Pharma Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

5 HT1 partial agonist used for generalized anxiety disorder

A

Buspirone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

long acting inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase used for treatment of ethylene glycol and methanol overdose

A

fomepizole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

treatment of acute overdose of ethylene glycol and methanol

A

Fomepizole or

High alcohol levels (IV) then hemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

drugs causing disulfiram-like effects

A
metronidazole
cefoperazone
cefotetan
griseofulvin
chlorpropamide (1st gen SUR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

antiseizure medication that decreases the excitatory effect of glutamic acid by blocking AMPA receptors

A

Topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

antiseizure medication that decreases the excitatory effect of glutamic acid by blocking NMDA receptors

A

Felbamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

dopamine agonists

A

bromocriptine

cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Methimazole used in pregnancy can cause

A

aplasia cutis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Indications of somatostatin (octreotide) (5)

A
Acromegaly
Carcinoid
Glucagonoma
Gastrinoma
Esophageal varices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

antiseizure drug that can cause dilutional hyponatremia (increased ADH)

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DOC for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

antiseizure that is considered safest during pregnancy

A

phenobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

antiseizure used for neuropathic pain (postherpetic neuralgia)

A

Gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

inhaled anesthetic assoc with malignant hyperthermia

A

Halothane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

benzodiazepine used as IV anesthetic with anterograde amnesia

A

Midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

NMDA receptor antagonist used as a dissociative anesthetic

A

ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

motilin receptor agonist used to stimulate intestinal peristalsis

A

erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

opiate of choice for biliary colic

A

meperidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

opioid antagonist used for the reversal of respiratory depression

A

naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

use of this monoclonal antibody can lead to reactivation of latent TB

A

Infliximab

antibody to TNF a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

antibacterial + anti inflam drug activated by colonic bacteria used in IBD

can lead to reversible oligospermia

A

Sulfasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

5-HT3 antagonist used to prevent vomiting in chemotherapy

A

Ondansetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

contraindications for metoclopramide use

A

small bowel obstruction

Parkinson disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MOA of metoclopramide

A

D2 receptor antagonist that increases resting tone, contractility and motility

(used for diabetic and postop gastroparesis and as antiemetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

prevents mast cell degranulation

A

Cromolyn sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MOA of warfarin

A

inhibits the enzyme vit K epoxide reductase needed for maturation of F2,7,9,10, protein C and S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatment of PNH

A

Eculizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Treatment of sickle cell anemia

A

Hydroxyurea (to increase HbF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Effect of corticosteroids on WBC count

A

increased Neutrophils

decreased Lymphocytes and Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

teratogenic effect of lithium

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

malformed tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

side effects of lithium toxicity

A

Na+ like: tremors, seizures, flu like

Endo: hypothyroidism, nephrogenic DI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MOA of lithium

A

decreases PIP2 and CAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

limiting side effect of levodopa

A

dyskinesias

on-off effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

selective MAO-B inhibitor used in the treatment of Parkinson

A

Selegiline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Livedo reticularis is seen as a side effect of which drug

A

Amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

most likely cause of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

haloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

treatment of NMS

A

Dopamine receptor agonists

Dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

atypical antipsychotic that blocks D2C and 5HT2 receptors

A

Clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

antipsychotic drug needing weekly blood test to monitor for agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

atypical antipsychotic
partial agonist of D2
blocks 5HT2

A

Aripiprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

monoclonal antibody used for osteoporosis that decreases RANK/RANK-L interaction to decrease osteoclastic activity and increase bone density

A

Denosumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

treatment of hairy cell leukemia

A

cladribine

pentostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

treatment of toxicity with thrombolytics

A

aminocaproic acid

tranexamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

PDE3 inhibitors that inhibit platelet aggregation by increasing cAMP levels; vasodilators

A

cilostazol

dipyridamole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors

A

abciximab
tirofiban
eptifibatide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

antimetabolites with increased toxicity when given with allopurinol

A

azathioprine
6-mercaptopurine

(bec they are metabolized by xanthine oxidase)

47
Q

Pyrimidine analogs

A

5-FU
Cytarabine
Methotrexate (FA analog)

48
Q

Purine analogs

A

Azathioprine
6-MP
Cladribine

49
Q

toxicity of Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

A

cardiotoxicity

50
Q

clinical use of Imatinib

A

CML (bcr-abl)

GIST (c-kit)

51
Q

EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor used for non-small cell lung CA

A

Erlotinib

52
Q

recombinant uricase used in the prevention and tx of tumor lysis syndrome

A

rasburicase

53
Q

MOA of OCPs in treating hirsutism

A
  • prevents LH surge decreasing ovarian androgen production

- increases SHBG synthesis decreasing free testosterone levels in the blood

54
Q

diuretic that is also a testosterone receptor antagonist used for hirsutism

A

spironolactone

55
Q

Drugs causing gynecomastia

A

“Sayang AKala CoH DeDDe”

Spironolactone
Alcohol
Ketoconazole
Cimetidine
Heroin
Digoxin
Dopamine antagonist
Dope / Marijuana
56
Q

nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgen at the testosterone receptor used for prostate CA

A

Flutamide

57
Q

BRAF kinase inhibitor used for metastatic melanoma

A

Vemurafenib

58
Q

tx of paroxysmal SVT

A
  • vagal stimulation

- adenosine

59
Q

clinical use of aspirin

A
low dose (<300mg) - dec plt aggre
intermediate dose (300-2400) - antipyretic, analgesic
high dose (2400-4000) - anti inflam
60
Q

toxicity of cox-2 inhibitors

A

increased risk of thrombosis

sulfa allergy

61
Q

substance abuse leading to constricted pupils

A
HEROin
Narcotics:
-fentanyl
-morphine
-hydrocodone
62
Q

formula for Km in Michaelis - Menten kinetics

A

Km = [S] at 1/2 vmax

63
Q

tx of Lou - Gehrig disease (ALS)

A

Ri-lu-zole

64
Q

tx of atypical depression

A

SSRI

MAOi

65
Q

uses of carbamazepine

A

anticonvulsant
mood stabilizer
trigeminal neuralgia

66
Q

used to treat PAH by competitively antagonizing endothelin-1 receptors

A

bosentan

67
Q

general tx of anxiety disorders

A

SSRIs

68
Q

tx for delirium tremens

A

benzodiazepines

69
Q

tx of opioid overdose

A

naloxone

naltrexone

70
Q

tx of opioid withdrawal

A

methadone

buprenorphine

71
Q

tx of benzodiazepine overdose

A

flumazenil

72
Q

general tx of anxiety disorders

A

SSRIs

73
Q

tx for delirium tremens

A

benzodiazepines

74
Q

tx of opioid overdose

A

naloxone

naltrexone

75
Q

tx of opioid withdrawal

A

methadone

buprenorphine

76
Q

tx of benzodiazepine overdose

A

flumazenil

77
Q

general tx of anxiety disorders

A

SSRIs

78
Q

tx for delirium tremens

A

benzodiazepines

79
Q

tx of opioid overdose

A

naloxone

naltrexone

80
Q

tx of opioid withdrawal

A

methadone

buprenorphine

81
Q

tx of benzodiazepine overdose

A

flumazenil

82
Q

tx of cocaine intoxication

A

benzodiazepines

83
Q

drugs with disulfiram-like reactions

A
metronidazole
some cephalosporins
1st gen SUR
griseofulvin
procarbazine
84
Q

MOA of CNS stimulants

A

increase catecholamines at synaptic cleft (esp dopamine and norepi)

85
Q

Tx of extrapyramidal symptoms

A

benztropine (anticholinergic)

diphenhydramine (antihistamine)

86
Q

adverse effect of clozapine

A

agranulocytosis
weight gain
seizure

87
Q

MOA of buspirone

A

stimulates 5-HT1A receptors

88
Q

TCA used for OCD

A

clomipramine

89
Q

adverse effects of TCA

A

“3 Cs”

Cardiotoxicity
Coma
Convulsions

90
Q

tx for CV toxicity of TCA

A

Na HCO3

91
Q

tx for serotonin syndrome

A

cyproheptadine

5-HT2 antagonist

92
Q

most common a/e of SNRIs

A

elevated BP

93
Q

drugs that can prolong QT

A

“Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT”

Sotalol
Risperidone
Macrolides
Chloroquine
Protease inhibitors
Quinidine
Thiazides
94
Q

partial B-agonists contraindicated in angina

A

pindolol

acebutolol

95
Q

adverse effects of amiodarone

A

pulmonary fibrosis
hepatotoxicity
hypo/hyperthyroidism

96
Q

beta blockers that decrease mortality in CHF

A

metoprolol
carvedilol
bisoprolol

97
Q

formula for half-life

A

0.693 x Volume of distrib

divided by clearance

98
Q

formula for loading dose

A

steady state conc x Vd

divided by bioavailability

99
Q

formula for maintenance dose

A

steady state conc x clearance x dosing interval

divided by bioavailability

100
Q

drug of choice for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

101
Q

treatment of CaOx stones

A

hydrochlorothiazide

Ca-sparing diuretic

102
Q

immunosuppresive agent that blocks lymphocyte proliferation by preventing IL2 signal transduction

A

Sirolimus

Rapamycin

103
Q

contraindications to the use of Mannitol

A

anuria

CHF

104
Q

A/E of loop diuretics

A

OH DANG

ototoxicity
hypoK, hypoCa
dehydration
allergy
nephritis (interstitial)
gout
105
Q

tx of cyanide poisoning

A

nitrites + thiosulfate

106
Q

toxicity of acyclovir

A

obstructive needle-shaped crystalline nephropathy

107
Q

drug that can be used for SIADH but can lead to nephrogenic DI

A

Lithium

108
Q

used for immediate anticoag for PE

A

Heparin

109
Q

used for chronic anticoag

long term prophy of VTE

A

Warfarin

110
Q

beta blockers with partial agonists

A

Pindolol

Acebutolol

111
Q

Sulfa drugs

A

Popular FACTS

Probenecid
Furosemide
Acetazolamide
Celecoxib
Thiazides
Sulfonamides
112
Q

most common and persistent opioid side effect

A

constipation

113
Q

microorganisms susceptible to metronidazole

A

GET GAP on the metro

Giardia
Entamoeba
Trichomonas
Gardnerella
Anaerobes below diaphragm
Pylori
114
Q

drugs that act on microtubules

A

Microtubules Get Constructed Very Poorly

Mebendazole
Griseofulvin
Colchicine
Vincristine/blastine
Paclitaxel