

If the patient has a ‘tetanus-prone’ would, had a full vaccination course, but last dose was >10 years ago, what treatment do they require?

A

A reinforcing dose of vaccine

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11
Q

What sort of wounds are ‘high-risk- for tetanus?

A
  1. Compound fractures
  2. Delayed surgical intervention
  3. Significant degree of devitalised tissue
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12
Q

What treatment is required if a patient has a high risk wound, but last tetanus dose >10 years ago?

A

Reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin

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13
Q

What should be done if the tetanus vaccination Hx is incomplete or unknown?

A

Reinforcing dose of vaccine, regardless of the wound severity
For tetanus prone and high-risk wounds: reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin

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14
Q

Which are the live attenuated vaccines?

A
  1. BCG
  2. MMR
  3. Influenza (intranasal)
  4. Oral rotavirus
  5. Oral polio
  6. Yellow fever
  7. Oral typhoid
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15
Q

What are the inactivated vaccines?

A
  1. Rabies
  2. Hepatitis A
  3. Influenza (intramuscular)
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16
Q

What are the toxoid (inactivated toxin) vaccines?

A
  1. Tetanus
  2. Diphtheria
  3. Pertussis
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17
Q

What are the subunit or conjugate vaccines?

A
  1. Pneumococcus (conjugate)
  2. Haemophilus (conjugate)
  3. Meningococcus (conjugate)
  4. Hepatitis B
  5. HPV
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18
Q

Which malignancies are associated with EBV?

A
  1. Burkitt’s lymphoma
  2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  3. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
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19
Q

Which virus is responsible for croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis exacerbation?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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21
Q

How may mycoplasma pneumoniae present?

A

Flu-like symptoms classically precede a dry cough. Complications include haemolytic anaemia and erythema multiforme

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22
Q

How may legionella pneumophilia present?

A

Dry cough, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests and hyponatraemia

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23
Q

What are the features of atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone) malarial prophylaxis?

A

S/Es - GI upset
Start - 1-2 days before
End - 7 days after

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24
Q

What are the features of chloroquine malarial prophylaxis?

A 
S/Es - headache
C/I - epilepsy
Dosing - weekly
Start - 1 week before
End - 4 weeks after
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25
Q

What are the features of doxycycline malarial prophylaxis?

A

S/Es - photosensitivity; oesophagitis
Start - 1-2 days before
End - 4 weeks after

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26
Q

What are the features of mefloquine (Lariam) malarial prophylaxis?

A 
S/Es - dizziness; neuropsychiatric disturbance
C/I - epilepsy
Dosing - weekly
Start - 2-3 weeks before
End - 4 weeks after
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27
Q

What are the features of proguanil (Paludrine) malarial prophylaxis?

A

Start - 1 week before

End - 4 weeks after

28
Q

What are the features of proguanil + chloroquine malarial prophylaxis?

A

Start - 1 week before

End - 4 weeks after

29
Q

Which malarial prophylaxis agents can be used in pregnancy?

A

Chloroquine

Proguanil - if folate supplementation given

30
Q

Over what age can DEET be used?

A

Children >2 months

31
Q

What should be given to contacts of meningococcal meningitis?

A

Oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

32
Q

Which Abx should be given in early lyme disease?

A

14 day course of doxycycline

33
Q

Which GI upset bugs have a 1-6 hour incubation period?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Bacillus cereus

34
Q

Which GI upset bugs have a 12-48 hour incubation period?

A

Salmonella

Escherichia coli

35
Q

Which GI upset bugs have a 48-72 hour incubation period?

A

Shigella

Campylobacter

36
Q

Which GI upset bugs have a >7 days incubation period?

A

Giardiasis

Amoebiasis

37
Q

Which drug poses a particular risk of nec fasc in T2DM?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors - e.g. dapagliflozin

38
Q

Which Abx may be used in the treatment of campylobacteur?

A

Clarithromycin

39
Q

What is the most common cause of CAP?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

40
Q

What is the name of the rash seen in early lyme disease?

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

41
Q

What is Kaposi sarcoma caused by?

A

HHV-8

42
Q

What should happen to immunosuppressed patients who come into contact with VZV?

A

Patients who are immunosuppressed secondary to long-term steroids or methotrexate should receive VZIG if they are exposed to chickenpox and have no antibodies to varicella

43
Q

What is the most common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

E.coli

44
Q

How is latent TB treated?

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin
or
6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

45
Q

Which Abx is used to treat salmonella?

A

Ciprofloxacin

46
Q

What are the characteristics of adult Still’s disease?

A

Arthritis + recurrent fever + typical rash which is a non-itchy small spots that are salmon-coloured, affecting limbs and trunk that look worst when fever is present

47
Q

How does rabies present?

A 
Hydrophobia - classical
Muscles spasms
Headache
Fever
Agitation
48
Q

How is rabies diagnosed?

A

Clinical diagnosis

49
Q

How does Typhus present?

A 
Headache
Vomiting
Photophobia
Deafness
Pink papular rash affecting chest
50
Q

How is Typhus diagnosed?

A

Serology - IgM and IgG by indict fluorescent antibody testing

51
Q

How does rotavirus appear on electron microscopy?

A

Circulating virus particles with radiating spokes

52
Q

What is Q fever caused by?

A

Coxiella burnetii - from ticks, cattle, goats and sheep

53
Q

Where in the world is brucellosis more common?

A

Middle East, usually from drinking un-pasteurised milk. Complication include IE, EO, arthritis and meningitis

54
Q

Which type of malaria can cause recurrence of infection?

A

Plasmodium vivax

55
Q

What infection might cause a rash similar to guttate psoriasis?

A

Pityriasis versicolor - caused by an infection with Malassezia furfur, a type of yeat, infection is more common in hot, humid climates where a person may have sweated excessively

56
Q

What is the mode of action of aciclovir?

A

Competes for viral DNA polymerase

57
Q

What are the encapsulated bacteria?

A 
S - strep pneumoniaa
Hi - HiB
N - neisseria meningitidis
S - GBS
Ki - klebsiella
S - salmonella typhi
58
Q

What is cat scratch disease caused by?

A

Bartonella henselae

59
Q

What is one of the most common causes of chronic lymphadenopathy in children and adults?

A

Cat scratch disease

60
Q

Which antibody is most specific for drug-induced lupus?

A

Anti-histone Ab

61
Q

Which drugs are in particular associated with drug-induced lupus?

A

Isoniazid - used to treat TB

62
Q

Which antibody is associated with CREST syndrome?

A

Anti-centromere Ab

63
Q

Which drugs may be used for PEP for influenza?

A

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir

64
Q

Which antibodies are most associated with Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Anti-Ro - 75%

Anti-La - 50-50%

65
Q

Which antibodies are most associated with diffuse scleroderma?

A

Anti-topoisomerase Ab

66
Q

What is the vector for Bartonella bacilliformis?

A

Sand fly

67
Q

What is the vector Trypansoma sansei (that causes sleeping sickness)?

A

Tsetse fly

MSRA (18 decks)

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