Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

The transfer of the drug from the body fluids to the tissues

A

Absorption

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2
Q

Water soluble drugs have what kind of absorption?

A

Passive absorption

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3
Q

When does drug bioavailability occur?

A

After it’s metabolized

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4
Q

What increases half-life in patients, which can increase toxicity?

A

Kidney, liver disease, and old age

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5
Q

What neutralizes the effects of heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

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6
Q

How long before meals should PPI’s be taken?

A

1 hour

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7
Q

How much analgesic properties do benzodiazepines have?

A

NONE

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8
Q

How long should patients lie down after taking benzo’s?

A

30 minutes

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9
Q

Increase levels of norepinephrine and serotonin by inhibiting their reuptake and block the action of acetylcholine

A

TCA’s

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9
Q

Increase levels of norepinephrine and serotonin by inhibiting their reuptake and block the action of acetylcholine

A

TCA’s

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10
Q

Increase serotonin by inhibiting neuronal uptake to CNS

A

SSRI

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11
Q

Trazodone is what class of antidepressant?

A

Serotonin Reuptake inhibitor/antagonist

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12
Q

May experience an aura with perceptual alterations and hallucinations

A

Psychomotor Seizure

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13
Q

Alternate contraction and relaxation of muscles

A

Tonic-clonic

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14
Q

Sudden, forceful contraction involving the musculature of the trunk, neck, extremities

A

Myoclonic seizures

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15
Q

What is used to treat patients with generalized convulsive status epilepticus (GCSE)?

A

Benzodiapines

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16
Q

What is classified as GCSE?

A

5 minutes or more of continuous seizure activity or more than 1 seizure without recovery in-between

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17
Q

What acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to inhibit nausea and vomiting?

A

Penothiazines

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18
Q

What decreases nausea and vomiting by its effects on gastric emptying?

A

Metoclopramide

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19
Q

What blocks effects of serotonin at 5-HT3 receptor sites?

A

Ondansetron

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20
Q

Use phenothiazines in children when you suspect what?

A

They have a viral disease

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21
Q

What causes Reye Syndrome in children with chickenpox or influenza?

A

Asprin

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22
Q

Naloxone releases what?

A

Catecholamines

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23
Q

Releases stimulants and reuptake inhibitors that increase the levels of endogenous catecholamines

A

Beta2 Agonists

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24
Q

Antagonizes acetylcholine receptors, producing bronchodilation

A

Muscarinic Antagonists

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25
Q

Antitussive Central Acting =

A

Depresses cough center

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26
Q

Antitussive peripheral acting =

A

Anesthizes stretch receptors

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27
Q

What antiarrhythmic class is used for ventricular dysrhythmias and Atrial fibrillation?

A

Class 3

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28
Q

Direct relaxing effect on smooth muscle of blood vessels

A

Nitrates

29
Q

HTN Management Step 2

A

Use a thiazide diuretic, ACE-I, ARB, CCB

30
Q

HTN Management Step 3:

A

Increase dose of drugs or combine 2 drugs

31
Q

HTN Management step 4

A

Combine 2-3 drugs, Increase the dose

32
Q

Stimulates the secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex on the kidney

A

ACE Inhibitors

33
Q

Causes peripheral vasodilation

A

CCBs

34
Q

Can cause hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchospasm

A

Beta Blockers

35
Q

Inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidney

A

Thiazide diuretic

36
Q

Reduces VLDL and stimulates the catabolism of triglyceride-rich lipoproteins

A

Fenofibrate

37
Q

Antacid that can cause severe diarrhea, dehydration, and hypermagnesemia

A

Magnesium containing

38
Q

Antacid that can cause rebound hyperacidity and metabolic alkalosis

A

Calcium containing

39
Q

Stimulates peripheral glucose uptake and stimulates the synthesis of glycogen by the liver

A

Insulin

40
Q

Lowers blood glucose by stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to make more insulin

A

Sulfonylureas

41
Q

Reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity in muscle and fat cells

A

Biguanides

42
Q

Stimulates the release of insulin

A

Meglitinides

43
Q

Decreases insulin resistance and increases insulin sensitivity

A

Thiazolidinediones

44
Q

Influences every organ and tissue in the body

A

Thyroid hormones

45
Q

Active against bacteria

A

Antibacterial

46
Q

Not used near end of pregnancy or significant blood levels can occur. Use with caution in patients with bronchial asthma

A

Sulfonamides

47
Q

H. Ployri treatment

A

Clarithromycin, amoxicillin and a PPI

48
Q

Treat lower respiratory infections (acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis), Acute Pyelonephritis, Diverticulitis, Atypical pneumonia

A

Fluoroquinolones

49
Q

Because of severe effects, reserve fluoroquinolones for patients who have no other options for:

A

Uncomplicated UTI’s, Chronic bronchitis, and acute bacterial Sinusitis

50
Q

Exert their bactericidal effect by blocking a step in protein synthesis necessary for multiplication, disrupt the functional ability of the cell membrane

A

Aminoglycosides

51
Q

Bacterial Meningitis treatment

A

Aminoglycoside with penicillin or ampicillin

52
Q

Complicated UTI Treatment

A

Aminoglycosides

53
Q

Extended spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBL)

A

Caarbapenems

54
Q

Enzymes that open the beta-lactam ring, inactivating the antibiotic

A

Beta-lactamases

55
Q

Treats anaerobic bacterial infections (Clostridium, Bacteroides spp., B. Fragilis), GYN Infections, Antiprotozoal (Giardiasis & Amebiasis)

A

Amebicide, Antiprotozoal, and Nitroimidazole

56
Q

Amebiases, Giardiasis, Vaginal Trichomoniasis treatment

A

Tinadazole

57
Q

Changes cell wall surface, decrease adherence of bacteria to host cells

A

Lincosomide

58
Q

Bite wound, MRSA, Toxic Shock Syndrome treatment

A

Lincosomide

59
Q

Appears to have an effect on muscle tone, thus reducing muscle spasms

A

Cyclobenzaprine

60
Q

SLE treatment

A

Corticosteroids

61
Q

What causes Cushing’s Syndrome?

A

Corticosteroids

62
Q

Prolonged use of Otic preparations may result in what?

A

Superinfection

63
Q

Aluminum Acetate, Ciprofloxacin, or Cortisporin can treat what?

A

Otitis Externa

64
Q

Used for Herpes eye infection

A

Acyclovir

65
Q

Prevention of cyomegalovirus

A

Ganciclovir

66
Q

Artificial tears, Erythromycin ointment, Ciprofloxacin, Ganciclovir are all what?

A

Ophthalmic Preparations

67
Q

NRT examples come in what forms?

A
Transdermal patch
Gum
Inhaler 
Nasal Spray
Lozenges
68
Q

What kind of cough are antitussives used for?

A

Non-productive

69
Q

Who does the Working Stock Custodian notify if there has been any transactions?

A

Senior CSIB member

70
Q

What do you do if a controlled substance has been lost in transit?

A

Consignee must submit a sworn statement of the facts with the DEA form 106

71
Q

What may decrease athletic performance due to higher resting heart rate?

A

Thermogenics