Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

Inflammation all the way from the stomach to intestines presenting with nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea

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2
Q

What are the causative agents of viral gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus
Norovirus
Adenovirus

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3
Q

What is the spread, consequences and management of E. coli gastroenteritis?

A

Contact with infected faeces
Unwashed salads
Water

E. coli produced Shinga toxin which destroys blood cells and leads to haemolytic uraemic syndrome

Don’t give abs as it increases risk of HUS

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4
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis?

A

Campylobacter - Gram negative bacteria

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5
Q

Give the spread, symptoms and management of campylobacter gastroenteritis?

A

Raw or improperly cooked poultry
Untreated water
Unpasturised milk

Abdominal cramps
Diarrhoea ± blood
Vomiting
Fever

Azithromycin or ciprofloxacin

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6
Q

What is shingella?

A

Spread by faces contaminating drinking water, swimming pools and food.

Symptoms usually resolve within 1 week without treatment

Causes bloody diarrhoea, abdominal cramps and fever

Can produce Shinga toxin and cause HUS

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7
Q

What is Salmonella?

A

Spread by eating raw eggs or poultry

Symptoms usually resolve within 1 week

Watery diarrhoea ± blood or mucus, abdominal pain, vomiting

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8
Q

What is bacilllus cereus?

A

Gram positive rod that is spread through food that’s not refrigerated after cooking

e.g. rice

Vomiting within 5 hours
Diarrhoea within 8 hours
Resolution within 24 hours

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9
Q

What is Giardiasis?

A

Giardia lamblia is a type of microscopic parasite.

Faecal-oral transmission

Diagnosis = stool microscopy

Treatment = metronidazole

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10
Q

What is HIV

A

HIV is an RNA retrovirus

HIV-1 is most common type

Virus enters and destroys the CD4 T-helper cells

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11
Q

What is the transmission of HIV?

A

Unprotected anal, vaginal or oral sexual activity
Mother to child
Mucous membrane, blood or open wound exposure

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12
Q

What are some AIDS defining illnesses?

A
Kaposi's sarcoma
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
CMV
Candidiasis
Lymphomas
Tb
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13
Q

What is the testing for HIV?

A

Antibody blood test - will only become positive 3 months following exposure
p24 antigen testing
PCR testing

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14
Q

What is the monitoring for HIV?

A

CD4 count

The lower the count, the higher the risk of opportunistic infections

500-1200 is normal
<200 considered end stage HIV/AIDS

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15
Q

What is the treatment for HIV?

A

antiretroviral therapies

Prophylactic co-trimoxazole for CD4 <200 to protect against PCP

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16
Q

What is the guidance for pregnant women with HIV?

A

C-section unless mother has undetectable viral load

Newborns to HIV positive mothers should recieve ART for 4 weeks after birth

Breastfeeding is only if viral load is undetectable

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17
Q

What is the post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV?

A

Truvada and ralltegravir for 28 days

combination ART

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18
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

Infectious disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Small rod shaped bacteria (acid-fast bacilli) stains red with Zeihl-Neelsen staining.

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19
Q

What is the presentation of tuberculosis?

A
Lethargy
Fever or night sweats
Weight loss
Cough ± haemoptysis
Lymphadenopathy
Erythema nodosum
Spinal pain
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20
Q

What are the investigations in tuberculosis?

A

Mantoux test = past infection
Ileal biopsy = active infection
Interferon-gamma release assay
CXR

Cultures
NAAT

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21
Q

What is the management for acute pulmonary tuberculosis?

A

RIPE

Rifampicine for 6 months
Isoniazid for 6 months
Pyrazinamide for 2 months
Ethambutol for 2 months

Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy so pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) is co-prescribed

22
Q

What are the types that cause malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum (most common and severe)

Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae

23
Q

What is the presentation of malaria?

A
Non-specific
Fever, sweats and rigors
Malaise
Myalgia
Headache
Vomiting

Signs
Pallor due to anaemia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Jaundice

24
Q

What is the diagnosis of malaria?

A

Blood film

3 samples are sent over 3 consecutive days to exclude malaria

25
What is the management of malaria?
ORAL: 1. Riamet 2. Malarone 3. Quinine sulphate 4. Doxycycline IV: 1. Artesunate 2. Quinine dihydrocloride
26
What are antimalarials?
Proguanil and atovaquone (MALARONE) Mefloquine Doxycycline
27
What is the diagnosis of influenza?
Treatment started based on history and presentation Viral nasal or throat swabs for PRC to confirm diagnosis
28
What is the management of influenza?
Public health monitor the number of cases Antivirals for those with influenza at risk of complications: Oral oseltamivir 75mg twice daily for 5 days OR Inhaled zanamivir 10mg twice daily for 5 days Treatment started within 48hours of symptom onset
29
What is HPV?
Most common cause of cervical cancer. Primary an STI
30
Which types of HPV cause cervical cancers?
16 and 18
31
What is in the HPV vaccine?
Gardasil which protects against 6, 11, 16 and 18. 6 and 11 causes genital warts 16 and 18 causes cervical cancers
32
What is keratitis?
Inflammation of the cornea
33
What are the causes of keratitis?
(most common) Viral: HSV Bacteria: Pseudomonas or staph Fungal: Candida or aspergillus Contact lens
34
What is the presentation of keratitis/
``` Painful red eye Photophobia Vesicles around eye Foreign body sensation Watering eye Reduced visual acuity ```
35
What is the diagnosis of keratitis?
Fluorescein staining shows dendritic corneal ulcer Slit-lamp = DIAGNOSTIC Corneal swabs or scrapings
36
What is the management of keratitis?
Aciclovir Ganciclovir Topical steroids Corneal transplant
37
What is lyme disease?
Caused by spirochaete Borrelia burgdorferi and is spread by ticks
38
What are the early features of lyme disease?
Erythema migrans: - bulls-eye rash - painless Systemic features: - headache - lethargy - fever
39
What are the late features of lyme disease?
AFTER 30 DAYS CVS: - heart block - peri/myocarditis Neruologicall - facial nerve palsy - radicular pain - meningitis
40
What is the investigation and diagnosis of lyme disease?
Can be clinically DIAGNOSED if erythema migrans present | ELISA antibodies are first line repeat 4-6 weeks after if still suspect
41
What is the management of lyme disease?
Doxycycline if early disease | Ceftriaxone if disseminated
42
What is the presentation of mumps?
``` Prodrome symptoms Parotid gland swelling Abdominal pain Testicular pain Confusion ```
43
What is the management of mumps?
Supportive
44
Which organism gives rise to syphilius?
Treponema pallidum
45
What is the management of C. diff?
1. Oral vancomycin 2. IV metronidazole Fecal transplant
46
Most common pathogen for leg cellulitis?
Strep pyogenes
47
What is molluscum contagiosum?
Viral disease of skin transmitted sexual or non-sexually
48
What is the presentation of sexually transmitted molluscum contagiosum?
Multiple lesions on genitalia, lower abdomen and upper thigh
49
What is the diagnosis and management of sexually transmitted molluscum contagiosum?
Clinical diagnosis No management required - self limiting
50
Which medication should be given to patients with CD4 count less than 200?
Co-trimoxazole prophylactically for PCJ pneumonia
51
What is the most common causative organism of cavitating pneumonias in the upper lobe?
Klebsiella
52
What is a common side effect after a viral gastroenteritis?
Transient lactose intolerance