Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Finals > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Which artery is at risk with a femoral neck fracture?

A

Medial circumflex femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which nerve is at risk with humeral shaft fracture?

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which nerve and artery is at risk with a humeral neck fracture?

A

Axillary nerve

Posterior humeral circumflex artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What fracture is suggestive of cancer rather than osteoporosis?

A

Vertebral above T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the cystic artery branch from?

A

Right hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Behcet’s disease?

A

Complex inflammatory condition characteristically presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers.

Link with HLA B51 gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the features of Behcet’s disease?

A

Mouth ulcers (red halo) at least 3/year

Genital ulcers

Skin: erythema nodosum, papules and pustules and vasculitic type rash

Eyes: anterior or posterior uvetitis, retinal vasculitis and retinal haemorrhages

MSK: morning stiffness, arthralgia

GI

CNS: memory impairment, headaches, aseptic meningitis

Veins: Budd-chiari syndrome, DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the investigations of Behcet’s disease?

A

Clinical diagnosis based on features

Pathergy test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management of Behcet’s disease?

A

Topical steroids to mouth ulcers (soluble betamethasone)

Prednisolone

Colchicine

Topical anesthetics e.g. lidocaine

Immunosuppressants

Infliximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the four key changes on xray in osteoarthritis?

A

LOSS

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the management of osteoarthritis?

A
  1. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs
  2. Oral NSAIDs and PPI
  3. Opiates
  4. Intra-articular steroid injections
  5. Joint replacement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the genetic associations of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

HLA DR4

HLA DR1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which antibodies are linked to rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Rheumatoid factor

Cyclic citrullinated peptide antibotides (anti-CCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the xray changes in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Joint destruction and deformity
Soft tissue swelling
Periarticular osteopenia
Boney erosions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the management of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  1. NSAIDs and PPI
  2. one off: methotrexate, lefllunomide or sulfasalazine.
  3. Combination of these two
  4. Methotrexate + biological therapy
  5. Methotrexate + rituximab

Hydroxychloroquinine is the midlest anti-rheumatic drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the signs of psoriatic arthritis?

A

Plaques of psoriasis on the skin
Pitting of nails
Onycholysis
Enthesitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the xray changes seen in psoriatic arthritis?

A 
Periostitis
Ankylosis
Osteolysis
Dactylitis
Pencil-in-cup appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the management of psoriatic arthritis?

A

NSAIDs
DMARDs
Anti-TNF meds
Ustekinumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is reactive arthritis?

A

Where synovitis occurs as a reaction to recent infection.

Known as Reiter Syndrome.

Acute monoarthritis, affecting a single joint.

No infection present

Most common triggers are gastroenteritis and chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the features of reactive arthritis?

A

Bilateral conjunctivitis
Anterior uveitis
Circinate balanitis

Can’t see, pee or climb a tree.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the management of reactive arthritis?

A

Aspirate and send for gram staining, C+S

NSAIDs
Steroid injections
Systemic steroids

Most resolve within 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Inflammatory condition affecting spine that causes progressive stiffness and pain

Linked to HLA-B27

Bamboo spine on xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the presentation of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Young adult malle in late teens or 20s

Slow onset >3months
Lower back pain and stiffness
Sacroiliac pain
Worse with rest and improves with movement
Pain worse at night and in the morning 
Takes 30mins for stiffness to improve

Vertebral fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the investigations in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Inflammatory markers (CRP, ESR)
HLA B27 genetic test
Xray of spine and sacrum
MRI of spine shows bone marrow oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the Xray changes seen in akylosing spondylitis?
Bamboo spine ``` Squaring Subchondral sclerosis Syndesmophytes Ossification Fusion of the facet, sacroiliac and costovertebral joints ```
26
What is the management of ankylosing spondylitis?
NSAIDs Steroids Anti-TNF Secukinumab
27
Where does the trachea bifurcate? (carina)
T4-T5, at the angle of louis
28
What is the action of the parotid gland?
Secretomotor action via glossopharygeal and auricotemporal nerves
29
Which fracture gives dinner form deformity?
Colle's fracture
30
What is osteomalacia?
Condition where there is defective bone mineralisation causing "soft" bones. This is due to a lack of vitamin D
31
What is the presentation of osteomalacia?
``` Fatigue Bone pain Muscle weakness Muscle aches Pathological or abnormal fracture ```
32
What are looser zones in relation to osteomalacia?
Fragility fractures that go partially through the bone
33
What are the investigations in osteomalacia?
Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D <25 - Vit D deficiency 25-50 - Vit D insufficiency >75 - Optimal Low calcium Low phosphate High PTH Osteopenia on xray
34
What is the treatment for osteomalacia>
Supplementary vit D (calciferol) Maintenance dose should be continued lifelong after treatment If insufficient vit D, can be started on maintenance without treatment
35
What is osteoporosis?
Condition where there is reduction in the density of the bones
36
What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?
``` Older age Female Reduced mobility and activity Low BMI Rheumatoid arthritis Alcohol and smoking Long term corticosteroids Post menopausal women ```
37
What is a FRAX tool?
Prediction of the risk of a fragility fracture over the next 10 years A score of 10% or more warrants a DEXA scan
38
What is the management of osteoporosis?
Lifestyle changes Vitamin D and calcium (calciferol) Bisphosphonates - 1st line
39
What is polymyalgia rheumatica?
Inflammatory condition that causes pain and stiffness in the shoulder, pelvic girdle and neck. Strong association to giant cell arteritis
40
What are the core features of polymyalgia rheumatica?
Following present for at least 2 weeks: Bilateral shoulder pain that may radiate to the elbow Bilateral pelvic girdle pain Worse with movement Interferes with sleep Stiffness for at least 45 minutes in the morning
41
What is the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica?
Diagnosis based on clinical presentation and response to steroids. Inflammatory markers raised Bloods and tests to rule out other conditions
42
What is the treatment of polymyalgia rheumatica?
Steroids 1. Prednisolone 15mg/day After 1 week, if poor response consider alterantive diagnosis After 3-4 weeks would expect 70% improvement. If so, reduce regime to get patient off steroids
43
What is sjogren's syndrome and give the different types
Autoimmune condition that affects the exocrine glands. Leads to dry mucous membranes: dry eyes, mouth and vagina Primary sjogren's: where the condition is in isolation Secondary sjogren's where it occurs related to SLE or rheumatoid arthritis
44
What are the antibodies associated with sjogren's?
anti-Ro and anti-La
45
What is the schrimer test?
Diagnostic test for sjogrens If tears travel <10mm is significant (15mm is normal)
46
What is the management of sjogren's?
Artificial tears Artificial saliva Vaginal lubricants Hydroxychloroquine is to used to halt the progression of the disease
47
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel
48
What is the presentation of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Pain/Pins/needles in thumb, index and middle finger Shakes hand for relief at night
49
What is the examination in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Weakness of thumb abduction Wasting of thenar eminence Tinel's sign (tapping causes paraesthesia) Phalen's sign (flexion of wrist causes symptoms)
50
What is the management of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Corticosteroid injection Wrist splints at night Surgical decompression
51
What is chronic fatigue syndrome?
Diagnosed after at least 4 months of disabling fatigue affecting mental and physical function more than 50% of the time.
52
What is gout?
A type of crystal arthropathy associated with high uric acid levels
53
Which are the typical joints affected in gout?
Base of big toe Wrists Base of thumb
54
What is the diagnosis of gout?
Clinically or by aspiration of fluid from joint ``` Aspirated fluid will show: No bacterial growth Needle shaped crystals Negatively birefringent of polarised light Monosodium urate crystals ```
55
What is seen on joint x-ray in gout?
Space between joint maintained Lytic lesions in bone Punched out erosions Erosions can have sclerotic borders with overhanging edges
56
What is the management of gout?
Acute: 1. NSAIDs 2. Colchicine 3. Steroids Prophylaxis: Allopurinol (can be continued during attack) Lifestyle changes
57
What are the features of fibromyalgia?
Chronic pain Lethargy Cognitive impairment Sleep disturbance, headache, dizziness are common
58
What is the diagnosis and management of fibromyalgia?
Clinical CBT Pregabalin, duloxetine, amitriptyline
59
What is osteomyelitis?
Infection in the bone and bone marrow Staph aureus
60
What is the presentation of osteomyelitis
More common in boys <10yr Refusing to weight bear Pain Swelling Tenderness
61
What are the investigations in osteomyelitis?
``` Xrays = initial investigation MRI = best imaging ``` Blood tests: high CRP and ESR Blood culture
62
What is the management of osteomyelitis?
Extensive and prolonged antibiotic therapy. Maybe drainage and debridement of infected bone
63
What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
Genetic condition that results in brittle bones that are prone to fractures. Affects the formation of collagen.
64
What is the presentation of osteogenesis imperfecta?
Recurrent and inappropriate fractures Hypermobility Blue/grey sclera ``` Triangular face Short stature Deafness Dental problems Bone deformities Joint and bone pain ```
65
What is the diagnosis and management of osteogenesis imperfecta?
Clinical diagnosis Bisphosphonates Vitamin D supplementation No cure
66
What is the management of septic arthritis?
Empirical IV antibiotics until sensitivities are known 3-6weeks in total Depending on local guidelines but e.g. 1. Flucloxacillin + rifampicin 2 Vancomycin + rifampicin
67
What is SLE?
Inflammatory autoimmune connective tissue disease Often relapsing-remitting
68
What is the presentation of SLE?
Photosensitive malar rash (butterfly shaped) - worse with sunlight ``` Fatigue Weight loss Myalgia Lymphadenopathy + splenomegaly SOB Mouth ulcers Hair loss ```
69
What are the antibodies associated with SLE?
anti-nuclear antibodies = DIAGNOSTIC anti-double stranded DNA
70
What is the treatment of SLE?
``` First line: NSAIDs Steroids (prednisolone) Hydroxychloroquine Suncream and sun avoidance ``` More Immunosuppressants in more severe lupus Biological therapies
71
What is slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)?
Where the head of the femur is displaced along the growth plate Common in boys 8-15yrs
72
What is the presentation of SUFE?
Hip, groin, thigh or knee pain Restricted range of hip movement Painful limp Restricted movement in the hip
73
What is the diagnosis of SUFE?
Initial = Xray Blood tests Technetium bone scan CT scan MRI scan
74
What is the management of SUFE?
In situ screw fixation
75
Which nerve is at risk in sacrospinous fixation of vault prolapse?
Sciatic
76
What are the functions of the facial nerve?
Carries secretomotor fibres to lacrimal gland through greater petrosal nerves Associated developmentally with 2nd brachial arch Supplies muscles of facial expression Anterior 2/3 taste via chorda tympani Secretomotor to submandibular and sublinguial glands
77
Which nerve and muscle causes winging of the scapula?
Long thoracic nerve | Serratus anterior
78
Name of amputation at ankle joint?
Syme's amputation
79
Which artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach?
Left gastric artery
80
Most common cause of varicose veins?
Long saphenous vein
81
What is meralgia parasthetica?
Entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh (L2, L3)
82
What is the nerve supply for the medial and anterior aspects of the thigh?
Medial: Obturator nerve Anterior: Femoral nerve
83
Which nerve is damaged in a supracondylar fracture and how does it present?
Anterior interosseous nerve Presents with weakness to the R index finger
84
What is Bennett's fracture caused by>
Boxer's injury
85
What is the preferred management of an intertrochanteric (extracapsular) proximal femoral fracture?
Dynamic hip screws
86
What is the preferred management of an intracapsular femoral fracture?
hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement Hemi preferred if frail or if no history of osteoarthritis
87
What is given for rheumatoid flares?
IM methylprednisolone
88
What is used to monitor SLE flares?
Complement levels, levels are usually low during active disease
89
Which score is used to test for hypermobility?
Beighton score
90
Patients with temporal arteritis would most likely have a history of which other condition?
Polymyalgia rheumatica
91
Describe the location of an indirect hernia?
Traverses the inguinal canal through both the superficial and deep rings
92
What is the characteristic feature of hand osteoarthritis?
Squaring
93
Which dermatological condition is associated with rhuematoid arthritis?
Pyoderma gangrenosum

Finals (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions