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Finals > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

Inflammation all the way from the stomach to intestines presenting with nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea

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2
Q

What are the causative agents of viral gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus
Norovirus
Adenovirus

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3
Q

What is the spread, consequences and management of E. coli gastroenteritis?

A

Contact with infected faeces
Unwashed salads
Water

E. coli produced Shinga toxin which destroys blood cells and leads to haemolytic uraemic syndrome

Don’t give abs as it increases risk of HUS

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4
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis?

A

Campylobacter - Gram negative bacteria

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5
Q

Give the spread, symptoms and management of campylobacter gastroenteritis?

A

Raw or improperly cooked poultry
Untreated water
Unpasturised milk

Abdominal cramps
Diarrhoea ± blood
Vomiting
Fever

Azithromycin or ciprofloxacin

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6
Q

What is shingella?

A

Spread by faces contaminating drinking water, swimming pools and food.

Symptoms usually resolve within 1 week without treatment

Causes bloody diarrhoea, abdominal cramps and fever

Can produce Shinga toxin and cause HUS

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7
Q

What is Salmonella?

A

Spread by eating raw eggs or poultry

Symptoms usually resolve within 1 week

Watery diarrhoea ± blood or mucus, abdominal pain, vomiting

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8
Q

What is bacilllus cereus?

A

Gram positive rod that is spread through food that’s not refrigerated after cooking

e.g. rice

Vomiting within 5 hours
Diarrhoea within 8 hours
Resolution within 24 hours

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9
Q

What is Giardiasis?

A

Giardia lamblia is a type of microscopic parasite.

Faecal-oral transmission

Diagnosis = stool microscopy

Treatment = metronidazole

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10
Q

What is HIV

A

HIV is an RNA retrovirus

HIV-1 is most common type

Virus enters and destroys the CD4 T-helper cells

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11
Q

What is the transmission of HIV?

A

Unprotected anal, vaginal or oral sexual activity
Mother to child
Mucous membrane, blood or open wound exposure

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12
Q

What are some AIDS defining illnesses?

A 
Kaposi's sarcoma
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
CMV
Candidiasis
Lymphomas
Tb
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13
Q

What is the testing for HIV?

A

Antibody blood test - will only become positive 3 months following exposure
p24 antigen testing
PCR testing

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14
Q

What is the monitoring for HIV?

A

CD4 count

The lower the count, the higher the risk of opportunistic infections

500-1200 is normal
<200 considered end stage HIV/AIDS

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15
Q

What is the treatment for HIV?

A

antiretroviral therapies

Prophylactic co-trimoxazole for CD4 <200 to protect against PCP

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16
Q

What is the guidance for pregnant women with HIV?

A

C-section unless mother has undetectable viral load

Newborns to HIV positive mothers should recieve ART for 4 weeks after birth

Breastfeeding is only if viral load is undetectable

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17
Q

What is the post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV?

A

Truvada and ralltegravir for 28 days

combination ART

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18
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

Infectious disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Small rod shaped bacteria (acid-fast bacilli) stains red with Zeihl-Neelsen staining.

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19
Q

What is the presentation of tuberculosis?

A 
Lethargy
Fever or night sweats
Weight loss
Cough ± haemoptysis
Lymphadenopathy
Erythema nodosum
Spinal pain
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20
Q

What are the investigations in tuberculosis?

A

Mantoux test = past infection
Ileal biopsy = active infection
Interferon-gamma release assay
CXR

Cultures
NAAT

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21
Q

What is the management for acute pulmonary tuberculosis?

A

RIPE

Rifampicine for 6 months
Isoniazid for 6 months
Pyrazinamide for 2 months
Ethambutol for 2 months

Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy so pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) is co-prescribed

22
Q

What are the types that cause malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum (most common and severe)

Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae

23
Q

What is the presentation of malaria?

A 
Non-specific
Fever, sweats and rigors
Malaise
Myalgia
Headache
Vomiting

Signs
Pallor due to anaemia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Jaundice

24
Q

What is the diagnosis of malaria?

A

Blood film

3 samples are sent over 3 consecutive days to exclude malaria

25
Q

What is the management of malaria?

A

ORAL:

  1. Riamet
  2. Malarone
  3. Quinine sulphate
  4. Doxycycline

IV:

  1. Artesunate
  2. Quinine dihydrocloride
26
Q

What are antimalarials?

A

Proguanil and atovaquone (MALARONE)

Mefloquine

Doxycycline

27
Q

What is the diagnosis of influenza?

A

Treatment started based on history and presentation

Viral nasal or throat swabs for PRC to confirm diagnosis

28
Q

What is the management of influenza?

A

Public health monitor the number of cases

Antivirals for those with influenza at risk of complications:
Oral oseltamivir 75mg twice daily for 5 days
OR
Inhaled zanamivir 10mg twice daily for 5 days

Treatment started within 48hours of symptom onset

29
Q

What is HPV?

A

Most common cause of cervical cancer.

Primary an STI

30
Q

Which types of HPV cause cervical cancers?

A

16 and 18

31
Q

What is in the HPV vaccine?

A

Gardasil which protects against 6, 11, 16 and 18.

6 and 11 causes genital warts
16 and 18 causes cervical cancers

32
Q

What is keratitis?

A

Inflammation of the cornea

33
Q

What are the causes of keratitis?

A

(most common) Viral: HSV

Bacteria: Pseudomonas or staph
Fungal: Candida or aspergillus
Contact lens

34
Q

What is the presentation of keratitis/

A 
Painful red eye
Photophobia
Vesicles around eye
Foreign body sensation
Watering eye
Reduced visual acuity
35
Q

What is the diagnosis of keratitis?

A

Fluorescein staining shows dendritic corneal ulcer

Slit-lamp = DIAGNOSTIC

Corneal swabs or scrapings

36
Q

What is the management of keratitis?

A

Aciclovir
Ganciclovir
Topical steroids

Corneal transplant

37
Q

What is lyme disease?

A

Caused by spirochaete Borrelia burgdorferi and is spread by ticks

38
Q

What are the early features of lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans:

  • bulls-eye rash
  • painless

Systemic features:

  • headache
  • lethargy
  • fever
39
Q

What are the late features of lyme disease?

A

AFTER 30 DAYS

CVS:

  • heart block
  • peri/myocarditis

Neruologicall

  • facial nerve palsy
  • radicular pain
  • meningitis
40
Q

What is the investigation and diagnosis of lyme disease?

A

Can be clinically DIAGNOSED if erythema migrans present

ELISA antibodies are first line
repeat 4-6 weeks after if still suspect

41
Q

What is the management of lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline if early disease

Ceftriaxone if disseminated

42
Q

What is the presentation of mumps?

A 
Prodrome symptoms
Parotid gland swelling
Abdominal pain
Testicular pain
Confusion
43
Q

What is the management of mumps?

A

Supportive

44
Q

Which organism gives rise to syphilius?

A

Treponema pallidum

45
Q

What is the management of C. diff?

A
  1. Oral vancomycin
  2. IV metronidazole

Fecal transplant

46
Q

Most common pathogen for leg cellulitis?

A

Strep pyogenes

47
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum?

A

Viral disease of skin transmitted sexual or non-sexually

48
Q

What is the presentation of sexually transmitted molluscum contagiosum?

A

Multiple lesions on genitalia, lower abdomen and upper thigh

49
Q

What is the diagnosis and management of sexually transmitted molluscum contagiosum?

A

Clinical diagnosis

No management required - self limiting

50
Q

Which medication should be given to patients with CD4 count less than 200?

A

Co-trimoxazole prophylactically for PCJ pneumonia

51
Q

What is the most common causative organism of cavitating pneumonias in the upper lobe?

A

Klebsiella

52
Q

What is a common side effect after a viral gastroenteritis?

A

Transient lactose intolerance

Finals (20 decks)

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