Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step One > Musculoskeletal > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

What is the anterior drawer sign? What does it mean? What is posterior drawer sign? What does is it mean? What is abnormal passive abduction? What does it mean? What is abnormal passive adduction ?What does it mean? What is the mcmurray test? What are some signs and what do they mean?

A

Pt supine, knee at 90 degree, incr. anterior gliding of tibia
ACL injury

Pt suping, knee at 90 degr., incr. posterior gliding of tibia
PCL inj

Pt. supine and knee either extended or at 30 degr. angle, lateral (valgus) fore leads to medial space widening of tibia.
MCL injury

Same as above, medial (varus) force leads to lateral space widening of tibia
LCL injury

With pt. supine, knee internally and extenally rotated during range of motion:
Pain, popping on external rotation=Medial meniscal tear
Pain, popping on internal rotation=lateral “ “

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the unhappy triad? What causes it? Presentation?

What is prepatellar bursitis? Cause? What is a baker cyst? Association?

A

Contact sports; lasteral force applied to planted leg.

Classically, damage to ACL, MCL, and medial lemniscus (thought its usually the lateral one)

Acute knee pain and signs of joint injury/instability

Housemaids knee. Inflammation/liquid above patella.
Repeated trauma or pressure from extensive kneeling

Popliteal fluid collection
Chronic joint disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the muscles that form the rotator cuff? Where are they located in relation to each other? What is the innervation of each? What is the function of each? What spinal levels primarily innervate them? Which is most commonly injured? Which is injured in pitching?

A

SItS

Supraspinatus
superior to humerus
suprascapular nerve
Most common
Abducts arm initially (before action of deltoid)
Infraspinatus
Posterior superior to humerus
Suprascapular
Laterally rotates arm
Pitching injury

Teres Minor
Posterioinferior to humerus
Axillary
Laterally rotates arm and adducts arm

Subscapularis
Anterior to humerus
Upper and lower subscap nerve
Adducts and medially rotates arm

C5-C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is medial epicondylitis? Another name? Cause? Presentation? Same Qs for lateral epicondylitis?

A

Golfers elbow
Repetitive flexion (forehand shots) or idiopathic
pain near medial epicondyle

Tennis elbow
Repetitive extension (backhand shots) or idiopathic
Pain near lateral epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the wrist carpal bones? Which is palpated in the anatomical snuff box? Which is most commonly fracture? Complications of fracture/mechanism? What can cause carpal tunnel syndrome? What can cause ulnar nerve injury?

A

So long to pinky, here comes the thumb

Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrium, pisiform, hamate, capitulum, trapezoid, trapezium (trapezithumb)

Scaphoid in snuff box
Scaphoid most common fracture=avascular necrosis due to retrograde blood supply

Dislocation of lunate–>carpal tunnel

FOOSH—>hook of hamate damage leading to ulnar nerve injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome? Causes/associations? Symptoms? Pathophys?

A

Entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel leading to nerve compression

paresthesia, pain, and numbness in distribution of median nerve

Pregnancy, RA, Hypothyroidism, repetitive use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is guyon canal syndrome? Usually cause?

A

Compression of ulnar nerve at wrist or hand

Cyclists due to pressure from handlebars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the anatomy of the brachial plexus including which nerves originate from where.

A

Randy Travis Drinks Cold Beer

Roots, trunks, divisions, cords, branches

Roots of C5, C6, and C7 give off long thoracic
C5 root gives off dorsal scap nerve

C5 and C6 roots make up the upper trunk
C7=middle trunk
C8/T1=lower trunk
Upper trunk gives off suprascapular nerve

All trunks give off anterior and posterior divisions

Anterior divisions of upper and middle trunk make up the lateral cord
All 3 posterior divisions make up posterior cord
Anterior division of Lower trunk make medial cord
Posterior cord gives off upper and lower subscapular nerves and thoracodorsal nerve
Lateral and medial cords give off lateral and medial pectoral nerves
Posterior cord gives off axillary nerve then becomes the radial nerve
Lateral cord and medial cord make up median nerve
Medial cord continues as ulnar nerve
Lateral cord continues as musculocutaneous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What levels make up the axillary nerve? What will cause injury? What is the presentation?

A

C5-C6

Fractured surgical neck of humerus
Anterior dislocation of humerus

Flattened Deltoid
Loss of arm abduction at shoulder
Loss of sensation over deltoid muscle and lateral arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What levels make up the musculocutaneous nerve? What will cause injury? Presentation?

A

C5-C7

Upper trunk compression

Loss of forearm flexion and supination
Loss of sensation over lateral forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What levels make up radial nerve? What will cause injury? Presentation?

A

C5-T1

Midshaft fracture of humerus
Compession of axilla due to crutches or arm over chair

Wrist drop: loss of elbow, wrist, and finger extension
Decr. grip strength (wrist extension necessary for max action of flexors)
Loss of sensation over post arm/forearm and dorsal hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What levels make up median nerve? What will cause injury? Presentation?

A

C5-T1

Supracondylar fracture of humerus (proximal lesion)
Carpal tunnel and wrist laceration (distal)

DISTAL
Ape Hand and Popes Blessing
Loss of wrist flexion, flexion of lateral fingers, thumb opposition, lumbricals of 2nd/3rd digits

PROXIMAL
Loss of sensation over thenar eminence and dorsal and palmar aspects of lateral 3 1/2 fingers 
Tinel sign (tingling on percussion) in carpal tunnel syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What levels make up ulnar nerve? What will cause injury? Presentation?

A

C8-T1

Fracutre of medial epicondyle of humerus (funny bone) (proximal lesion)
Fracture hook of hamate (distal)

“Ulnar claw” on digit extension
Radial deviation of wrist upon flexion (proximal lesion)
Loss of wrist flexion, flexion of medial fingers, abductin and adduction of fingers (interossei), actions of medial 2 lumbrical muscles
Loss of sensation over medial 1 1/2 fingers including hypothenar eminence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What levels make up recurrent branch of median nerve? What will cause injury? Presentation?

A

C5-T1

Superficial laceration of palm

“Ape hand”
Loss of thenar muscle group: opposition, abduction, and flexion of thumb
No loss of sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Damage to these structures causes what?

Upper trunk:
Lower trunk:
Posterior Cord:
Long thoracic nerve:
Axillary nerve:
Radial nerve:
Musculocutaneous nerve:
Median nerve:
Ulnar Nerve:
A

Upper trunk: Erb Palsy (waiter’s tip)
Lower trunk: Claw hand (klumpke palsy)
Posterior Cord: Wrist drop
Long thoracic Nerve: Winged scapula
Axillary nerve: Deltoid paralysis
Radial nerve: Wrist drop
Musculocutaneous nerve: Difficulty flexing elbow, sensory loss
Median nerve: Decrease thumb function, Pope’s blessing
Ulnar Nerve: Intrinsic muscles of hand, claw hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the injury in Erbs palsy? Causes? Muscle deficit? Functional deficit?

A

Tractin or tear of upper trunk
C5-C6

Infants-lateral traction on neck during delivery
Adults-trauma (head forcefully away from shoulder)

Deltoid, supraspinatus (abduction-arm at side)
Infraspinatus (lateral rotation-arm medially rotated)
Biceps (flexion, supination-arm extended and pronated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the injury in Klumpke palsy? Causes? Muscle deficit? Functional deficit?

A

Traction of tear of lower trunk
C8-T1

Infants: upward force on arm during delivery
Adults: Trauma-forceful pulling up on arm

Intrinsic hand muscles: lumbrical, interossei, thenar, hypothenar

Total claw hand: Lumbrical normaly flex MCP joints and extend DIP and PIP joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the injury in thoracic outlet syndrome? Causes? Muscle deficit? Functional deficit?

A

Compression of lower trunk and subclavian vessels

Cervical rib
pancoast tumor

Same as klumpke palsy

Atrophy of intrinsic hand msucles: ischemia, pain, and edema due to vascular compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the injury in winged scapula? Causes? Muscle deficit? Functional deficit?

A

Long thoracic nerve

Axillary node dissectin after mastectomy
Stab wounds

Serratus anterior

Inability to anchor scapula to thoracic cage
Cannot abduct arm above horizontal position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of the lumbricals? What is the deficit like in proximal lesions? In distal lesions? Why?

A

Flex at MCP, extend at DIP and PIP joints

Distal: clawing, loss of lumbrical leads to extend MCP, flex IPs

Proximal: deficits less pronounced; seen during voluntary flexion of digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What muscles are i the thenar eminence? Innervation? Hypothenar eminence? Innervation? function of dorsal interossei? Palmar?

A

Thenar: median nerve=opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis

Hypothenar (ulnar): opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi

DAB (dorsals abduct)
PAD (palmar adduct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What spinal levels make up the obturator nerve? Cause of injury? Presentation?

A

L2-L4

Pelvic surgery

Decr. thigh sensation (medial)
Decr. adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What spinal levels make up the femoral nerve? Cause of injury? Presentation?

A

L2-L4

Pelvic fracture

Decr. thigh flexion and leg extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What spinal levels make up the common peroneal nerve? Cause of injury? Presentation?

A

L4-S2

Trauma or compression of lateral aspect of leg
fibular neck fracture

Foot drop-inverted and plantarflexed at rest
Loss of eversion and dorsiflexion
steppage gait
Loss of sensation on dorsum of foot

Foot dropPED=Peroneal everts and dorsiflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What spinal levels make up the tibial nerve? Cause of injury? Presentation?
L4-S3 Knee trauma Baker cysts (proximal) Tarsal tunnel syndrome (distal) Inability to curl toes and loss of sensation on sole of foot In proximal lesions, foot everted at rest with loss of inversion and plantar flexion Can't stand on TIPtoes=Tibial Inverts and Plantar flexes
26
What spinal levels make up the superior gluteal nerve? Cause of injury? Presentation? Muscles
L4-S1=gluteus medius and minimus Iatrogenic injury during intramuscular injection to upper medial gluteal region Trendelenburg sign/gait-pelvis tilts b/c weight bearing leg cannot maintain alignment of pelvis through hip abduction. Lesion is CL to side that drops, ipsilateral to extremity on which patients stands.
27
What spinal levels make up the inferior gluteal nerve? Cause of injury? Presentation? Muscles?
L5-S2=gluteus maximus Posterior hip dislocation Difficulty climbing stairs, rising from seated position Loss of hip extension
28
What is the function of the sciatic nerve? Spinal levels? | Function of pudendal nerve? Spinal levels? What is a landmark for local anesthetic during childbirth?
L4-S3-Innervates posterior thigh, splits into common peroneal and tibial nerves S2-S4-innervates perineum. Ischial spine.
29
What is a lumbosacral radiculopathy? pathophys? Which nerve is affected in the pathophys? Waht are the findings with disc level L3/L4, L4/L5, L5/S1
Paresthesias and weakness in distribution of specific lumbar or sacral spinal nerves Intervertebral disc herniation Nerve association with inferior vertebral body is impinged. L3/L4=weakness of knee extension, decr. patellar reflex L4/L5=weakness of dorsiflexion, difficulty in heel walking L5/S1=weakness of plantar flexion, difficulty in toe walking, decr. achilles reflex
30
Describe the steps of muscle conduction and contraction.
AP leads presynaptic voltage gates Ca channels to open, which releases NT NT binds causing muscle cell depol in the motor end plate Depol travels along muscle cell and down the T tubule Depol of voltage sens dihydropyridine receptor couple to ryanodine receptor on sarcoplasmic reticulum induces conformation change, releasing Ca from SR Ca binds troponin C, which causes tropomyosin to move out of myosin binding groove on actin filaments Myosin releases bound ADP and PO4 leading to displacement of myosin on the actin filament (power stroke) Myosin binds new ATP molecule causing detachment of head. ATP hydrolyzes causing myosin head to cock, ready for next cycle.
31
What are the different lines and bands in skeletal muscle? What happens to them during contraction? What are t tubules? How many T tubules and terminal cisternae in skeletal muscle? Cardiac?
Z line-separates sarcomeres, place to which actin binds (capZ) and myosin (through titin) binds I band=Just actin filaments (thin filaments), no thick A band=Myosin filaments, overlapping actin filaments H band=zone of thick filaments, not superimposed by thin filaments M line=middle of sarcomere When they contract, actin moves in towards M line, thus making the H bands and the I bands smaller, as well as the space between the Z lines shorter. A band stays constant T-tubules-extensions of plasma membrane juxtaposed with terminal cisternae. They are part of SR In SM=triad=2 cist. 1 tubule In CM=dyad=1 cist 1 tub
32
What is type 1 muscle? Speed? Color? Why? Action? type 2?
TYPE 1 ``` Slow twitch Sustained contraction Red fibers Incr mitochondria and myoglobin concentration Incr. oxidative phoshorylation ``` TYPE 2 Fast twitch White fibers resulting from decr. mitochondra and myoglobin conc Incr. anerobic Weight training
33
Describe the contraction and relaxation of a smooth muscle cell.
CONTRACTION Action potential causes depol which activates L type voltage gated Ca channel on plasma membrane Ca enters cell, binds to calmodulin, which activates MLCK, which phosphorylates myosin, allowing it to bind acting leading to contraction. RELAXATION Nitric oxide activates guanylate cyclase which converts GTP into cGMP cGMP activates myosin light chain phosphatase which dephosphorylates myosin leading to relaxation.
34
Describe endochondral ossification. Which bones? Which cells? When does woven bone occur in adults?
Bones of axial and appendicular skeleton and base of skull Cartilaginous model of bone is first made by chondrocytes Osteoclasts and blasts later relplace it with woven bone then remodel it to lamellar bone Fractures and Pagets
35
Describe membranous ossification? Which bones?
Calvarium and facial No cartilaginous, straight to woven bone then to lamellar
36
What is the function of osteoblasts? Origination? Osteoclasts? Origination?
blasts=build bone by secreting collagen and catalyzing mineralization. Mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum Clasts=multinucleated cells that dissolve bone by secreting acid and collegenases Monocytes, macrophages
37
What does PTH do to bones at low intermittent levels? At high levels?
Low: anabolic effects on osteoblasts and osteoclasts (indirect) High: catabolic effects
38
What does estrogen do to bones? Deficiency?
Inhibits apoptosis in bone forming osteoblasts and induces apoptosis in bone resorbing osteoclasts Excess cycles of remodeling and bone resorption leading to osteoporosis.
39
What is the pathophys of achondroplasia? Mutation/genetics? Symtpoms? Epid?
Failure of longitudinal bone growth (endochondral ossification--->short limbs Membranous ossification is not affected---large head relative to limbs Activation of FGFR3 inhibits chondrocyte proliferation 85% is sporadic homozygous is lethal Most common cause of dwarfism
40
What is primary osteoporosis? Lab values? Diagnosis? Causes? Presentations? What is type I? pathophys? type II? Epid? How can you prevent it? Treat it?
Trabecular (spongy) bone loses masa nd interconnections despite normal bone mineralization and lab values (serum Ca and PO4). Diagnosed by bone mineral density test (DEXA) with a t score of 70 y.o. Prevent: regular weight bearing exercise and adequate Ca and vitamin D intake throughout adulthood Treatment: Bisphosphonates, PTH analogs, SERMs, rarely calcitonin; denosumab (RANKL antibody---against it)
41
What is osteopetrosis? Another name? Pathophys? Symptoms? Mutation? X ray? Complications? Treatment? Prognosis?
Marble Bone Disease Carbonic anhydrase II mutation leads osteoclasts to have an inability to resorb bone (can't produce acid). Because of this, bone builds up. Thickened dense bones, prone to fracture Bone fills marrow space=pancytopenia and extramedullary hematopoesis Xray-bone in bone appearance CN impingment and palsies (narrowed foramina) Bone marrow transplant (new osteoclasts).
42
What is the pathophys of osteomalacia and rickets? Symptoms? Lab findings?
Vit. D defic leads to osteomalacia in adults and rickets in children Defective mineralization/calcification of osteoid soft bones that bow out Decr. Vit D leads to decr. serum calcium leads to incr. PTH secretion leads to decr. PO4 Hyperactivity of osteoblasts leads to incr. ALP (they require alkaline environment.
43
What is the pathophys of paget disease of bone? Histo? Another name? What are the stages? Symptoms? Complications? What does it incr. risk of? Lab values?
Osteitis Deformans Common, localized disorder of bone remodeling caused by incr. in both osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity Lytic:osteoclasts Mixed: clasts and blasts Sclerotic: blasts Quiescent: minimal of both ALP incr. Serum Ca, PO4, and PTH levels normal Mosaic pattern of woven and lamellar bone Long bone chalk stick fractures Hat size increased Hearing loss common (auditory foramen narrow) Incr bloow flow from incr. AV shunts may cause high output heart failure Incr. risk of osteogenic sarcoma
44
What is the pathophys of osteonecrosis? Another name? Most common site? pathophys there? Causes?
Avascular necrosis Infarction of bone and marrow Femoral head: medial circumflex femoral artery ``` Alcoholism Sickle Cell Disease Storage Exogenous/Endogenous corticosteroids pancreatitis Trauma Idiopathic Caisson (the bends) ```
45
What is a giant cell tumor like? Cellularity? Location? Epid? X ray? Histo?
Locally aggressive benign tumor Often around knee Osteoclastoma Epiphyseal end of long bone X-ray=soap bubble appearance Multinucleated giant cells
46
What is an osteochondroma like? Epid? Possible risk?
Most common benign tumor (exostosis of the bone) Mature bone with cartilaginous cap Male < 25 Rarely transforms to chondrosarcoma
47
What is the epid of osteosarcoma? Ages? Predisposing factors? Location? x ray? Treatment?
2nd most common primary malignant bone tumor (behind multiple myeloma) 10-20 years old and >65 paget disease, bone infarcts, radiation, familial retinoblastoma, Li Fraumeni (p53 mutation) Metaphysis of bone, near knee Codman triangle (from elevation of periosteum) or sunburst pattern on xray Aggressive. Surgical en bloc resection (with limb salvage) and chemo
48
What is the epid of ewing sarcoma? Location? Histo/grade? Treatment/prognosis? Mutation/result?
boys < 15 yo Diaphysis of long bones, pelvis, scapula, ribs Anaplastic small blue cell malignant tumor onion skin periosteal reaction in bone t(11;22) translocation causing fusion protein EWS-FLI 1 11 + 22=33 (patrick ewings number)
49
Compare and contrast osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis concerning Etiology, joint findings, predisposing factors, classic presentation, and treatment.
ETIOLOGY OSTEO: mechanical, joint wear and tear destroys articular cartilage RA: Autoimmune-inflamm destruction of synovial joints. Cytokines and Type III/IV HSR JOINT FINDINGS OSTEO: subchondral cysts, sclerosis, osteophytes (bone spurs), eburnation (polished, ivory like appearance), synovitis, Heberden nodes (DIP), Bouchard nodes (PIP). No MCP involvement. RA: Pannus (inflammatory granulation tissue) formation in joins (MCP, PIP), subQ rheumatoid nodules (fibrinoid necrosis), ulnar deviation of fingers, subluxation. Rare swan neck and boutonniere deform. Rare DIP involvement PREDISPOSING OSTEO: Age, obesity, joint trauma RA: Females > males. 80% have + RF (anti IgG Ab); anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is more specific. HLA-DR4 CLASSIC PRESENTATION OSTEO: Pain in weight bearing joints after use (end of day), improves with rest. Knee cartilage loss begins medially (bowlegged). Non inflammatory. No systemic symptoms RA: Morning stiffness lasting > 30 min and improving with use, symmetric joint involvement, systemic symptoms (fever, fatigue, weight loss, pleuritis, pericarditis) TREATMENT OSTEO: Acetaminophen, NSAIDs, intraarticular steroids RA: NSAIDS, steroids, disease modifying agents (methotrexate/sulfasalazine), biologics (TNF-alpha inhib)
50
What is pathophys of sjogrens like? Epid? Symptoms? lab findings? Etiology? Complications?
Autoimmune disorder characterized by destruction of exocrine glands (lacrimal and salivary) by lymph infiltrates Females 40-60 Inflammatory joint pain xeropthalmia (decr. tear production leading to corneal damage xerostomia (decr. saliva production) Bilateral parotid enlargement antinuclear antibodies SS-A (anti ro) and/or SS-B (anti-la)
51
What are some pathophysiologies of gout? Diagnosis? Symptoms? Precipitating factors? Acute treatment? Chronic? Epid?
Acute inflammatory monoarthritis caused by precipitation of monosodium urate crystals Hyperuricemia caused by: Underexcretion of uric acid (90% of pts)-usually idiopathic; can be exacerbated by medications (thiaz) Overproduction (10%)-lesch nyhan, PRPP excess, incr. cell turnover, von Gierke disease More common in males Needle shaped and negative birefringent under polarized light (yellow under parallel light, blue under perpendicular). Asymmetric joint distribution, usually MTP joint of big toe Swollen, red, and painful Tophus formation (external ear, olecranon bursa, or achilles tendon) Acute attack after large meal or alcohol consumption (vies for secretion spots in kidney with urea) Acute: NSAIDS, glucocorticoids, colchicine Chornic: XO inhibitors (allopurinol, feboxostat)
52
What is the pathophys of pseudogout? Presentation? Location? Diagnosis? ASsociated diseases? Acute treatment? Prophylaxis? Epid?
Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals within the joint space (chondrocalcinosis on x ray) Pain and effusion in a joint, usually large joints (often knee) Basophilic, rhomboid crystals that are weakly birefringent under polarized light (blue when parallel to light) hemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, osteoarthritis NSAIDS for sudden severe attacks; glucocorticoids Colchicine for prophylaxis Men=women >50
53
What are 3 common causes of infectious arthritis? Symptoms?
S. aureus, streptococcus, and N. gonorrhoeae Swollen, red, and painful joint Synovitis, tenosynovitis, and dermatitis
54
What are seronegative spondyloarthropathies? Genetics? Epid? 4 examples?
Arthritis w/o rheumatoid factor (no anti-IgG antibody) Strong association with HLA-B27 Males PAIR Psoriatic arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis inflammatory bowel disease reactive arthritis
55
What is the presentation like in psoriatic arthritis? Prevalence?
Joint pain and stiffness associated with psoriasis Asymmetric and patchy involvement (only a few fingers) Dactylitis (sausage fingers) Pencil in cup deformity on xray Fewer than 1/3 or psoriasis pts
56
What is the presentation/pathophys like in ankylosing spondylitis? x ray?
Chronic inflamm disease of spine and SI joints leads to ankylosis (stiff spine due to fusion of joints), uveitis, aortic regurgitation Bamboo spine (vert fusion)
57
What often accompanies Crohns or UC?
Ankylosing spondylitis or peripheral arthritis
58
What is the class triad of reactive arthritis? Cause?
Conjuctivitis with anterior uveitis Urethritis Arthritis Post-Gi (shigella, salmonella, yersinia, campylobacter chlamydia
59
What is a basic classic presentation in SLE? Epid? What are some symptoms that can occur with SLE? Lab findings (what do they mean?)? What is libman sacks endocarditis? What types of nephritis occur? What are common causes of death in SLE? Treatment?
Rash, joint pain, and fever Female of reproductive age Black ``` Rash (malar or discoid) Arthritis Soft tissue/serositis hematologic disorders (cytopenias) Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers Renal disease/Reynauds phenomenon Photosensitivity/Positive VDRL ANAs Immunosuppressants (to treat) Neuro disorders (seizures/psychosis) ``` RASH OR PAIN ANA (sens. not specific) Anti-dsDNA=specific, poor prognosis (renal disease) Anti-Smith (snRNPs)= specific, not prognostic Antihistone antibodies=drug induced Decr. C3/C4/CH50 (immune complex formation) Non bacterial wart like vegetations on both side of valve DPGN or membranous glomerulonephritis CV disease infections renal disease NSAIDS, steroids, immunosuppresants, hydroxychloroquine
60
What is the etiology of antiphospholipid syndrome? How is the diagnosis made (symptoms/lab findings)? Treatment?
Primary or secondary (SLE) autoimmune disorder hypercoag state History of thrombosis Spontaneous abortion ``` Lupus anticoag (FP VDRL and prolonged PTT) anticardiolipin (FP VDRL and prolonged PTT) anti beta 2 GP antibodies ``` Systemic anticoag
61
What is the pathophys of sarcoidosis? Lab findings? Epid? Presentation? xray? Associations (conditions it can cause)? Treatment?
Immune mediated widespread noncaseating granulomas Elevated serum ACE levels Elevated CD4/CD8 ratio Black females Often asymptomatic except for enlarged LNs Bilateral adenopathy and coarse reticular opacities Interstitial fibrosis, erythema nodosum, lupus pernio, Bell palsy, epithelioid granulomas containing microscopic schaumann and asteroid bodies, uveitis, hypercalcemia Steroids
62
What are the symptoms of polymyalgia rheumatica? Findings? Epid? Association? Treatment?
Pain and stiffness in shoulders and hips, often with fever, malaise, and weight loss No muscle weakness women > 50 Temporal arteritis Incr. ESR, Incr. CRP, normal CK Rapid response to low dose corticosteroids
63
What are the symptoms of fibromyalgia? Treatment?
Females 20-50 Chronic widespread MS pain associated with stiffness, paresthesias, poor sleep, fatigue Regular exercise Antidepressants Anticonvulsants
64
What are the lab findings in polymyositis and dermatomyositis? Treatmenet? What ist he presentation and pathophys of polymyositis? What is the pathophys and symptoms of dermatomyositis?
Incr. CK, +ANA, +Anti-Jo-1 AB, Anti SRP, Anti Mi 2 AB Steroids followed by long term immunosuppressant therapy (methotrexate) POLY Progressive symmetric proximal muscle weakness, often in shoulders Endomysial inflammation with CD8 T cells DERM Similar to poly, but with malar rash, gottron papules, heliotrope rash, shawl and face rash, mechanics hands. Incr. risk of occult malignancy Perimysial inflammation and atrophy w/ CD4 T cells
65
Compare and contrast myasthenia gravis with lambert eaton myasthenic syndrome concerning prevalence, pathophys, presentation, assocation, and response to AChEIs?
MG most common NMJ disorder autoantibodies to postsyn ACh receptor ptosis, diplopia, weakness Worsens with muscle use Thymoma, thymic hyperplasia Reversal of symptoms LEMS uncommon autoantibodies to presynaptic CA channel leads to decr. ACh release proximal muscle weakness, autonomic symptoms (dry mouth, impotence) Improves with muscle use Small cell lung cancer Minimal effect
66
What is myositis ossificans? Location? Presentation?
metaplasia of skeletal muscle into bone following muscular trauma Upper or lower extremity Suspicious mass at site of known trauma or as incidental finding on radiography
67
What is the triad of scleroderma? Presentation? Describe the two types and associated antibody. Epid? Most common cause of death?
Triad of autoimmunity, noninflammatory vasculopathy, and collagen deposition with fibrosis Sclerosis of skin (puffy, taut skin without wrinkles), fingertip pitting Sclerosis of renal, pulmonary, CV, and GI systems Diffuse: widespread skin involvement, rapid progression, early visceral involvement. Anti Scl-70 AB=Anti DNA topoisomerase I ``` Limited: skin involvement confined to fingres and face CREST: Calcinosis Raynaud phenomenon Esophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia Anti-centromere antibody ```
68
What are the 3 layers of skin? What are the five layers of the epidermis? What do they contain?
Epidermis, dermis, subQ fat (hypodermis) Californians like girls in string bikinis ``` Strateum corneum (keratin) stratum lucidum stratum granulosom stratum spinosum (desmosomes) stratum basale (stem cell site) ```
69
What is a tight junction? Another name? Function? What is it made up of? Same questions for adherens junction, desmosome, gap junction, integrins, and hemidesmosome.
Tight: Zonula occludens=prevents paracellular movement of solutes. Claudins and occludins Adherens Junction: Zonula adherens=below tight junction, forms belt connecting actin cytoskeletons of adjacent cells with CADherins (Ca depend Adhesion proteins). Desmosome: Macula adherens-structural support via keratin interactions Gap Junction: Channel proteins call connexons permit electrical and chemical communication b/w cells Hemidesmosome: connects keratin in basal cells to underlying BM Integrins: membrane proteins that maintain integrity of Basolateral membrane by binding to collagen and laminin in BM.
70
What is a macule? Example? Patch? Papula? plaque? Vesicle? Bulla? Pustule? Wheal? Scale? Crust?
Macule: flat lesion with well circumscribed change in color < 1cm=freckle, labial macule Patch? macule > 1 cm=large birthmark Papula? elevated solid skin lesion < 1cm=mole, acne plaque? papule > 1 cm=psoriasis Vesicle? Small fluid containing blister < 1 cm=chickenpox \Bulla? large fluid containing blister > 1cm bullous pemphigoid Pustule? Vesicle containing pus=pustular psoriasis Wheal? transient smooth papule or plaque=hives Scale? flaking off of stratum corneum=eczema, psoriasis, and SCC Crust? dry exudate=impetigo
71
What is this? Example? ``` hyperkeratosis: parakeratosis: spongiosis: acantholysis: acanthosis: ```
hyperkeratosis: incr. thickness of stratum corneum=psoriasis and calluses parakeratosis: hyperkeratosis with retention of nuclei in stratum corneum=psoriasis spongiosis: epidermal accumulation of edematous fluid in intercellular spaces=eczematous derm acantholysis: separation of epidermal cells=pemphigus vulgaris acanthosis: epidermal hyperplasia (incr. spinosum)=acanthosis nigricans
72
What is albinism? Pathophys? Other causes? Risks?
Normal melanocyte number with decr. melanin production due to decr. tyrosinase activity or defective tyrosine transport Failure of neural crest cell migration Incr. risk of skin cancer
73
What is melasma? Associations? What is vitiligo? Cause?
Hyperpigmentation associated with pregnancy or OCP use Irregular areas of complete depigmentation caused by autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
74
Waht is acne? Pathophys? epid?
obstructive and inflammatory disease of the pilosebaceous unit predominantly found in the face and trunk Adolescents most common
75
What is atopic dermatitis? Presentation? Associations?
Eczema=type I Pruritic eruption, commonly on skin flexures Asthma, allergic rhinitis Starts on face in infancy then appears in antecubital fossae
76
What is the pathophys of allergic contact dermatitis? Causes?
Type IV HSR to nickel poison ivy or neomycin
77
What is a melanocytic nevus? risks? Intradermal presentation? Junctional presentation?
Common mole. Benign Risk of melanoma Intradermal=papular Junctional=flat
78
What is the presentation of psoriasis? Histology? What is auspitz sign? ASsociations?
Papules and plaques with silvery scaling (knees and elbows) Acanthosis with parakeratotic scaling (nuclei still in corneum). Incr. spinosum, decr. granulosum Auspitz sign=bleeding when taking off scales (exposure to dermal papillae) Nail pitting and psoriatic arthritis
79
What is rosacea? Pathophys/presentation? risk?
inflamm facial skin disorder characterized by erythematous papules and pustules but no comedones Facial flushing to external stimuli Rhinophyma (deformation of nose)
80
What is the presentation of seborrheic keratosis? Location? Pathophys? What is the leser trelat sign? Cause?
flat, greasy, pigmented squamous epithelial proliferation with keratin filled cysts Looks stuck on (dark brown stuck on coin) Head trunk and extremeties Common benign neoplasm of older persons Leser trelat=sudden appearance of multiple seborrheic keratoses, indicating underlying malignancy
81
What are verrucae? Cause? Histo?
Warts HPV Soft, tan colored cauliflower like papules epidermal hyperplasia, hyperkeratosis, koilocytosis Condyloma acuminatum
82
What is urticaria? pathophys? Characterized?
Hives. Pruritic wheals that form after mast cell degranulationn Superficial dermal edema and lymph channel dilation
83
What is impetigo like? Depth? Causes? Bullous impetigo?
very superficial S. aureus or S. pyogenes Honey colored crusting Same but with bullae=staph
84
What is cellulitis like? depth? Bug? Cause?
Acute painful spreading infection Deeper dermis and subQ S. pyogenes or S. aureus Break in skin from trauma or other infection
85
What is erysipelas like? Depth? Bug?
Well defined demarcation between infection and normal skin Upper dermis and superficial lymph S. pyogenes
86
What is an abscess like? Depth? Cause?
collection of pus from walled off infection deeper layers of skin S. aureus (MRSA)
87
What is necrotizing fascitis like? Cause? Depth? Bug?
Bullae and purple color to skin crepitus from methane and CO2 productionn Flesh eating bacteria Deeper tissue S. pyogenes or anaerobic bacteria
88
What is the pathophys of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome? Presentation? Epid?
Exotoxin destroys keratinocyte attachments in stratum granulosum only. Fever and generalized erythematous rash with sloughing of the upper layers of the epidermis that heals completely Newborns, children, adults with renal insufficiency
89
What is the pathophys of pemphigus vulgaris? Presentation? Locations? Diagnosis?
Potentially fatal autoimmunde skin disorder with IgG ab against desmoglein (part of desmosome) Flaccid intraepidermal bullae caused by acantholysis (no desmosomes to hold stratum spinosum together) Oral mucosa involvement IF=Abs around epi cells in a netlike pattern Nikolsky sign==separation of dermis upon manually stroking of skin
90
What is the pathophys of bullous pemphigoid? Presentation? Locations? Diagnosis?
Less severe than pemphigus vulgaris. IgG Ab against hemidesmosomes (bullow the epi) Tense blisters containing eosinophils that affect skin but not oral mucosa IF=Linear pattern at epi/derm junction Nikolsky sign negative
91
What is the presentationn of dermatitis herpetiformis? Location? Pathophys? ASsociation?
Pruritic papules, vesicles, and bullae (often on elbows) IgA at tips of dermal papillae Celiac disease
92
What are some associations with erythema multiforme? Presentation?
Infections (Myco, HSV), drugs (sulfa, beta lactams, phenytoin), cancers, autoimmune Multiple types of lesions (macules, papules, vesicles, target lesions)
93
What are the symptoms of stevens johnson syndrome? Locations? Presentation? Assocation? What is toxic epidermal necrolysis? What is SJS-TEN? How is TEN different from staph scalded skin syndrome?
Fever, bullae formation and necrosis Sloughing of skin High mortality rate 2 mucous membranes involved Targetoid lesions mmaybe Adverse drug reaction >30% of body surface = TEN ( destroys epi/derm junction, not just the stratum granulosum connections) 10-30%=SJS=TEN
94
What is acanthosis nigricans? Location? Assocations?
Epidermal hyperplasia causing symmetric, hyperpigmented thickening of skin, especially in axilla or on neck. ``` Hyperinsulinemia (diabetes, obesity, cushing) Visceral malig (gastric adenoCA) ```
95
What is actinic keratosis? Presentation? Risks involved?
Premalignant lesions caused by sun exposure. Small rough erythematous or brownish papules or plaques Risk of Squam cell CA proportional to degree of dysplasia
96
What is erythema nodosum? Associations?
Painful inflammatory lesions of subQ fat, usually on anterior shins. Idiopathic Sarcoid, coccidiomycosis, histoplasmosis, TB, streptococcal infections, leprosy, crohns.
97
Presentation of lichen planus? Mucosal involvement? Histo? Assocation?
6 Ps Pruritic Purple Polygonal, Planar Papules and Plaques Wickham Striae (retic. white lines) Sawtooth infiltrate of lymphocytes at dermal epidermal jucnitons Hep C
98
What is presentation of pityriasis rosea? Prognosis?
Herald Patch followed days later by other scaly erythematous plaques in a christmas tree distribution Multiple plaques with collarette scale 6-8 weeks self resolve
99
What is a sunburn? Pathophys? What do UVA and UVB lead to? What can it lead to?
acute cutaneous inflammatory reaction due to excessive UV irradiation DNA mutations, inducing apoptosis of keratinocytes UVA=tanning and photoaging UVB=Sunburn Impetigo, skin cancers
100
Epid of Basal cell CA? Location? Spread? Typical Appearance? Other appearances? Histo?
Most common skin cancer Sun exposed areas Locallly invasive, no mets Pink, pearly nodules, commonly with telangiectasias, rolled borders, central crusting or ulceration Nonhealing ulcres with infiltrating growht Scaling plaque Palisading nuclei
101
Squamous cell CA epid? Assocations? Location? Spread? Appearance? Histo? What is keratocanthoma like?
SEcond most common skin cancer Excessive exposure to sunlight Immunosuppression Chronic draining sinuses Sometimes arsenic exposure Locally invasive, maybe to LNs, rare mets Ulcerative red leasions with frequent scale Face, lower lip, ears, hands Keratin pearls Variant that grows rapidly (4--6 weeks) and may regress spontaneously over months
102
Spread of melanoma? Tumor marker? Assocations? Risk factors? What does depth of tumor indicate? What is the appearance like? What are the 4 different types? Mutation? Treatment? Treatment in metastatic or unresectable with BRAF V600E mutation?
Significant risk of metastasees S-100 Sunlight exposure Fair skinned Depth correlates to risk of mets ``` ABCDE Asymmetry Border irregular Color variation Diameter > 6mm Evoluation over time ``` Superficial spreading Nodular Lentigo maligna Acral lentiginous Activation of BRAF kinase Excision with wide margins Vemurafenib, a BRAF kinase inhibitor

Step One (49 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions