Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the side effects of sodium valproate?

A

Teratogenic - Spina bifida
Liver damage and hep
Hair loss
Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the side effects of carbamazepine?

A

Agranulocytosis
Aplastic anaemia
Induces P450 so drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Side effects of phenytoin?

A

Folate and Vit D deficiency
Megaloblastic anaemia
Osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ethosuximide side effects?

A

Night terror

Rashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the side effects of Lamotrigine?

A

SJS

Leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the features of opioid misuse?

A 
Rhinorrhoea
Needle track marks
Pinpoint pupils
Drowsiness
Watering eyes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the management of opioid overdose?

A

IV orIM naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the management of paracetamol overdose?

A

Within 1 hour: activated charcoal

Acetylcysteine after 4 hours infused over 1 hour by looking at graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the clinical features of paracetamol overdose?

A

Acute liver failure

Young person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of anti-epileptic drugs in pregnancy?

A 
Fetal hydantoin syndrome:
Microcephaly 
IUGR
Clef palate/lip
Mental retardation
Hypoplastic fingernails
Distal limb deformities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the signs of opioid withdrawal?

A

Yawning
Dilated pupils
Rhinorrhea
Epiphora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the side effects of the tuberculosis drugs?

A

Rifampicin - red/orange pee
Isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy
Pyrazinamide - hyperuricaemia (gout)
Ethambutol - colour blindness

All cause hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a non-sedating antihistamine?

A

Loratidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the side effects of the rheumatic drugs?

A

Methotrexate: pulmonary fibrosis

Leflunomide: HTN and peripheral neuropathy

Sulfasalazine: male infertility

Hydroxychloroquinine: nightmares and reduced visual acuity

Anti-TNF meds: reactivation of TB or Hep B

Rituximab: night sweats and thormbocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Reversal of heparin?

A

Protamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Side effect of ACEi?

A

Dry cough
Lichen planus
Angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the side effect of statin?

A

High CK
Muscle cramps
Transaminitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment for hypersalivation caused by clozapine?

A

Hycoscine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the antidote for opioid toxicity?

A

400mcg naloxone boluses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the dose for folic acid in well controlled type 1 diabetic mothers?

A

5mg pre conception until 12 week gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the side effect of colchicine?

A

Diarrhoea

22
Q

Side effect of spironalactone?

A

Breast tenderness

23
Q

Features of metoclopromide overdose?

A

Oculogyric crisis

24
Q

What should you check before starting azathioprine?

A

Thiopurine methyl transferase activity (TPMT)

25
Q

What is the parkland formula?

A

4ml x %burns x weight(kg)

Given half in the first 8 hours and the remaining half over the next 16 hours

26
Q

What is the treatment for a raised INR with a minor bleed?

A

Stop warfarin and 5mg phytomenadione (vitamin K) orally

27
Q

What is the treatment for a raised INR with a major bleed?

A

Stop warfarin
Phytomenadione (Vitamin K)
Fresh frozen plasma

28
Q

What are the main classes of laxatives and give examples

A 
Softener and stimulant: Docusate sodium and Movicol
Bulk forming agents: Psyllium husk
Stool softener: Lactulose
Stimulant: senna and bisacodyl
Osmotic agents: lactulose
Lubricants: mineral oil
29
Q

How to calculate the anion gap?

A

(Na+ + K+) - (HCO3- + Cl-)

30
Q

What are the symptoms of beta blocker overdose?

A

Hyoptension
Bradycardia
Seizures
Hypoglycaemia

31
Q

What constitutes normal bag of 0.9% saline?

A

154 Sodium, 154 Chloride, 0 Potassium, 0 bicarbonate

32
Q

What is the medications adherence questionnaire?

A

Moriskeys scale

33
Q

What is the treatment for delirium tremens/alcohol withdrawal?

A

Oral chloradiazepoxide

34
Q

What is the medical management of breast cancer?

A

ER+:
Tamoxifen - premenopausal
Anaztrazole - post menopausal

HER2+: Traztazumab (herceptin)

35
Q

What is the medical treatment for peripheral arterial disease?

A

Clopidogrel and atorvastatin

36
Q

Treatment for high INR and emergency surgery

A

Prothrombinex

37
Q

Management of bowel obstruction during end of life care

A

loperamide hydrochloride

38
Q

Which medication can increase warfarin in blood if used together?

A

Antibiotics (clarithromycin)
SSRI
Sodium valproate

Ozaloes e.g. metronidazole, omeprazole etc

ASS OZALES

39
Q

Which drugs cannot be given with methotrexate and why?

A

Trimethoprim because it causes pancytopaenia.

Co-trimoxazole as it contains trimethoprim.

40
Q

Which electrolyte disturbance can PPIs cause?

A

Hyponatraemia

41
Q

What needs to be prescribed in addition to SSRIs and NSAIDs?

A

PPIs due to increased GI bleeding risk

42
Q

What is the reversal agent for rivaroxiban and apixaban?

A

Andexanet alfa

43
Q

Which drug causes a contraindication to chest drain?

A

INR >1.5

44
Q

What is the maintenance fluid measurement for kids?

A

0-10kg: 100ml/kg
11-20kg: 50ml/kg
>20kg: 20ml/kg

45
Q

What is the codeine to morphine conversion?

A

10mg codeine to 1mg of morphine

46
Q

What is the ABG of salicylate poisoning immediately and 12 hours afterwards?

A

t0: Respiratory alkalosis
t12: metabolic acidosis

47
Q

First line treatment for diabetic neuropathy?

A

Pregabalin, gabapentin, amitriptyline or duloxetine

48
Q

Which drug increases azathioprine toxicity?

A

Allopurinol

49
Q

Which medication needs to be started alongside allopurinol?

A

NSAIDs or colchicine “cover”

50
Q

What is a side effect of SSRIs?

A

SIADH

Finals (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions