Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Describe a michaelis menten kinetics curve including Km, Vmax, and the significance of them (what they determine/depend on).

A

It is a hyperbolic curve with velocity on the y axis and substrat conc. on the x axis.

V max is the maximum velocity that can be reached (when all the enzymes are saturated with enzyme).
It is proportional to the enzyme conc.

Km is the subs. conc. at 1/2Vmax.
It is inversely related to the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.

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2
Q

Describe a lineweaver burk plot including what the y intercept and x intercept and slope are and what they signify.

A

A straight line with 1/V on the y axis and 1/S on the x axis.

Y intercept is 1/Vmax so the higher that the y intercept is, the lower the v max is.

X intercept is 1/-Km so the further to the right it is (less negative) the greater Km is and thus the lower the affinity.

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3
Q

Compare and contrast comp. inh (revers), comp. inh. (irrev), and non comp inh. according to whether they resemble substrate, are overcome by incr. in substrate, bind active sit, how they effect Vmax, how they effect Km, and how they effect potency/efficacy.

A

COMP INH, REVER

resemble substrate: Yes
overcome by incr. in substrate: Yes
bind active site: Yes
how they effect Vmax: None
how they effect Km: Decr
how they effect potency/efficacy: decr. potency

COMP INH, IRREVER

resemble substrate: yes
overcome by incr. in substrate: no
bind active site: yes
how they effect Vmax: decr
how they effect Km: none
how they effect potency/efficacy: decr. efficacy

NON COMP INH

resemble substrate: no
overcome by incr. in substrate: no
bind active site: no
how they effect Vmax: decr
how they effect Km: none
how they effect potency/efficacy: decr. efficacy
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4
Q

What is the bioavailability? What is it IV? Oral? Why?

A

Fraction of administered drug reaching systemic circ. unchanged.

For IV=100%

Oral < 100%, incomplete absorption, first pass metabolism

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5
Q

What is Vd? How can the Vd of plasma protein bound drugs be altered? How is it calculated? What compartment does a low Vd drug enter? What types of drugs are they? Medium? High?

A

Theoretical volume occupied by the total amount of drug in the body relative to its plasma conc.

They can be altered by liver and kidney disease (decr. protein binding leads to incr. Vd)

Vd=(amount of drug in the body)/(plasma drug concentration)

Low: Blood; large/charged molecules, plasma protein bound

Medium: ECF, small hydrophilic molecules

High: all tissues including fat; small lipophilic molecules, especially if bound to tissue protein

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6
Q

What is clearance? What might iimpair it? What are two equations for it?

A

Volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time.

May be impaired with defects in cardiac, hepatic, and renal function

CL=rate of elimination/plasma drug concentration

CL=Vd x Ke (elimination constant)

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7
Q

What is the half life? How many half lives til steady state? Til 90% of steady state? How is halflife calculated?

A

Time required to change the amount of drug in the body by 1/2 during elimination (or constant infusion).

4-5 half lives til steady state

3.3 half lives to reach 90%

t1/2= (.693 x Vd)/CL

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8
Q

How is loading dose calculated? How is maintenance dose calculated? How do they change in renal or liver disease? How do they determine tie to steady state?

A

Loading dose=(target plasma conc. at steady state x Vd)/F

Maintenance dose=(target plasma conc. x CL x dosage interval)/F

In renal or liver disease, maintenance dose will change but loading dose will not

Time to steady state depends on half life, not the loading or maintenance dose

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9
Q

What is zero order elimination? What are some examples?

A

Rate of elimination is constant regardless of the amount of substrate (constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time)

Decreases linearly

Phenytoin, ethanol, aspirin (PEA=a pea is round like a 0)

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10
Q

What is first order elimination?

A

Rate is proportional to drug concentration (constant fraction of drug eliminated per unit time)

Decreases exponentially

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11
Q

Explain how ion trapping works? What are some weak acids? How can they be trapped in basic environments? What are some weak bases? How can they be trapped in acidic environments?

A

Ionized species are trapped in urine and cleared quickly. Neutral forms are reabsorbed. By making something ionic, you can eliminate it quickly.

WA: Phenobarbital, methotrexate, aspirin, TCAs
Treat overdose with bicarb

WB: Amphetamines
Treat overdose with ammonium chloride

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12
Q

What reactions occur in phase I drug metabolism? Where? What are the results? What reactions occur in phase two drug metabolism? Results? What do geriatric patients lose? What is a genetic condition that can decr. rate of metabolism? Clinical effects?

A

Reduction, oxidation, and hydrolysis with cytochrome p-450
Slightly polar, water soluble molecules (often active)

Conjugation (glucoronidaiton, acetylation, sulfation)
Very polar, inactive metabolites (excreted in urine)

Geriatric patients have GAS (phase I lost first)

Slow acetylators have decr. rate of metabolism which may lead to incr. side effects.

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13
Q

Compare and contrast efficacy and potency.

A

Efficacy is the maximal effect a drug can produce. It is represented by Vmax. It is unrelated to potency. Partial agonists have less efficacy than full agonists

Potency is the amount of drug needed for a given effect. It depends on Km. Left shifting mean increased potency. Unrelated to efficacy

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14
Q

What are dose response curves? How do comp. antag. affect dose response curves? How does the dose response curve of a partial agonist compare to that of a full?

A

Dose on x axis, perecent of maximal effect of y axis

Comp. antagonist: shifts curve right (decr. potency). No change in efficacy.

Non comp. antag: Shifts curve down (decr. efficacy).

Partial agonist: Lower maximal effect (decr. efficancy).

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15
Q

What is the therapeutic index? How is it calculated? What are some drugs with low TI values? What does this mean? What is the therapeutic window?

A

Measurement of drug safety

TD50/ED50=median toxic dose/Median effective dose

Digoxin, lithium, theophylline, and warfarin

Window: measure of clinical drug effectiveness for a patient.

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16
Q

Describe the presympathetic and postsympathetic nerve terminals in the autonomic pathways from the CNS to the parasympathetic pathway to cardiac and smooth muscle, gland cells, and nerve terminals? The symp. pathway to sweat glands? The symp pathway to cardiac and smooth muscle, gland cells, and nerve terminals? The symp. pathway to renal vasculature and smooth muscle? The somatic pathway to skeletal muscle? The symp. pathway to adrenal medulla?

A

Parasymp=long presynaptic, short postsynaptic
Symp: short presynaptic, long postsynaptic

Para: Nicotinic cholinergic then muscarinic

Symp sweat glands: Nicotinic then muscarinic

symp cardiac, etc: nicotinic then alpha/beta receptors

symp renal: nicotinic then D1

symp adrenal: nicotinic then epi/NE

somatic: nicotinic only (no ganglion)

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17
Q

What is the difference between nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?

A

Nico: ligand gated Na/K channels

Musc: G protein coupled receptors that use second messengers

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18
Q

What are the major functions of alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, and beta 2 receptors? What g protein class do they use?

A

alpha 1 (Gq): incr. vasc smooth muscle contraction, incr. pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), incr. intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction

alpha 2 (Gi): Decr. symp outflow, decr. insulin release, decr. lipolysis, incr. platelet aggregation, decr. aqueous humor production

beta 1 (Gs): Incr. heart rate/contractility, incr. renin release, incr. lipolysis

beta 2 (Gs): Vasodilation, bronchodilation, incr. lipolysis, incr. insulin release, decr. uterine tone (tocolysis), ciliary muscle relaxation (look far away), incr. aqueous humor production

Qiss

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19
Q

What are the major functions of M1, M2, and M3 receptors? What G protein class do they use?

A

M1 (Gq): CNS, enteric nervous system

M2 (Gi): Decr. heart rate and contractility of atria (incr. av node refractory period)

M3 (Gq): incr. exocrine gland secrections (lacrimal, salivary, gastric acid), incr. gut peristalsis, incr. bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, incr. pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation)

qiq

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20
Q

What are the major functions of D1, D2, H1, H2, V1, V2 receptors? What G protein class do they use?

A

D1 (Gs): Relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

D2 (Gi): Modulates transmitter release, especially in brain

H1 (Gq): Incr. nasal and bronchila mucus production, incr. vasc. permeability, contraction of bronchioles, pruritus, pain

H2 (Gs): Incr. gastric acid secretion

V1 (Gq): Incr. vasc. smooth muscle contraction

V2 (Gs): Incr. H20 perm. and reabsorption in collecting tubules of kidney (V2 is found in the 2 kidneys)

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21
Q

What is the pathway of Gq receptors? Which receptors are Gq receptors?

A

Phospholipase C converts PIP2 to DAG and IP3

DAG forms protein kinase C

IP3 releases Ca from the SR

These actions lead to smooth muscle contraction

HAVe 1 M&M

H1, A1, V1, M1, M3

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22
Q

What is the pathway of Gs receptors? Which ones are Gsreceptors? Same questions for Gi receptors?

A

Gs activates adenylate cyclase leading to more cAMP

This activates protein kinase A

This leads to more calcium inflow in the heart and inhibition of myosin light chain kinase in smooth muscle

B1, B2, D1, H2, V2

Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase thus leading to less calcium inflow in heart and less inhib. of MLCK in SM

MAD 2s

M2, A2, D2

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23
Q

What type of drug is bethanacol? Clinical applications? Action?

A

Direct cholinnomimetic agonist

Postoperative ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention

Activates bladder and bowel smooth muscle

“Bethany, call me to activate your bowels and bladder”

Resistant to AChE

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24
Q

What type of drug is carbachol? Clinical applications?

A

Direct cholinomimetic agonist

Constricts pupil and relieves intraocular pressure in glaucoma

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25
Q

What type of drug is methacholine? Clinical applications?

A

Direct cholinomimetic agonist

challenge test for diagnosis of asthma

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26
Q

What type of drug is pilocarpine? Clinical applications? Action?

A

Direct cholinomimetic agonist

Potent stimulator of seat, tears, and saliva
Open angle and closed angle glaucoma

Constracts ciliary muscle of eye (open angle glaucoma)
and pupilary sphincter (closed angle glaucoma)

resistant to AChE

“you cry, you drool, you sewat on your “pilo”

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27
Q

What kind of a drugs are donezipil, galantamine, and rivastigmine? Clinical use? Action?

A

Anticholinesterase

Alzheimers

Incr. ACh

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28
Q

What type of drug is edrophonium? Clinical applications? Action?

A

Anti AChE

Historically, diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (extremely short acting)

Incr. ACh

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29
Q

What type of drug is neostigmine? Clinical applications? CNS penetration?

A

Anti AChE

Postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of NMJ blockage

No CNS penetration

Incr. ACh

30
Q

What type of drug is physostigmine? Clinical applications? Action? CNS penetration?

A

Anti AChE

Anticholinergic toxicity; crosses blood rain barrier

Incr. ACh

“Phyxes atropine overdose”

31
Q

What type of drug is pyridostigmine? Clinical applications? Action? CNS penetration?

A

Anti AChE

Myasthenia gravis (long acting)

No CNS penetration

Incr. ACh

“rid of stiGMine” Gets rid of MG.

32
Q

What should be watched for with all cholinomimetic agents? What causes cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning? Example? Where are these chemicals seen? What are the symptoms? What is the treatment?

A

Exacerbation of COPD, asthma, and peptic ulcers

Organophosphates (parathion), irreversibly inhibit AChE.
Found in insectisides (farmers)

DUMBBELSS

Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Excitation of skel muscle and CNS
Lacrimation
Sweating
Salivation

Atropine (comp. inhib)
Pralidoxine (if given early, regenerates AChE)

33
Q

What type of drugs are atropine, homatropine, and tropicamide? Clinical applications?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

Mydriasis and cycloplegia

34
Q

What type of drug is Benztropine? Clinical applications?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

Parkinsons
Acute dystonia

“Park my Benz”

35
Q

What type of drug is glycopyrrolate? Clinical applications?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

Parenteral: Pre op use to reduce airway secretions
Oral: Drooling, peptic ulcer

36
Q

What type of drug is hyoscyamine and dicyclomine? Clinical applications?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

Antispasmodics for irritable bowel syndrome

37
Q

What type of drug is ipratropium and tiotropium? Clinical applications?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

COPD, asthma

“I pray I can breath soon

38
Q

What type of drug is oxybutynin, solifenacin, and tolterodine? Clinical applications?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

Reduce bladder spasms and urge incontinence

39
Q

What type of drug is scopolamine? Clinical applications?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

Motion sickness (CNS)

40
Q

What type of drug is atropine? Actions/location? Clinical applications? What is its toxicity like? What does Jimson weed result in?

A

Musc. antag

Incr. pupil dilation/cycloplegia
Decr. airway secretions
Decr. acid secretion in stomach
Decr. motility in gut
Decr. urgency in cystitis

Treats bradycardia
Opthalmic applications
Blocks DUMBBLSS (not CNS or skel. muscle=nicotinic)

Toxicity:

Incr. body temp (decr. sweating)
rapid pulse
dry mouth
dry, flushed skin
cycloplegia
constipation
disorientation
HOT as a hare
DRY as a bone
RED as a beet
BLIND  as a bat
MAD as a hatter

Acute angle closure glaucoma in elderly (mydriasis)
urinary retention in men with prostatic hyperplasia
hyperthermia in infants

Jimson Weed leads to gardner’s pupil (mydriasis due to plant alkaloids)

41
Q

What is the mechanism of tetrodotoxin? Where is it found? Symptoms? Treatment?

A

Very potent: binds fast voltage gated Na channels and prevents depolarization

Pufferfish

Nausea, diarrhea, paresthesias, weakness, dizziness, loss of reflexes

Supportive

42
Q

Where is ciguatoxin found? Mechanism? What is the presentation like?Specific symptoms?

A

Reef fish

Opens Na channels causing depolarization

Similar to cholinergic poisoning

Temperature related dysthesias are a specific finding

Supportive

43
Q

What causes scombroid poisoning? Mechanism? How is it misdiagnosed? Symptoms? Teratment?

A

Dark meat fish improperly stored at warm temp.

Bacterial histidine decarboxyl. converts histadine to histamine which isn’t degraded by cooking.

Misdiagnosed as allergy to fish

Acute onset burning sensation of the mouth, flushing of face, erythema, urticaria, pruritus, headache
Anaphylaxis like presenation is possible

Antihistamines
Possible antianaphylactics

44
Q

What type of drug is albuterol? What is their effect? Clinical applications?

A

Direct sympathomimetics

beta 2 > beta 1

Acute asthma

45
Q

What type of drug is dobutamine? What is their effect? Clinical applications?

A

Direct sympathomimetics

beta 1 > beta 2
alpha

Heart failure (inotropic > chronotropic)
Cardiac stress testing
46
Q

What type of drug are dopamine? What is their effect? Clinical applications?

A

Direct sympathomimetics

D1=D2 > beta > alpha

unstable bradycardia
HF
Shock
Inotropic and chronotropic alpha effects predominate at high doses.

47
Q

What type of drug are epinephrine? What is their effect? Clinical applications?

A

Direct sympathomimetics

Beta > alpha

Anaphylaxis
asthma
open angle glaucoma
Alpha effects predominate at high doses

48
Q

What type of drug are isoproterenol? What is their effect? Clinical applications?

A

Direct sympathomimetics

Beta 1 = beta 2

electrophysiologic eval. of tachyarrythmias
Can worsen ischemia

49
Q

What type of drug are NE? What is their effect? Clinical applications?

A

Direct sympathomimetics

alpha 1 > alpha 2 > beta 1

hypotension (but decr. renal perfusion)

50
Q

What type of drug are Phenylephrine? What is their effect? Clinical applications?

A

Direct sympathomimetics

alpha 1 > alpha 2

hypotensin (vasoconstrictor)
ocular procedures (mydriatic)
rhinitis (decongestant)
51
Q

What type of drug is salmeterol? Effect? Clinical application?

A

Direct sympathomimetic

Beta 2 > beta 1

Long term asthma or COPD control

52
Q

What type of drug is amphetamine? Mechanism? Application?

A

Indirect sympathomimetic

Indirect general agonist
Reuptake inhibitor
Releases stored catecholamines

Narcolepsy
Obesity
ADHD

53
Q

What type of drug is cocaine? Mechanism? Application? What shouldn’t be given in case of intoxication? Why?

A

Indirect sympathomimetic

Indirect general agonist
reuptake inhibitor

Vasoconstriction and local anesthesia

Never give beta blocker in intoxication b/c it can lead to unopposed alpha 1 activation and extreme hypertension

54
Q

What type of drug is ephedrine? Mechanism? Application?

A

Indirect sympathomimetic

Indirect general agonist
Releases stored catecholamines

Nasal congestion
Urinary incontinence
Hypotension

55
Q

Describe what happens to blood pressure as a result of NE administration vs. isoproteronol admin.

A

NE incr. systolic and diastolic BP (alpha 1) which leads to incr. MAP leading to reflex bradycardia

Isoproteronol causes beta 2 mediated vasodilation leading to decr. in MAP and incr. in heart rate through reflex and Beta 1

56
Q

What type of drug is clonidine? Clinical applications? Waht is Toxicity like?

A

sympatholytic (alpha 2 agonist)

Hypertensive urgency; does not decr. renal blood flow
ADHD
Tourette Syndrome

CNS Depression
bradycardia
hypotension
resp. depression
miosis
57
Q

What type of drug is alpha methyl dopa? Clinical applications? Waht is Toxicity like?

A

sympatholytic (alpha 2 agonist)

Hypertension in pregnancy

Direct coombs + hemolysis
SLE like syndrome

58
Q

What type of drug is phenoxybenzamine? Clinical applications?

A

Non selective alpha blocker

pheochromocytoma (operatively) to prevent catecholamine crisis

59
Q

What type of drug is phentolamine? Clinical applications?

A

non select alpha blocker

Give to pts. on MAOIs who eat tyramine containing food

orthostatic hypertension
Reflex tachycardia

60
Q

What type of drug is , terazosin, doxazosin? Clinical applications? Sx?

A

Alpha 1 selective blockers (2)

urinary symptoms of BPH
Hypertension

1st dose orthostatic hypotension
dizziness
headache

61
Q

What type of drug is mirtazapine? Clinical applications?

A

Alpha 2 selective alpha blocker

Depression

Sedation
Incr. serum cholesterol
Incr. appetite

62
Q

What type of drug is prazosin? Clinical applications? sx?

A

Alpha 1 selective blockers

urinary symptoms of BPH
PTSD
Hypertension

1st dose orthostatic hypotension
dizziness
headache

63
Q

What type of drug is tamsulosin? Clinical applications? sx?

A

Alpha 1 selective blockers

urinary symptoms of BPH

1st dose orthostatic hypotension
dizziness
headache

64
Q

What are the clinical applications of beta blockers and how do they accomplish them (mechanism)? Which are used for certain applications? Toxicity? Certain beta blockers associated with the toxicity?

A

Angina: decr. HR and contractility leading to decr. O2 consumption

MI: Decr. mortality (metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol)

SVT: Decr. AV conduction velocity (class II antiarryth) (Metoprolol, esmolol)

Hypertension: Decr. CO, Decr. renin secretion (Beta 1 receptor blockade on JGA cells)

HF: Decr. mortality

Glaucoma: Decr. secretion of aqu. humor (timolol)

65
Q

What is the selectivity of acebutolol, atenolol, betaxolol, esmolol, and metoprolol?

A

Beta 1 selective antagonists (B1 with first half of alphabet=First letter begins with A-M)

66
Q

What is the selectivity of nadolol, pindolol, propranolol, and timolol?

A

Non selective beta antagonists (N to Z first letter)

67
Q

What makes pindolol and acebutolol unique in their selectivity?

A

Partial beta agonists

68
Q

What is the selectivity of carvedilol and labetalol?

A

non selective alpha and beta antagonists

Modified suffix (-olol)

69
Q

What is the selectivity/ mechanism of nebivolol?

A

cardiac selective beta 1 blockade

stimulation of beta 3 leading to NO synthase in vasculature

70
Q

Antidotes for:

acetaminophen: 
AChe Inhibitors, organophosphates:
Amphetamines
Antimuscarinic/anticholinergic:
Benzodiazepines:
Beta blockers:
CO:
Copper, arsenic, gold:
Cyanide:
Digitalis (digoxin):
Heparin: 
Iron:
Lead:
Mercury, arsenic, gold:
methanol/ethylene glycol (antifreeze): 
Methemoglobin:
Opiods:
Salicylates:
TCAs:
tPA, streptokinase, urokinase: 
Warfarin:
A

acetaminophen: N-acetylcysteine (replenishes glutathione)
AChe Inhibitors, organophosphates: Atropine > pralidoxime
Amphetamines: NH4Cl (acidify urine)
Antimuscarinic/anticholinergic: Physostigmine salicylate, control hyperthermia
Benzodiazepines: Flumazenil
Beta blockers: glucagon
CO: 100% O2, hyperbaric O2
Copper, arsenic, gold: penicillamine
Cyanide: nitrate + thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin
Digitalis (digoxin): Anti dig Fab fragments
Heparin: Protamine sulfate
Iron: Deferoxamine, deferasirox
Lead: EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine
Mercury, arsenic, gold: Dimeraprol (BAL), succimer
methanol/ethylene glycol (antifreeze): Fomepizole > ethanol, dialysis
Methemoglobin: methylene blue, vitamin C
Opiods: naloxone, naltrexone
Salicylates: NAHCo3 (alkalinize urine), dialysis
TCAs: NaHCO3 (plasma alkalinize)
tPA, streptokinase, urokinase: Aminocaproic acid
Warfarin: Vitamin K (delayed) FFP (immediate)

71
Q

What drugs cause coronary vasospasm? Cutaneous flushing? Dilated Cardiomyopathy? Torsades de Pointes?

A

What do these groups of drugs cause?

Cocaine, sumatriptan, ergot elkaloids

Vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, Ca channel blockers

Anthracyclines (doxorubicin, daunorubicin); prevent with dexrazoxane

Class III and Class IA antiarrythmics, macrolides, antipsychotics, TCAs