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Pharmacology > Pharmacological Profiles > Flashcards

Pharmacological Profiles Flashcards

1
Q

Class of drugs that cause a dose-dependent depression of CNS function, inducing sedation, sleep, and unconsciousness with increasing dose.

A

Sedatives & Hypnotics

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2
Q

What are the agents in the Sedative and Hypnotic class?

A

Barbiturates, Benzodiazepine, and melatonin agonists

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3
Q

What drugs have anticonvulsant properties, depress the sensory cortex, decrease motor activity, altar cerebellar function, and produce drowsiness, sedation, and hypnosis, can be used as a sedative, can manage seizures?

A

Barbiturates

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4
Q
  • Phenobarbital
  • Thiopental

are examples of what?

A

Barbiturates

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5
Q

Antianxiety drugs can be subdivided into:

A

1) Benzodiazepines (short term use only)

2) Non-benzodiazepines

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6
Q

1) Alprazolam
2) Diazepam
3) Lorazepam

Are examples of what?

A

Benzodiazepines (PAM & LAM)

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7
Q

1) Buspirone hydrochloride
2) Hydroxyzine
3) Sertraline

Are examples of what?

A

Non-benzo

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8
Q

What are the different classes of antidepressants?

A

1) TCAs: Tricyclic antidepressants
2) MAOI: Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
3) SSRI: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
4) SNRIs: Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
5) Serotonin Reuptake inhibitor/antagonist
6) Dopamine/Norepinephrine-Reuptake Inhibitor

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9
Q

How many weeks can it take for antidepressants to be effective?

A

4-6 weeks

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10
Q

What’s the first line of medication for depression?

A

SSRI:

1) Citalopram
2) Fluoxetine
3) Sertraline
4) Paroxetine

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11
Q

Bupropion is commonly used for what?

A

Smoking cessation

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12
Q

What class of drugs blocks dopamine receptors in the brain; also alter dopamine release and turnover. Peripheral effects include anticholinergic properties and alpha-adrenergic blockade.

A

Antipsychotic

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13
Q

What drug is used in the treatment of intractable hiccups?

A

Chlorpromazine

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14
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is mainly seen in what drug?

A

Haloperidol

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15
Q

Haloperidol
Prochlorperazine
Quetiapine
Olanzapine

Are examples of what?

A

Antipsychotics

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16
Q

What are CNS stimulants subdivided into?

A

Amphetamines and Anorexiants

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17
Q

Produce respiratory stimulation, dilated pupils, increased motor activity and mental alertness, and a diminished sense of fatigue. Used in children with ADHD these agents decrease restlessness and increase attention span. Used in the treatment of narcolepsy.

A

CNS Stimulants (Amphetamines and anorexiants)

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18
Q

1) Methylphenidate HCL
2) Dextroamphetamine

Are examples of what?

A

Amphetamines

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19
Q

Phentermine

Is an example of what?

A

Anorexiants

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20
Q

What class reduces the excitability of neurons in the brain?

A

Anticonvulsant

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21
Q

Anticonvulsants treat seizures but can also be used in the treatment of what?

A

Neuropathic pain and Headache symptoms

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22
Q

What’s an adverse reaction in the eyes caused by taking anticonvulsants?

A

Nystagmus

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23
Q

Benzodiazepines are used to treat status epilepticus. What are some benzo’s that are used as anticonvulsants?

A

1) Diazepam
2) Lorazepam
3) Midazolam
4) Clonazepam

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24
Q

What class of drugs are Phenytoin, Ethosuximide, and Valproic acid?

A

Anticonvulsant

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25
Q

1) Phenothiazines
2) Metoclopramide
3) Odansetron
4) Prochlorperazine
5) Pomethazine

Are all examples of what?

A

Antiemetics

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26
Q

What drugs are classified as antivertigo?

A

1) Meclizine
2) Diphenhydramine
3) Bezodiazepines

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27
Q

What class of drug produces a local anesthesia by inhibiting transport of ions across neuronal membranes, thereby preventing initiation and conduction of normal nerve impulses?

A

Local Anesthetic

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28
Q

What drug causes neuro inhibition and anesthesia, where the patient is dissociated from the surrounding?

A

Ketamine

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29
Q

Removes the feeling or sensation (chemical changes to the nerve impulse).

A

Anesthetic

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30
Q

Alleviates or relieves pain from a patient

A

Analgesic

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31
Q

What are utilized to produce a loss of sensation prior to minor painful procedures?

A

Local Anesthetics

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32
Q

What are the doses of Ketamine for:

1) Analgesia (IV)
2) Analgesia (IM)
3) Induction of anesthesia (IV)
4) Induction of anesthesia (IM)

A
  1. 10-20mg IV (analgesia)
  2. 20-40mg IM (analgesia)
  3. 1-2mg/kg (anesthesia IV)
  4. 4-6mg/kg (anesthesia IM)
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33
Q

What is the most hemodynamically neutral of the sedative-hypnotic agents use for the induction of general anesthesia?

A

Etomidate

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34
Q

What is the IV induction drug of choice for most non-trauma patients because of its rapid onset and recovery, antiemetic properties, and relatively no adverse side effects?

A

Propofol

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35
Q

The use of ketamine increases the risk of what?

A

Laryngospasm

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36
Q

What are the different classes of Analgesics?

A

1) Salicylate
2) Non-salicylate
3) Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID)
4) Urinary analgesics

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37
Q

What class inhibits prostaglandins, dilates peripheral blood vessels (cools body), and prolong bleeding by inhibiting aggregation of platelets?

A

Salicylates

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38
Q

What class of drug’s action is analgesic and antipyretic?

A

Non-salicylate

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39
Q

What drug is often associated with acute liver failure?

A

Acetaminophen

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40
Q

What class of drug is used to decrease risk of myocardial infarction and used in the prevention and treatment of blood clots?

A

Salicylates

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41
Q

What an example of salicylates?

A

Aspirin

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42
Q

What are examples of non-salicylates?

A

1) Acetaminophen

2) Benzocaine-Menthol

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43
Q

What class of drugs inhibit the action of the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX-1 & COX-2 Nonselective or COX-2 Selective)?

A

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAIDS)

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44
Q

What drugs are used for dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation)?

A

NSAIDS

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45
Q

What are some examples of NSAIDS?

A

1) Ibuprofen
2) Indomethacin
3) Ketorolac
4) Naproxen
5) Celecoxib (selective COX 2 inhibitor)
6) Meloxicam (selective COX 2 inhibitor)

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46
Q

What is the first line treatment for Gout?

A

Indomethacin

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47
Q

What is a topical bladder, urethral anesthetic, and analgesic through an known mechanism?

A

Pyridium (100mg TID for 5 days as needed for dysuria)

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48
Q

What class of drug results in the alteration to the perception of and response to pain?

A

Narcotic Analgesics

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49
Q

What are contraindications for giving narcotic analgesics?

A

1) Head injury or Intra-Cranial Pressure
2) Hypoxia
3) Hepatic impairment

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50
Q

What are examples of narcotic analgesics?

A

1) Codeine
2) Fentanyl
3) Hydromorphone
4) Methadone
5) Morphine Sulfate
6) Oxycodone
7) Hydrocodone

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51
Q

What blocks the opioid receptors, preventing the body from responding to opiates and endorphins?

A

Naloxone

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52
Q

Histamines are found where?

A

Highest amount found in basophils (WBC) and mast cells

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53
Q

What type of antihistamines are used to treat allergic reactions, insomnia, motion sickness or vertigo?

A

H1

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54
Q

What type of antihistamines treat gastric acid conditions and relief of Parkinson-like reactions?

A

H2

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55
Q

What are some examples of antihistamines?

A

1) Diphenhydramine
2) Hydroxyzine
3) Promethazine
4) Cetirizine HCL
5) Fexofenadine
6) Loratadine

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56
Q

What class of drug reduces swelling of nasal passages and enhances drainage of sinuses?

A

Decongestant

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57
Q

What are some contraindications for decongestants?

A
  1. Use with caution in hypertension
  2. May worsen prostatic hyperplasia/urinary obstruction
  3. Elderly may be more sensitive
  4. Pregnancy C. Not recommended.
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58
Q

What are examples of decongestants?

A
  1. Oxymetazoline
  2. Pseudoephedrine
  3. Phenylephrine (Nasal/Opthalmic decongestant)
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59
Q

What is drug is notorious for causing rebound congestion when used for more than 3 days consecutively?

A

Oxymetazoline HCL (Afrin)

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60
Q

What class of drug releases stimulants and reuptake inhibitors that increase the levels of endogenous catecholamines? These are found in bronchial smooth muscle and when stimulated cause relaxation (dialation) of bronchioles.

A

Beta2 Agonists

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61
Q

What are some examples of Beta2 agonists?

A
  1. Albuterol sulfate

2. Levalbuterol HCL

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62
Q

What beta2 agonists should you use with caution in patients with diabetes mellitus since it can increase serum blood glucose?

A

Albuterol

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63
Q

What class of drug antagonizes acetylcholine receptors, producing bronchodilation? (anticholinergic)

A

Muscarinic Antagonists

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64
Q

What class of drug would you use for relief or prevention of bronchial asthma and the management of COPD?

A

Muscarinic Antogonists

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65
Q

What class of drug would you use for reversible airway obstruction caused by bronchospasm due to bronchial asthma, exercise-induce bronchospasm, bronchitis, emphysema, and other obstructive pulmonary disorders?

A

Beta2 Agonists

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66
Q

Xanthine Derivatives (-tropium)

  1. Ipratropium
  2. Tiotropium

Are examples of what?

A

Muscarinic antagonist anticholinergics

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67
Q

What class of drug is broncho constrictive substance released by the body during inflammation. Antagonists results in bronchodilation.

A

Leukotriene

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68
Q

What class of drug inhibit the release of substances that cause bronchoconstriction and inflammation from the mast cells in the respiratory tract?

A

Mass Cell stabilizer

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69
Q

What are leukotriene Antagonists and Mast Cell Stabilizers used in the treatment of?

A
  1. Asthma

2. COPD

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70
Q

Aspirin-sensitive asthmatics should avoid what medication?

A

Montelukast

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71
Q

What are examples of a leukotriene receptor antagonist & a mast cell stabilizer?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonist = Montelukast

Mast cell stabilizer = Cromolyn

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72
Q

What class of drug produces profound and varied metabolic effects, in addition to modifying the normal immune response and suppressing inflammation, decrease inflammatory process in the airway through inhibiting multiple different inflammatory cytokines?

A

Inhale Corticosteroids

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73
Q
  1. Budesonide
  2. Fluticasone

Are examples of what?

A

Inhalant Corticosteroids

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74
Q

What class of drug depresses the cough center and anesthetizes stretch receptors?

A

Antitussives

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75
Q
  1. Codeine sulfate
  2. Benzonatate
  3. Dextromethorphan
  4. Diphenhydramine

Are examples of what?

A

Antitussives

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76
Q

What class of drug loosens and mobilizes thick mucus from respiratory system?

A

Expectorants & Mucolytics

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77
Q

What are examples of a mucolytic & a expectorant?

A

Mucolytic = Acetylcysteine

Expectorant = Guaifenesin

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78
Q

Actions of this drug include:

  1. Blockade of Na or K channels
  2. Raise the potential threshold
  3. Block beta receptor stimuli
  4. Block calcium channels
A

Antiarrhythmics

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79
Q

What class of antiarrhythmics depresses myocardial excitability to electrical stimuli thus decreasing the pulse rate?

A

Class 1

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80
Q

What class of antiarrhythmics block stimulation of the beta receptors of the heart?

A

Class 2

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81
Q

What class of antiarrhythmics block potassium channels to the heart and are used for ventricular dysrhythmias and atrial fibrillation?

A

Class 3

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82
Q

What antiarrhythmic class blocks calcium channels which are critical in the production of muscle contraction and electrical conduction?

A

Class 4

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83
Q

Lidocaine HCL, Amiodarone, Metoprolol, Verapamil, and Diltiazem are all examples of what classification?

A

Cardiac antiarrhythmics

84
Q

What class or drug has a direct effect on smooth muscle of blood vessels?

A

Nitrates

85
Q

What is used in the treatment of angina pectoris?

A

Nitroglycerin

86
Q

Do not give nitroglycerin if their BP is lower than what?

A

Systolic, lower than 100

87
Q

What stage of hypertension is Systolic 130-139 or Diastolic 80-89 mm Hg?

A

Stage 1

88
Q

What stage of hypertension is Systolic >140 or Diastolic >90 mm Hg?

A

Stage 2

89
Q

What percentage of diuretics are used to control hypertensive patients?

A

80%

90
Q

What are the different classes of antihypertension medications?

A
  1. ACE inhibitors, Angiotensin II antagonists (ARBs)
  2. Diuretics
  3. Calcium channel blockers
  4. Beta Blockers
91
Q

What is the action of ACE inhibitors, ARBs?

A

Lower blood pressure by dilating or increasing the size of the arterial blood vessels

92
Q

What converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II?

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE)

93
Q

What antihypertension medication is the 1st line in the treatment for patients with Diabetes?

A

ACE inhibitors, ARBs

94
Q

What adverse effect is often found in 5-20% of patients treated with an ACE inhibitor?

A

Dry cough

begins 1-2 weeks; can be delayed up to 6 months

95
Q

What is a contraindication for prescribing ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

A
  1. Caution with renal or hepatic disease

2. Electrolyte imbalance

96
Q

What class of medication is:

  1. Lisinopril
  2. Captropril
  3. Enalapril
  4. Ramipril
A

ACE inhibitors (-pril)

97
Q

What class of medication causes peripheral vasodilation by inhibiting calcium from getting into the muscle to cause contraction?

A

Calcium Channel Blocker

98
Q

What are the two types of calcium channel blockers, and what do they do?

A

Dihydropyridines - potent vasodilators; no negative effect on cardiac system; primarily used for HTN

Non-dihydropyridines - less potent vasodilators but have a greater effect on cardiac conduction and contractility. Used for stable angina, cardiac arrythmias, and for proteinuria reduction.

99
Q

Calcium channel blockers are much more common in what types of patients?

A

Older and black patients with HTN

100
Q

Nifedipine, Felodipine, Nicardipine, Almodipine are all examples of what?

A

Dihydropyridines (CCBs)

DIPPING (dipine)

101
Q

Verapamil and Diltiazem are examples of what?

A

Non-dihydropyridines (CCBs)

102
Q

What class is used in the management of HTN, angina pectoris, tachyarrhythmia, hypertrophic subaortic stenosis, migraine headache, MI prevention, glaucoma, CHF, and hyperthyroidism symptoms?

A

Beta Blockers

Metoprolol
Propanolol

end in -olol

103
Q

What type of diuretic leads to the excretion of sodium, potassium, bicarbonate and water?

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

104
Q

What type of drug is used to treat open angle glaucoma, Edema due to CHF, and HTN?

A

Diuretics

105
Q

What cross-sensitivity are you worried about when prescribing diuretics?

A

Sulfonamides

106
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are also called what?

A

Statins

107
Q

What inhibits an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis and is the most commonly prescribed anti-hyperlipidemic?

A

Statins (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors)

108
Q

Rhabdomyolysis, constipation, abd cramps, nausea, and liver dysfunction are adverse effects of what?

A

Anti-hyperlipidemics

109
Q

What kind of labs do you need prior to prescribing anti-hyperlipidemics?

A

LFTs, Lipid panel, and Chemistry

110
Q

How many weeks would you allow the patient to make lifestyle changes prior to starting anti-hyperlipidemics?

A

6-8 weeks

111
Q

Cholestyramine, colestipol, and colesevelam are examples of what?

A

Bile acid sequestrants

Chole/cole

112
Q

What is used to treat heartburn, GERD relief, sour stomach, acid indigestion, and peptic ulcers?

A

Antacids

113
Q

What type of antacids produce constipation?

A

Aluminum & calcium containing antacids

114
Q

What are contraindications to prescribe antacids?

A

Unknown abdominal pain

Sodium containing antacids: HTN/CHF
Calcium containing antacids: Renal calculi or hypercalcemia

115
Q

What do Histamine H2 antagonists do?

A

Inhibit actions of H2 receptor cells of the stomach which then reduces the secretion of gastric acid.

116
Q

What is used to treat gastric or duodenal ulcers, gastric hyper secretory conditions, GERD, prevention of stress related ulcers, and acute upper GI tract bleed?

A

Histamine H2 Antagonists

117
Q

Cimetidine, Famotidine, and ranitidine are all examples of?

A

Histamine H2 Antagonist

rantidine has been withdrawn by the FDA

118
Q

What class’s action suppresses gastric acid secretion by blocking the final step in the production of gastric acid in the gastric mucosa

A

Proton Pump Inhibitors

119
Q

When pregnant and in need of treatment of GERD, what class of medication is recommended?

A

Proton Pump Inhibitors

120
Q

High doses and chronic use of Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs) can lead to what?

A

Osteoporosis

121
Q

Omeprazole, Esomeprazole, Pantoprazole, Lansoprazole, and Rabeprazole are examples of what?

A

Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)

prazole

122
Q

What deceases intestinal peristalsis?

A

Antidiarrheal (loperamide)

123
Q

What class of medication is simethicone?

A

Antiflatulant

124
Q

Long term use of laxatives can result in a dependency called?

A

“Laxative Habit”

125
Q

Hemorrhoid agents are used on what type of hemorrhoids?

A

Inflamed

126
Q

Excessive or prolonged use of hemorrhoid agents may lead to what?

A

Atrophy of the affected tissues

127
Q

Increase excretion of sodium and chloride by inhibiting the reabsorption of these ions in the distal proximal tubules and the loop of Henle

A

Loop Diuretics

128
Q

Increase the density of the filtrate in the glomerulus; prevents reabsorption of water; salt and chloride follow water

A

Osmotic Diuretics

129
Q

Decreases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidney and increases potassium retention

A

Potassium Sparing diuretics

130
Q

Inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidney

A

Thiazide diuretics

131
Q

Diuretics used in the management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension and elevated pressure (glaucoma)

A

Acetazolamide (Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor)

132
Q

Diuretics used to treat edema associated to CHF, cirrhosis of liver, renal disease, or acute pulmonary edmea

A

Furosemide (Loop diuretic)

133
Q

Diuretic used for the management of elevated intracranial pressure and cerebral edema

A

Mannitol (Osmotic diuretics)

134
Q

Diuretic that maybe by used as additional therapy for HTN; can treat ascites due to cirrhosis, heart failure

A

Spironolactone (potassium sparing diuretics)

135
Q

What type of diuretic is the first line indication for managing hypertension in the absence of any contraindication?

A

Thiazide diuretics (Chlorthalidone (preferred) or Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ))

136
Q

Oral antidiabetics are used to treat what?

A

Type 2 diabetes not controlled with diet and exercise

137
Q

Lowers blood glucose by stimulating beta cells of panaceas to make more insulin

A

Sulfonylureas

138
Q

Reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity

A

Biguanides

139
Q

Lower blood sugar by delaying digestion of carbs and absorption

A

Glucosidase inhibitors

140
Q

Antidiabetic that stimulates release of insulin

A

Meglitinides

141
Q

Decrease insulin resistance and increase insulin sensitivity

A

Thiazolidinediones

142
Q

Glyburide is what type of antidiabetic?

A

Sulfonylureas

143
Q

Metformin is what type of antidiabetic?

A

Biguanides

144
Q

Pioglitazone is what type of antidiabetic?

A

Thiazolidinediones

145
Q

What antidiabetic can result in lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal impairment?

A

Biguanides (Metformin)

146
Q

What antidiabetic can cause or exacerbate CHF in some patients?

A

Thiazolidinediones (Pioglitazone)

147
Q

Thyroid hormones can take up to how many weeks to see effects?

A

6 weeks; can be seen as soon as 48 hours

148
Q

Example of a drug used in replacement therapy when a patient is hypothyroid?

A

Levothyroxine

149
Q

What are the contraindications for Levothyroxine?

A
  1. Myocardial infarction

2. Thyrotoxicosis

150
Q

What are contraindications for Methyltestosterone?

A
  1. Liver disorders
  2. Serious cardiac disease
  3. Prostate gland disorders
  4. Breast cancer in males; prostate cancer
151
Q

Protein anabolism, thinning of the cervical mucus, inhibitions of ovulation

A

Estrogen

152
Q

Prevents maturation of the ovarian follicle and ovulation; secreted by the corpus luteum, the placenta, and adrenal cortex

A

Progestin

153
Q

Norethindrone, Drospirenone, and Levonorgestrel are examples of what?

A

Progestin only pills (POPs)

154
Q

1.5mg as soon as possible within 72 hours of unprotected sex or 0.75mg as soon as possible and a second dose of 0.75 within 12 hours after first dose

A

Levonorgestrel (Emergency Contraceptive)

155
Q

What is used in Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives (COCs)?

A

Ethinyl estradiol (combined with progestin only pill drug of choice)

156
Q

Fixed dose of estrogen and progestin

A

Monophasic (COC)

157
Q

Deliver hormones similar to the levels naturally produced by the body to provide lower doses with the same degree of effectiveness

A

Biphasic and Triphasic (COC)

158
Q

What is increased risk of females 35 and older that use tobacco and on COCs?

A

Thromboembolic

159
Q

Acyclovir, Vancyclovir, Penciclovir, Oseltamivir are all examples of what?

A

Antivirals

160
Q

Antivirals are contraindicated in patients with:

A

CHF, seizures, or renal disease

161
Q

What can you use to treat superficial infections, tinea pedis, tinea cruris, tinea corporis, onychomycosis, cutaneous GI and vaginal yeast infections, Deep mycotic infections (lungs)

A

Antifungals

162
Q

Antifungal that can cause hepatic toxicity, in which case the drug must be discontinued immediately

A

Oral ketoconazole

163
Q

Clotrimazole and tolnaftate are what?

A

Topical antifungals

164
Q

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, and terbinafine

A

Systemic antifungals

165
Q

What antifungal is impaired when the drug is taken with histamine antagonist and antacids

A

Ketoconazole

166
Q

Used as a muscle relaxer and an antianxiety drug

A

Diazepam

167
Q

Muscle relaxer that has an effect on muscle tone, thus reducing muscle spasms

A

Cyclobenzaprine

168
Q

Cyclobenzaprine, methocarbamol, metaxalone, diazepam, baclofen are all examples of what?

A

Muscle relaxers

169
Q

Hormones secreted from the adrenal cortex made from the crystalline steroid alcohol cholesterol

A

Corticosteroids

170
Q

Contraindications for corticosteroids include:

A

Serious infections such as tuberculosis and fungal infections

171
Q

Hydrocortisone, prednisone, triamcinolone, methylprednisolone, dexamethasone are all examples of what

A

Corticosteroids

172
Q

What can be used for allergic reactions, COPD and asthma exacerbations, SLE (lupus) or other autoimmune disorders

A

Corticosteroids

173
Q

Acts on intracranial blood vessels and sensory nerves of the trigeminal system; causes vasoconstriction and reduces neurogenic inflammation associated with antidromic neuronal transmission

A

Antimigraine (-TRIPTAN)

  • Rizatriptan
  • Sumatriptan
174
Q

Adverse reactions include tingling sensation, dizziness, vertigo, chest tightness, chest pain

A

Antimigraine (-TRIPTAN)

  • Rizatriptan
  • Sumatriptan
175
Q

Contraindications include peripheral vascular disease, controlled HTN, Coronary vasospasm, ischemic heart disease

A

Antimigraine (-TRIPTAN)

  • Rizatriptan
  • Sumatriptan
176
Q

What specifically can not be prescribed to a patient diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

A

-Rizatriptan

177
Q

Inhibits sodium ion influx through nerve cell membrane channels in parasites resulting in delayed repolarization and thus paralysis and death of the pest

A

Scabicide

-Permethrin

178
Q

Bacitracin and mupirocin are examples of:

A

Topical antibiotic

179
Q

Clotrimazole, ketoconazole, and miconazole are examples of what?

A

Antifungals

180
Q

Acyclovir & Penciclovir are examples of:

A

Topical antivirals

181
Q

Do not use topical anti-infectives on what?

A

Extensive burns or tropic ulceration when extensive absorption can occur

182
Q

A drug that removes excess growth of the epidermis in disorders

A

Keratolytic

  • Podofilox (0.5%)
  • Salicylic acid (gel 17%)
183
Q

How many categories are there for drugs that treat Otic disorders?

A

Three

1) Antibiotic
2) Antibiotic & Steroid combination
3) Miscellaneous

184
Q

What would you use to treat otitis externa?

A
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • 1% Hydrocortisone, 3.3mg neomycin sulfate
  • Aluminum acetate/acetic acid
185
Q

What type of antibiotics are used to treat conjunctivitis, corneal ulcer, and other superficial infections of the eye?

A

Sulfonamides

186
Q

What is used to treat Herpes simplex of the eye?

A

Acyclovir (ophthalmic)

187
Q

What is used to prevent cytomegalovirus?

A

Ganciclovir (ophthalmic)

188
Q

Contraindications are hypersensitivity, epithelial herpes simplex, varicella, mycobacterial, fungal disorders

A

Antibiotic ointments

189
Q

Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT) is contraindicated in patients with:

A
  • Allergies to soya

- Cardiovascular disease

190
Q

Enhances central nervous system noradrenergic and dopaminergic release

A

Antidepressant (smoking cessation)

-Bupropion

191
Q

What smoking cessation drug can be used in patients with stable Cardiovascular disease or COPD?

A

Bupropion

192
Q

Bupropion is contraindicated with patients who have:

A

Seizure disorder

193
Q

What is more effective in producing six months of tobacco abstinence than other agents and is safe in patients with COPD?

A

Varenicline

194
Q

What blocks nicotine from binding to the receptor interrupting the reinforcing effects of nicotine that lead to nicotine dependence?

A

Varenicline

195
Q

What smoking cessation drug can have adverse effects including nausea and disordered sleep, including insomnia and abnormal or vivid dreams?

A

Varenicline

196
Q

When prescribing patients varenicline what should you warn them about?

A

May cause CNS depression, cautioned before performing tasks that require mental alertness (heavy machinery, driving)

197
Q

What class of drug acts on the brain’s dopamine receptors?

A

Non-benzo

198
Q

What class of drug binds to specific receptors in the GABA receptor complex, which enhances the binding of the inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

Benzodiapines

199
Q

What is used in the treatment of schizophrenia when conventional therapy dose not work?

A

Clozapine

200
Q

Release stimulants and reuptake inhibitors that increase the levels of endogenous catecholamines.

A

Beta2 Agonists

201
Q

Inhibit transport of ions across neuronal membranes thereby preventing initiation and conduction of normal nerve impulses.

A

Local Anesthetics

202
Q

Medication used for bronchial spasm, bronchitis, bronchial asthma, emphysema?

A

Beta2 Agonists

203
Q

Mucolytics (Acetylcysteine) is used for what?

A

Bronchopulmonary diseases

204
Q

Expectorants (Guaifenesin) is used for what?

A

Common cold

205
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors should not be used with what medication?

A

Nitroglycerin

206
Q

What medication would you consider to help speaking in front of groups?

A

Beta blockers

207
Q

Stimulates peripheral glucose uptake and stimulates the synthesis of glycogen by the liver. Promotes protein synthesis and helps the body store fat by preventing its breakdown for energy.

A

Insulin

Pharmacology (8 decks)

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