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First Aid Drugs > Pharm > Flashcards

Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Bethanechol

  • MoA
  • use for
  • action
A

ACh agonist

  • post-ob ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention
  • act’s bowel and bladder SmM, resistant to AChE (Bethany call “bethanechol” me if you want to act. your bladder and bowel!)
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2
Q

Carbachol

  • MoA
  • use for
A

ACh agonist (Carbon copy of ACh)

  • glaucoma, pupillary contraction, relief of IOP
  • carbon copy of ACh
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3
Q

Pilocarpine

  • MoA
  • use for
  • action
A

ACh agonist
- stim’s sweat, tears, saliva; open/closed angle glaucoma
- contracts ciliary m. (open-angle glaucoma), pupillary sphincter (closed-angle); resistant to AChE
“You cry, drool and sweat on your PILlow”

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4
Q

Methacholine

  • MoA
  • use for
A

ACh agonist

- challenge test for dx of asthma (stim’s M Rs in airway when inhaled)

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5
Q

Neostigmine

  • MoA
  • use for
  • CNS?
A

cholinesterase inhibitor

  • post-op and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, MG, reverse nm block post-op
  • No CNS penetration
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6
Q

Pyridostigmine

  • MoA
  • use for
A

cholinesterase inhibitor

- MG (long-acting), no CNS

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7
Q

Edrophonium

  • MoA
  • use for
A

cholinesterase inhibitor

- dx of MG (very short acting)

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8
Q

Physostigmine

  • MoA
  • use for
A

cholinesterase inhibitor

  • Xs BBB -> CNS!
  • “phyxes” Atropine overdose
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9
Q

Donepezil

  • MoA
  • use for
A

cholinesterase inhibitor

- Alzheimer’s dz

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10
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning

  • usu due to?
  • sx
  • antidote
A
  • organophosphates, irreversibly inhib AChE
  • D, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of SkM and CNS, lacrimation, sweating, salivation
  • atropine + pralidoxime (regen active AChE)
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11
Q

Atropine, homatropine and tropicamide: do what in the eye

A

M antag -> mydriasis (incr’d dilation) and cycloplegia

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12
Q

Benztropine does what in the CNS?

A

M antag -> use in PD (Park my Benz)

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13
Q

Scopolamine does what in the CNS?

A

M antag -> use for motion sickness

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14
Q

Ipratropium, tiotropium: do what in lungs?

A

M antag -> use for COPD, asthma to stop bronchospasm

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15
Q

Oxybutynin does what in GU?

A

M antag -> reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms

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16
Q

Glycopyrrolate does what in GI/resp?

A

M antag ->
parenteral: pre-op to reduce secretions
PO: drooling, peptic ulcer

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17
Q

Atropine

  • MoA
  • used for?
  • toxicity?
A

M antag

  • trt bradycardia, eye problems
  • incr’d body T (from decr’d sweating), rapid pulse, dry mouth, dry flushed skin, cycloplegia, constipation, disorientation, acute angle-closure glaucoma from mydriasis (dilation), urinary retention in men w/ BPH, hyperthermia in infants
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18
Q

EPI

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

a & b Rs

- anaphylaxis, glaucoma (open angle), asthma, hypotension

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19
Q

NE

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

a1, a2 > b1

- hypotension (but decr’d renal perfusion)

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20
Q

Isoproterenol

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

b1, b2
- TdP (bc tachycardia decr’s QT int), bradyarrhythmias (worse ischemia)
[b2 -> vasodil -> reflex incr HR + b1 incr’s HR]

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21
Q

DA

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

high dose: a1 a2
med dose: b1 b2
low dose: D1
- shock (incr renal perfusion by relaxing vasc), HF (inotropic and chronotropic)

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22
Q

Dobutamine

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

b1 (weak at a1 a2 b2)

- HF (both types), cardiac stress testing

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23
Q

Phenylephrine

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

a1 > a2

- hypotension (vasoconstric, incr’s BP), ocular procedures (dilates), rhinitis (decongestant)

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24
Q

Albuterol, salmeterol

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

b2 > b1

- Metaproterenol and albuterol for acute asthma, salmeterol for LT asthma/COPD control

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25
Q

Ritodrine

  • works on?
  • use for?
A
  • b2

- reduce premature uterine contractions

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26
Q

Amphetamine

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

releases stored NE/EPI/DA

- narcolepsy, obesity, ADD

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27
Q

Ephedrine

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

releases stored NE/EPI/DA

- nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence

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28
Q

Cocaine

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

inhib’s NE/EPI/DA reuptake
- causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesia; never give b-blockers if cocaine intox suspected (-> unopposed alpha and HTN)

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29
Q

Terbutaline

  • works on?
  • use for?
A

b2 > b1

- reduce premature uterine contractions by relaxing uterus

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30
Q

Clonidine

  • MoA
  • use for
A

central a2 agonist

- HTN, esp w/ renal dz (decr’s symp outflow)

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31
Q

a-Methyldopa

  • MoA
  • use for
A

central a2 agonist

- HTN, esp w/ renal dz (decr’s symp outflow)

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32
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

  • MoA
  • use for
A

a-blocker (irreversible)

- pheo (give before removing tumor)

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33
Q

Phentolamine

  • MoA
  • use for
A

a-blocker (reversible)

- pt’s on MAOIs who eat Tyr-containing foods (wine, cheese)

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34
Q

“-osin” Prazosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin, Tamsulosin

  • MoA
  • use for
  • 1st dose can cause?
A

a1-blocker

  • HTN, BPH urinary retention
  • orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, HA
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35
Q

Mirtazapine

  • MoA
  • use for
  • SEs
A

a2-blocker

  • depression
  • sedation, incr’d serum choles, incr’d appetite
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36
Q

Antidote for: acetaminophen

A

N-acetylcysteine (replenishes glutathione)

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37
Q

Antidote for: salicylates

A

NaHCO3 (alk urine), dialysis

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38
Q

Antidote for: amphetamines

A

basic drug -> NH4Cl to acidify urine

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39
Q

Antidote for: AChEIs, organophosphates

A

atropine + pralidoxime

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40
Q

Antidote for: anti-M/ACh agents

A

physostigmine salicylate, control hyperthermia

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41
Q

Antidote for: b-blockers

A

glucagon (stim’s cAMP)

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42
Q

Antidote for: digitalis

A

KLAM: normalize K+, Lidocaine (blocks Na ch’s -> use for VT arrhythmia), Anti-dig Fab, Mg2+

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43
Q

Antidote for: Iron

A

deFEroxamine, deFErasirox

44
Q

Antidote for: Lead

A

CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine

45
Q

Antidote for: Mercury, Arsenic, Gold

A

Dimercaprol (BAL), succimer

46
Q

Antidote for: Copper, Arsenic, Gold

A

Penicillamine

47
Q

Antidote for: Cyanide

A

Nitrite + thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamine

48
Q

Antidote for: Methemoglobin

A

Methylene blue, VitC (helps reduce)

49
Q

Antidote for: CO

A

100% O2, hyperbaric O2

50
Q

Antidote for: Methanol, ethylene glycol

A

Fomepizole > EtOH, dialysis

51
Q

Antidote for: opioids

A

Naloxone/naltrexone

[IV R antag / PO R antag]

52
Q

Antidote for: benzo’s

A

Flumazenil

53
Q

Antidote for: TCAs

A

NaHCO3 (pl alk)

54
Q

Antidote for: heparin

A

protamine

55
Q

Antidote for: warfarin

A

VitK, FFP

56
Q

Antidote for: tPA, streptokinase, urokinase

A

aminocaproic acid (Lys analog, which is where these guys bind)

57
Q

Antidote for: theophylline

A

b-blocker

[it’s a methylxanthine -> (+) inotrope]

58
Q

What causes coronary vasospasm?

A

Cocaine
Sumatriptan
Ergot alkaloids

59
Q

What causes cut flushing?

A 
VANC:
Vancomycin
Adenosine
Niacin
CCBs
60
Q

What causes dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

doxorubicin (Adriamycin), daunorubicin

61
Q

What causes TdP?

A

Class III (sotalol) + Class IA (quinidine) antiarrhythmics

62
Q

What causes agranulocytosis?

A

“Agran Could Certainly Cause Pretty Major Damage”
Clozapine, Carbamazepine, Colchicine
Propylthiouracil, Methimazole, Dapsone

63
Q

What causes aplastic anemia?

A

Chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDs, propylthiouracil, methimazole

64
Q

What causes Direct Coombs-pos hemolytic anemia?

A

a-Methyldopa, Pn

65
Q

What causes Gray baby synd?

A

Chloramphenicol

66
Q

What causes hemolysis in G6PD?

A

Hemolysis IS PAIN:

Isoniazid (INH), Sulfonamides, Primaquine, ASA, Ibuprofen, Nitrofurantoin

67
Q

What causes megaloblastic anemia?

A

Have a blast w/ PMS:

Phenytoin, Methotrexate, Sulfa drugs

68
Q

What causes pulm fibrosis?

A

BLAB:

BLeomycin, Amiodarone, Busulfan

69
Q

What causes acute cholestatic hepatitis, jaundice?

A

Erythromycin

70
Q

What causes focal/massive hep necrosis?

A

liver HAVAc:

Halothane, Amanita phalloides (death cap mushroom), Valproic acid, Acetaminophen

71
Q

What causes hepatitis?

A

INH

72
Q

What causes pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Clindamycin, amp

73
Q

What causes gynecomastia?

A

Some Drugs Create Awk Knockers:

Spironolactone, Digitalis, Cimetidine, Alcohol (chronic), Ketoconazole + estrogens

74
Q

What causes hot flashes?

A

Tamoxifen

Clomiphene (SERM)

75
Q

What causes hyperGlc?

A

Niacin, tacrolimus (immsupp’n), PIs, HCTZ, ccs’s

76
Q

What causes hypothyroidism?

A

Li, amiodarone, sulfonamides

77
Q

What causes fat redistribution?

A

Gcc’s, PIs

78
Q

What causes gingival hyperplasia?

A

phenytoin, verapamil

79
Q

What causes gout?

A

Furosemide
Thiazides
Niacin
Cyclosporine

80
Q

What causes myopathies?

A 
Fish N CHIPS Give you myopathies:
Fibrates
Niacin
Colchicine
Hydroxychloroquine
IFN-a
Penicillamine
Statins
Gcc's
81
Q

What causes osteoporosis?

A

Ccs’s, heparin

82
Q

What causes photosensitivity?

A

SAT for a photo:

Sulfonamindes, Amiodarone, Tetracycline

83
Q

What causes rash (SJS)?

A

PEC SLAPP causes rash:
Pn, Ethosuximide, Carbamazepine
Sulfa drugs, Lamotrigine, Allopurinol, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital

84
Q

What causes SLE-like synd?

A

HIPP to have lupus!

Hydralazine, INH, Procainamide, Phenytoin

85
Q

What causes DI?

A

Li, demeclocycline

86
Q

What causes Fanconi’s synd?

A

expired tetracycline

87
Q

What causes hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide (prevent by giving w/ mesna)

88
Q

What causes interstitial nephritis?

A

Methicillin, NSAIDs, furosemide

89
Q

What causes SIADH?

A

Carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide

90
Q

What causes cinchonism?

A

Quinidine, quinine

91
Q

What causes Parkinson-like synd?

A

Antipsychotics, reserpine (blocks VMAT), metoclopramide (D2 antag, anti-emetic)

92
Q

What causes seizures?

A

“W/ seizures, I BITE My tongue”

INH, Bupropion, Imipenem/cilastatin, Tramadol (opioid for pain), Enflurane (analgesic), Metoclopramide

93
Q

What causes tardive dyskinesia?

A

Antipsychotics

94
Q

What causes antiM actions all over?

A

Atropine, TCAs, H1-blockers, neuroleptics

95
Q

What causes disulfiram-like rxn?

A

Metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, procarbazine, 1st gen sulfonylureas

96
Q

What causes nephrotox/ototox?

A

Aminoglycosides, vanc, loop diuretics, cisplatin

97
Q

P450 inducers?

A

“Momma Barb Steals Phen-phen and Refuses Greasy Carbs Chronically”

Modafinil, Barbiturates, St. John’s Wort, Phenytoin, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine, Chronic alcohol use

98
Q

P450 inhibitors?

A

“MAGIC RACKS in GQ”
Macrolides, Amiodarone, Grapefruit juice, INH, Cimetidine
Ritonavir, Acute alcohol abuse, Cipro, Ketoconazole, Sulfonamides, Gemfibrozil, Quinidine

99
Q

What are sulfa drugs?

A 
P-FACTSSS
Probenecid (incr's uric acid excretion in urine)
Furosemide
Acetazolamide
Celecoxib (selec COX-2 inhib)
Sulfonamide Abx
Sulfasalazine (IBD, RA)
Sulfonylureas (DM)
100
Q

What are sulfa allergies?

A

F, UTI, rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, hives

101
Q

-navir =

A

PIs

ex: Saquinavir

102
Q

-azine =

A

phenothiazine (neuroleptic, antiemetic)

ex: chlorpromazine

103
Q

-etine =

A

SSRI

ex: Fluoxetine

104
Q

-ipramine =

A

TCA, also -triptyline

ex: Imipramine, amitriptyline

105
Q

-terol =

A

b2 agonist

ex: albuterol

106
Q

-tidine =

A

H2 antag

ex: cimetidine

First Aid Drugs (13 decks)

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