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CCFD 42A Pharmacology > Pharmacodynamics & Pharmacokinetics Notes > Flashcards

Pharmacodynamics & Pharmacokinetics Notes Flashcards

1
Q

What is a medication?

A

a substance used to treat an illness or condition

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2
Q

What is a drug?

A

any substance that produces a physiologic effect, whether therapeutic or not

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3
Q

Define pharmacology.

A

the scientific study of how various substances interact with or alter the function of living organisms

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4
Q

The Pure Food and Drug Act of ___ changed (implemented) what?

A

1906; prohibited the altering or mislabeling of medications

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5
Q

The ___ ___ ___ passed in 1909 prohibited opium importation

A

Opium Exclusion Act

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6
Q

This act, passed in 1914, restricted the use of various opiates including cocaine

A

Harrison Narcotics Act

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7
Q

What act gave the FDA enforcement authority for rules requiring that new drugs be safe and pure?

A

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

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8
Q

What act implemented a classification system, or schedule, for medications based on the potential for abuse?

A

Controlled Substance Act (aka Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act)

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9
Q

The Controlled Substance Act was passed in ___

A

1970

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10
Q

A Schedule I medication has the (highest/lowest) potential for abuse

A

highest

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11
Q

Schedule ___ medications cannot be prescribed, dispense, used, or administered for medical use

A

Schedule I

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12
Q

Schedule II medications have a high potential for abuse but ___ __ __ __ ___

A

have a legitimate medical purpose/application

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13
Q

Schedule III medications have a (higher/lower) potential for abuse compared to Schedule II medications

A

lower

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14
Q

A Schedule V medication has a (higher/lower) potential for abuse compare to Schedule II medications

A

lower

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15
Q

What does the term “off-label” mean?

A

refers to a situation in which medication is used at different doses or different routes than approved by the FDA

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16
Q

What is a capsule?

A

powdered or solid medication enclosed in a dissolvable cylindrical gelatin shell

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17
Q

What is a tablet?

A

Solid medication particles bound into a shape designed to dissolve or be swallowed

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18
Q

What is a powder?

A

Small particles of medication designed to be dissolved or mixed into a solution or liquid

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19
Q

What is a parenteral solution?

A

sterile solution for direct injection into a body cavity, tissue, or organ

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20
Q

What is suppository?

A

medication in a wax-like material that dissolves in the rectum

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21
Q

What are the three different names given to a medication?

A

Chemical, non-proprietary (generic), and brand name

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22
Q

The ___ ___ ___ classifies medications based on amount of evidence and relative importance

A

American Heart Association (AHA)

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23
Q

What are the five categories of evidence, as defined by the AHA?

A

Class(es) I, IIa, IIb, III, and Indeterminate

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24
Q

Class I evidence suggests…

A

there is strong evidence supporting the use of the medication for the condition

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25
Q

Class IIa evidence suggests…

A

there is moderate evidence supporting the use of the medication for the condition

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26
Q

Class IIb evidence suggests…

A

there is weak evidence supporting the use of the medication for the condition

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27
Q

Class III evidence suggests…

A

the evidence does not support that there is a benefit and may, in fact, support that there is a harmful consequence (treatment may not be helpful and may be harmful)

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28
Q

Class Indeterminate evidence suggests…

A

research is either just beginning or is in process for a medication, there are no recommendations for or against a medication

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29
Q

The United States Pharmacopoeia - National Formula (USP-NF) recommends that medication be stored between ___ and __ degrees Celsius

A

15 - 30 degrees Celsius (59 - 86 degrees Fahrenheit)

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30
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

the action of the body on a medication

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31
Q

What are the body’s four responses to medication administration?

A

Absorption, distribution, (possibly) biotransformation, and elimination

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32
Q

___ chemcials occur naturally in the body

A

endogenous

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33
Q

There are ___ sites in proteins connected to cells throughout the body

A

receptor

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34
Q

Activation of a receptor site can produce one of ___ possible actions

A

four

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35
Q

One of the possible actions when a receptor sites is activated is that channels permitting the passage of ___ in cell walls are opened or closed

A

ions

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36
Q

One of the possible actions when a receptor sites is activated is that a ___ ___ becomes activated, initiating other chemical reactions within the cell

A

biochemical messenger

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37
Q

One of the possible actions when a receptor sites is activated is that a normal cell function is ___

A

prevented

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38
Q

One of the possible actions when a receptor sites is activated is that a normal or abnormal function of the cell ___

A

begins

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39
Q

____ chemicals are found outside the body

A

exogenous

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40
Q

What are agonist medications?

A

medications that initiate or alter a cellular activity by attaching to receptor sites

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41
Q

___ medications prompt a cell response

A

Agonist

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42
Q

Agonists can be referred to as (activators/blockers)

A

activators

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43
Q

What are antagonist medications?

A

medications that prevent agonist chemicals from reaching cell receptor sites

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44
Q

Antagonists medications can be referred to as (activators/blockers)

A

blockers

45
Q

What is affinity?

A

the ability of a medication to bind with a particular receptor site

46
Q

What does the term “threshold level” refer to?

A

the concentration of medication at which initiation or alteration of cellular activity begins

47
Q

In regards to threshold level, an increase on medication concentration causes a (increase/decrease) in effect until all receptor sites become occupied

A

increase

48
Q

What is potency?

A

the concentration of medication required to initiate a cellular response

49
Q

As potency increases, the concentration or dose required for cellular response (increases/decreases)

A

decreases

50
Q

If potency is low, a (high/low) concentration or dose is required to initiate a cellular response

A

high

51
Q

What does the term “efficacy” refer to?

A

the ability to initiate or alter a cell activity

52
Q

Once all the cellular receptor sites become bound with agonist medication, what happens to cellular activity?

A

activity plateaus and no further increase is possible until more receptor sites become available

53
Q

___ medications can be competitive or non-competitive

A

antagonist

54
Q

___ antagonists temporarily bind with receptor sites displacing agonist chemicals

A

competitive

55
Q

Noncompetitive antagonists (temporarily/permanently) bind with receptor sites

A

permanently

56
Q

The effects of noncompetitive antagonists chemicals will continue until…

A

new receptor sites or new cells are created

57
Q

What is a partial agonist chemical

A

binds to the receptor site but does not initiate as much cellular activity or change as other agonists

58
Q

Medications are often given based on the patient’s Ideal Body Weight (IBW); what is the formula for calculating a male’s IBW?

A

kg = 50 + (2.3 x height in inches over 5 feet)

59
Q

Medications are often given based on the patient’s Ideal Body Weight (IBW); what is the formula for calculating a female’s IBW?

A

kg = 45.5 + (2.3 x height in inches over 5 feet)

60
Q

What are the five pregnancy risk categories?

A

A, B, C, D, and X

61
Q

The pregnancy risk category A implies that…

A

the medication fails to demonstrate a risk to the fetus

62
Q

The pregnancy risk category B implies that…

A

the medication tested on animals shows no demonstrated fetal risk but has not been tested on humans

63
Q

The pregnancy risk category C implies that…

A

results of human and animal studies are not available or animal tests have shown no risk to fetus and there are no controlled human studies

64
Q

The pregnancy risk category D implies that…

A

there is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use may be acceptable (life-saving medications)

65
Q

The pregnancy risk category X implies that…

A

studies in animals and/or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities (use clearly outweighs any potential benefits)

66
Q

What does cumulative action mean?

A

several smaller doses of a medication produce the same desired clinical effect as a larger single dose

67
Q

Why would the concept of cumulative action be beneficial for the patient?

A

allows for the same therapeutic benefit while decreasing the risks associated with administering too much of a medication at once

68
Q

What is an idiosyncratic medication response?

A

an adverse effect that is completely unexpected and not previously known to occur

69
Q

What is LD50?

A

weight-based dose of a medication that causes death in 50% of animals tested (LD= lethal dose)

70
Q

What is TD50?

A

50% of animals tested had toxic effects at or above this weight-based dose (TD = toxic dose)

71
Q

What is ED50?

A

Weight-based dose in which 50% of animals tested demonstrated positive effect (ED = effective dose)

72
Q

The therapeutic index represents the relationship between ___ and LD50/TD50

A

ED50 (effective dose)

73
Q

If the therapeutic index is large (the ratio of ED50: LD50/TD50) the medication is considered ___

A

safe

74
Q

If the therapeutic index is small (the ratio of ED50: LD50/TD50), the medication is considered ___

A

unsafe

75
Q

What is cross-tolerance?

A

the body can become tolerant of medications within the same class

76
Q

When repeated doses of a medication are given within a short time, a phenomenon know as ___ can occur

A

tachyphylaxis

77
Q

What is tachyphylaxis

A

rapidly acquired tolerance to repeated doses of a medication in a relatively short amount of time rendering the medication virtually ineffective

78
Q

What is medication interference?

A

undesirable medication interactions

79
Q

AS patients are prescribed a greater number of medications to treat chronic medical conditions, the risk of medication interference (increases/decreases) dramatically.

A

increases

80
Q

What does the term bio-availability mean?

A

percentage of unchanged medication that reaches systemic circulation

81
Q

Medications administered via IV have ___ % bio-availability

A

100%

82
Q

GI medications are subject to __-___ metabolism

A

first-pass

83
Q

During first-pass metabolism, medication passes from the GI tract into the ___ ___ and then travels directly to the liver

A

portal vein

84
Q

In the liver, medication is ___ potentially inactivating it before it ever reaches systemic circulation

A

metabolised

85
Q

Although not preferred, if you absolutely had to administer a medication through an ET tube you should administer __ - __ times the IV dose followed by a 5-10 mL flush

A

2-2.5

86
Q

Medications undergoing biotransformation are called ____

A

metabolites

87
Q

Metabolites can be either ___ or ___

A

active / inactive

88
Q

What are active metabolites?

A

Metabolites capable of some pharmacological activity

89
Q

What are inactive metabolites?

A

metabolites no longer capable of altering a cell process or activity

90
Q

Most biotransformation occurs in the ___

A

liver

91
Q

The two distinct patterns of metabolism and elimination are ___-___ and ___-___ elimination

A

Zero-order elimination and first-order elimination

92
Q

During ___ -___ elimination, a fixed amount of a substance is removed during a certain period (regardless of the total amount in the body)

A

zero-order elimination

93
Q

During ___-___ elimination, the rate of elimination is directly influenced by the plasma levels of the substance

A

first-order

94
Q

During ___-___ elimination, the more substance that is present in the plasma the more the body works to eliminate the substance

A

first-order

95
Q

The majority of medications undergo __-__ elimination

A

first-order

96
Q

First-order elimination is quantified by __-__

A

half-life

97
Q

What is half-life in reference to medications?

A

time needed in an average person for metabolism of elimination of 50% of the substance in the plasma

98
Q

The heart has only one receptor for ___ agents

A

beta (B1)

99
Q

A beta-1 agonist will (increase/decrease) the body’s heart rate

A

increase

100
Q

Alpha agonists will cause ___ in the arteries

A

vasoconstriction

101
Q

Beta agonists will cause the arteries to ___

A

vasodilate

102
Q

Similar to arteries, the ___ have both alpha and beta receptors

A

lungs

103
Q

Alpha agonists cause minor __ in the lungs

A

bronchoconstriction

104
Q

Beta agonists cause the lungs to ___

A

bronchodilate

105
Q

Sympathomimetric drugs ___ the actions of naturally occurring sympathetic chemicals

A

mimic

106
Q

What are the two types of beta sympathetic agents?

A

beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic agents

107
Q

Beta-1 adrenergic agents act primarily on __ beta receptors

A

cardiac

108
Q

___ adrenergic agents act primarily on pulmonary beta receptors

A

beta-2

109
Q

Sympatholytic drugs ___ the action of sympathetic agents

A

block

CCFD 42A Pharmacology (6 decks)

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