Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the steps of the beginning of neural development. What does the neural plate give rise to? What does the notochord become? What are the alar and basal plates? When do the first steps occur?

A

Notochord induces overlying ectoderm to become neuroectoderm which forms the neural plate

The neural plate gives rise to the neural tube and neural crest cells

Notochord=nucleus pulposus

Alar=dorsal=sensory
basal=ventral=motor

Day 18-21

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2
Q

What are the three primary vesicles of the developing brain? What do they become/what are the five secondary vesicles? What do these structures become in adults? Where are the different ventricular cavities located?

A

Forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), hindbrain (rhombencephalon

Forebrain leads to telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres)
Also to diencephalon (thalamus)

Midbrain leads to mesencephalon (midbrain)

Hindbrain leads to metencephalon (pons/cerebellum)
Also to myelencephalon (medulla)

lateral ventricles (1 and 2)=hemispheres
third ventricle=thalamus
cerebral aqueduct=midbrain
upper part of fourth ventricle=pons
Lower part=medulla
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3
Q

What neural cells originate as neuroectoderm? neural crest cells? Mesoderm?

A

NE=CNS, astrocytes, oligodendroglia, ependymal cells
NC=schwann cells, PNS neurons
Mesoderm=microglia (like macrophages)

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4
Q

What are neural tube defects? When do they occur? What increases their risk? Lab values? What is spina bifida occulta? Meningocele? Meningomyelocele?

A

Persistent connection between amniotic cavity and spinal canal (4th week=neural pores fail to close)

Low folic acid intake by mother

Incr. AFP
Incr. AChE in amniotic fluid

SBO=failure of bony spinal canal to close, but no herniation. Lower vertebral leves. Tuft of hair or skin dimple. Normal AFP

Meningocele=Meninges (no neural tissue) herniate through bony defect

Meningomyelo=meninges and neural tissue herniate

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5
Q

What is anencephaly? Lab values? Associations? What decrease risk?

A

Malformation of anterior neural tube leading to a lack of forebrain and calvarium

Incr. AFP, polyhydramnios (no swallowing center in brain)

Type 1 DM (maternal)

Incr. folate decr. risk

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6
Q

What is holoprosencephaly? Timing? Mutations? Moderate form symptoms? severe form? Associated syndromes?

A

Failure and left and right hemi to fuse (5-6 weeks)

Sonic hedgehog pathway

Cleft lip/palate —>cyclopia

patau and fetal alcohol

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7
Q

What is chiari II? What does it lead to? How does it present?

A

Herniation of cerebellar tonsils and vermis through foramen magnum

Aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephalus

Lumbosacral meningomyelocele and paralysis below defect

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8
Q

What is Dandy-Walker malformation? Associations?

A

Agenesis of cerebellar vermis with cystic enlargement of 4th ventricle (fills posterior fossa)

Hydrocephalus, spina bifida

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9
Q

What is syringomyelia? Hydromyelia? What is damage first? Presentation? Etiologies? Location?

A

cystic cavity in spinal cord (hydro=in central canal)

Crossing anterior commisural fibers

Cape like bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities

Chiari malformations, trauma, tumors

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10
Q

What is chiari I malformation? Cause? Presentation?

A

cerebellar tonsillar ectopia > 3-5 mm

Congenital

Asymptomatic in childhood —>headaches and cerebellar symptoms

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11
Q

What does the anterior 2/3 of the tongue form from? Innervation? Posterior 1/3? Innervation? What are the muscles of the tongue? Function of each? Innervation of each? To what nucleus is taste transmitted?

A

ANT 2/3

1st and 2nd branchial arches
sens: CNV3
Taste: CNVII (to solitary nucleus)

POST 2/3

3rd and 4th branchial arches
Sens: mainly CNIX, very post. is CNX
Taste: Mainly CNIX, very post. is CNX

CNXII

Motor to hyoglossus (retracts/depresses)
Genioglossus (protrudes)
Styloglossus (draws sides of tongue upward to create trough for swallowing)

CNX

Motor to palatoglossus (elevates post. tongue while swallowing

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12
Q

With what stain can neurons be seen? Which parts? Describe wallerian degeneration. What are the functions of the astrocyte? Marker? What is the function of the microglia? When is it activated? What happens to them in HIV?

A
Nissl staining (stains RER, thus can only seen cell body and dendrites)
Injury to axon leads to degeneration distal to injury and axonal retraction proximally; allows for potential regeneration of axon (in PNS)

Physical support, repair, K+ metabolism, removal of excess NT, blood brain barrier component, glycogen fuel reserve buffer, reactive gliosis in response to injury
GFAP

phagocytic svanger cells of CNS
Activated in response to tissue damage
HIV infected microglia fuse to form multinucleated giant cells in CNS

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13
Q

What is the function of myelin? What are the functions of schwann cells? Pattern? In what illness might they be injured? What is an acoustic neuroma? What is its association if bilateral? Function of oligodendroglia? Pattern? Histo appearance? In what illnesses are they injured?

A

Wraps and insulates axons
Incr. cond. veloc.—>saltatory conduction/nodes of ranvier (lots of Na)

Schwann cells myelinate only 1 PNS axon
Promote axonal regeneration
Guillain-Barre
Acoustic Neuroma: Schwannoma of CNVIII. Bilateral=NF2

Oligodendroglia can myelinate many CNS axons (30)
Fried egg appearance
MS, progessive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, leukodystrophies

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14
Q

Compare free nerve endings, meissner corpuscles, pacinian corp, merkel discs, and ruffini corpuscles concerning their description of fibers, adaptation, location, and senses.

A

FREE NERVE ENDINGS

C-slow, unmyelinated fibers
Adelta-fast, myelinated fibers

All skin, epidermis, some viscera

Pain, temp.

MEISSNER

Large myelinated
Adapt quickly

Hairless skin

Dynamic, fine/light touch, position sense

PACINIAN

Large myelinated
Adapt quick

Deep skin layers, ligaments, joints

Vibration, pressure

MERKEL

Large myelinated
Adapt slow

Finger tips, superficial skin

Pressure, deep static touch (shapes, edges), position sense

RUFFINI

Dendritic endings with capsule
Adapt slow

Finger tips, joints

Pressure, slippage of objects along surface of skin, joint angle change

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15
Q

What is the endoneurium? perineurium? Epineurium?

A

Endo-invests single nerve fiber
Peri-Surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers
Epineurium-Dense connective tissue that surrounds entire nerve (fascicles and blood vessels within)

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16
Q

How is NE changed in certain diseases? Where is it synth? What nuclei are associated with the reward center, pleasure, addiction, and fear?

A

NE
Incr. anxiety
Decr. depression
Locus ceruleus (pons) (stress and panic)

DOPAMINE
Incr. huntingtons
decr. parkinsons
decr. depression
Ventral tegmentum and substantia nigra pars compacta (midbrain)

5-HT
Decr. anxiety
Decr. depression
Raphe nuclei (pons, medulla, midbrain)

ACH
Incr. parkinsons
decr. alzheimers
Decr. huntingtons
Basal nucleus of Meynert

GABA
Decr. anxiety
Decr. huntingtons
Nucleus accumbens

Nucleus accumbens and septal nucleus

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17
Q

What is the function of the BBB? What are the 3 structures that make it up? How do glucose and AAs cross? Nonpolar/lipid soluble molecules? What are a few areas with fenestrated capillaries in the brain and what are their functions? What can destory the tight cell junctions?

A

Prevents circ. blood substances from reaching the CSF/CNS

tight junctions b/w nonfenestrated capilary endo cells
basement membrane
astrocye foot processes

Glucose/AAs cross slowly by carrier mediated transport
Nonpolar cross rapidly via diffusion

Area postrema (emetic agents)
OVLT (osmotic sensing)
Neurohypophysis (secretes ADH into circ.)

Infarction/neoplasm can damage tight junctions (vasogenic edema)

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18
Q

What are the function of the hypothalamus in general? What are the two inputs not covered by the BBB?

A

TAN HATS

Thirst and water balance
Adenohypophysis control (regulates ant. pit)
Neurohypophysis releases ADH, oxy through post. pit

Hunger
Autonomic regulation
Temp. regulation
Sexual urges

OVLT (organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis, changes in osmolarity
Area postrema (emetics)
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19
Q

What does the supraoptic nucleus do? Paraventricular nucleus? Lateral area? Ventromedial area? Anterior hypothalamus? Posterior hypothalamus? Suprachiasmatic nucleus?

A

SON=ADH synth
PVN=Oxytocin synth

Lateral area=Hunger. Inhibited by leptin (Lose weight)
Damage leads to anorexia, failure to thrive
Zap your lateral nucleus, lateral shrinking

Ventromedial area=satiety. Stimulated by leptin (Lose)
Damage (craniopharyngioma) leads to hyperphagia
Zap VM area leads to ventral and medial growth

Anterior hypothalamus=cooling, parasymp
A/C: anterior cooling, cool off (cooling, parasymp=settles)

Posterior hypothalamus=heating, sympathetic
Get fired up (heating, symp)

Suprachiasmatic=circadian rhythm
You need sleep to be charismatic

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20
Q

What is the sleep cycle regulated by? What hormones does this regulation control? Explain the mechanism? What is its input?

A

Circadian rhythm (suprachiasmatic nucleus)

ACTH, prolactin, melatonin, NE

SCN leads to NE release leads to pineal gland act. leading to melatonin

SCN regulated by environment (light)

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21
Q

What are the two stages of sleep? What causes extraocular movements during REM sleep? How often does REM sleep occur? How does it change through the night? What drugs are associated with decr. REM sleep and delta wave sleep? Just decr. REM sleep? How should bed wetting be treated? How should night terrors and sleepwalking be treated?

A

REM (rapid eye movement) and non REM

PPRF (paramedian pontine retic. formation)
Every 90 min., incr. in duration throughout the night

Alcohol, benzos, and barbituates
NE

Bedwetting: oral desmopressin

Night terrors: Benzos

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22
Q

What are the stages of sleep like? What percentage of sleep are we in each one? Which waveforms are associated with each? What are the waveforms like?

A

Awake (eyes open)=beta waves (highest freq, lowest ampli)

Awake (eyes closed)=alpha waves

NREM
Stage N1 (5%): light sleep-theta
Stage N2 (45%): deeper sleep, bruxism=sleep spindles and K complexes
Stage N3 (25%): Deepest NREM sleep (slow wave sleep): sleepwalking, night terrors and bedwetting=delta (lowest frequency, highest ampl)

REM (25%): Loss of motor tone, incr. brain O2 use, incr. variable pulse and BP; dreaming and penile tumescence occur; memory processing function=beta

at night, BATS Drink Blood

Beta, alpha, theta, sleep spindles/k complexes, delta, beta

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23
Q

What is the major function of the thalamus? What is the input for the VPL? What info is received their? Destination? Same questions for VPM, LGN, MGN, and VL

A

VPL

Input: spinothalamic and dorsal columns/medial lemniscus
Info: pain, temp; pressure, touch, vibration, proprio
Destination: primary somatosensory cortex

VPM

Input: trigeminal and gustatory pathway
Info: face sensation, taste
Destination: primary somatosensory cortex

LGN

Input: CNII
Info: Vision
Destination: Calcarine sulcus

MGN

Input: superior olive and inf. colliculus of tectum
Info: Hearing
Destination: auditory cortex of temporal lobe

VL

Input: basal ganglia, cerebellum
Info: motor
Destination: motor cortex

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24
Q

What are the functions of the limbic systems? What structures are involved? What are the 5 F’s?

A

neural structures involved in emotion, long term memory, olfaction, behavior modulation, and ANS function

Hippocampus
Amygdala
Fornix
mammilary bodies
cingulate gyrus

Feeding, fleeing, fighting, feeling, and fornicating

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25
Q

What are the symptoms of osmotic demyelination syndrome? Pathophys? What usually causes it? What related syndrome causes cerebral edema?

A

Acute paralysis, dysarthria, dysphagia, diplopia, and loss of consciousness

Massive axonal demyeination in white pontine matter
secondary to osmotic changes

Correcting hyponatremia too fast (add sodium, water rushes out of axons)

From low to high, your pons will die (osm. demy syn)
From high to low, your brain will blow (edema/herniat)

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26
Q

What is the overall function of the cerebellum? What are its inputs? What is its output? By which pathway? What are its deep nuclei? What do lateral lesions result in? Medial lesions?

A

Modulates movement; aids in coordination and balance

Input:
Contralateral cortex via middle cerebellar peduncle
Ipsilateral proprioceptive info via inf. cereb. ped. from spinal cord

Output: To contralateral cortex to modulate movement via purkinje nerves (purkinje to deep nuclei to contralateral cortex via cerebellar peduncle

Deep:
Dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial (Don’t Eat Greasy Foods)

Lateral: voluntary movment of extremities; when injured propensity to fall toward injured side

Medial lesins: Midline structures and/or flocclonodular lobe=truncal ataxia (wide based cerebellar gait), nystagmus, head tilting. Bilateral lesions affecting axial and proximal limb muscles

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27
Q

What is the main function of the BG? Input/output? What are the 4 components of the basal ganglia? What is the indirect pathway? Direct pathway? Describe the pathway of dopamine in the basal ganglia and how it affects these pathways.

A

Voluntary movements and making structural adjustments
Receives cortical input (negative feedback to cortex to modulate movement)

substantia nigra pars compacta
globus pallidus (internus and externus)
subthalamic nucleus
striatum (putamen + caudate)

INdirect=INhibitory (less direct pathway-more steps)
Direct=facilitaes movement

Direct: Striatum inhibits the GPi from inhibiting the thalamus. Then, the thalamus facilitates movement

Indirect: Striatum inhibits the GPe from inhibiting the STN. The STN then stimulates the GPi so it greatly inhibits the thalamus from stimulating movement.

The pars compacta releases dopamine. The direct pathway has a D1 receptor and the independent pathway has a D2 receptor. D1 receptor is stimulatory and D2 is inhibitory. Therefore, dopamine stimulates movement through both pathways.

D1Receptor=D1Rect

substantia pars reticula functions much like the GPi.

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28
Q

What is the presentation of athetosis? Characteristic lesion? Chorea? What is the presentation of dystonia? 2 examples? Presentation of hemiballismus? Lesion? Myoclonus? Example? Associations?

A

Ath: slow writhing movements, especially in fingers (BG/Caudate/Hunting)

Chorea: Sudden jerky purposeless movements (BG/Caudate/Hunting)

Dystonia: sustained involuntary muscle contractions (writers cramp and sustained eyelid twitch)

Hemiballismus: sudden, wild flailing of 1 arm and may ipsilateral leg (Contralateral Subthalamic nucleus)

Myoclonus: sudden, brief, uncontrolled muscle contraction (jerks, hiccups=metabolic abnormalities such as renal and liver failure)

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29
Q

What is an essential tremor like? When is it worsened? Cause? Treatments? Self treatment? What is an intention tremor like? Lesion? What is a resting tremor like? What alleviates it? Lesion? Another name?

A

High frequency tremor with sustained posture (outstretched arms)
Worse with movement or when anxious
Familial
Self medicate with EtOH (decr. amplitude of tremor)
Beta blockers and primidone

Slow, zigzag motion when pointing/extending toward a target
Cerebellar dysfunction

Uncontrolled movement of distal appendages at rest
Alleviated by intentional movement
parkinsons
Pill rolling tremor.

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30
Q

What is the histo of parkinsons? pathophys? Symptoms?

A
Degenerative disorder of CNS
Loss of dopaminergic neurons (depigmentation) of substantia nigra pars compacta
Lewy bodies (intracellular eosinophillic inclusions-alpha synuclein)

TRAPS

Tremor
Rigidity (cogwheel)
Akinesia
Postural instabililty
Shuffling gait
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31
Q

What are the genetics of huntingtons? Symptoms? Labs? Pathophys? MRI?

A

Auto dom. CAG repeat on chromosome 4.
Onset b/w 20 and 50

Choreiform movements, aggression, depression, dementia

Incr. Dopamine, decr. GABA, Decr. ACh

Neuronal death via NMDA-R binding and glutamate toxicity

Atrophy of caudate nuclei disrupts BG pathways leading to unwanted movement.

Atrophy of caudate w/ ex vacuo dilatation of frontal horns.

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32
Q

What is aphasia? Dysarthria? What are symptoms of Broca aphasia? Location of lesion? Wernicke aphasia? Location? Conduction? Global? Transcortical motor? Transcortical sensory? Mixed transcortical?

A

Aphasia=higher order inability to speak (language deficit)
dyarthria=motor inability to speak

Broca=nonfluent aphasia with intact comprehension and impaired repetition
(brocas area in inferior frontal gyrus of frontal lobe=language production)

Wernicke=fluent aphasia w/ impaired comprehension and repetition
(Wernickes area is superior temporal gyrus of temporal lobe=language interpretation/analysis)

Conduction=Poor repetition, but fluent speech, intact comprehension (Arcuate fasciculus)

Global=nonfluent aphasia w/o comprehension, poor repetition (arcuate, wernickes, broca)

Transcortical motor=nonfluent aphasia with good comprehension and intact repetition (area around broca)

Transcort. sensory=poor comprehension w/ fluent speech and intact repetition (area around wernickes)

Mixed transcorticals=poor comprehension and influent speech but intact repetition (areas around wernickes and areas around brocas)

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33
Q

What are the symptoms of Kluver Bucy syndrome? Lesion? Association?

A

Disinhibited behavior (hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality)

Amygdala (bilateral)

HSV-1

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34
Q

What lesion will result in disinhibition and deficits in concentration, orientation, judgment; reemergence of primitive reflexes?

A

Frontal lobe

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35
Q

what lesion will result in hemispatial neglect syndrome (agnosia of contralat. side of world)

A

Non dominant parietal temporal cortex

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36
Q

what lesion will result in Gerstmann syndrome? Symptoms?

A

agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and left-right disorientation

Dominant parietal temporal cortex

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37
Q

What lesion will result in reduced levels of arousal and wakefullness (coma)?

A

Reticular activating system (midbrain)

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38
Q

What are the symptoms of wernicke korsakoff? Associations? Lesion?

A

confusion, opthalmoplegia, ataxia

Memory loss, confabulation, personality changes

Thiamine deficiency and EtOH use

Mammilary bodies (bilateral)

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39
Q

What lesion will result in anterograde amnesia? What does this mean?

A

Bilateral hippocampus

No new memories

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40
Q

What lesion will cause the eyes to look away from side of lesion?

A

Paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)

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41
Q

What lesion will cause eyes to look toward lesion?

A

Frontal eye fields

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42
Q

Where are the water shed zones? When are they damaged? What are the results?

A

Between ACA/MCA and MCA/PCA.

Severe hypotension

Upper leg/upper arm weakness (ACA/MCA)
Defects in higher order visual processing (MCA/PCA)

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43
Q

Describe the vasculature of the brain.

A

Vertebral arteries come off the subclavian.
They both give of Posterior inferior cerebellar arteries
They both give off anterior spinal arteries which join together and head down the spinal cord.
They join together to form the basilar artery (at pons)
Just as they join together, they give off ant. inf. cerebellar arteries
The basilar artery travels along the pons giving off pontine branches
At the end of the pons, it gives off Superior Cerebellar arteries
It then splits into two posterior cerebral arteries
The PCAs give off posterior communicating arteries

The interal carotids break off from the common carotid
They give off arteries which anastomose with PComs
They give off anterior cerebral arteries
The ACAs have an anterior communicating artery.
The ICAs give off an anterior choroidal artery
It then becomes the middle cerebral artery
The middle cerebral artery gives off lenticulostriate arteries

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44
Q

Where is the leg located in the homunculus? Arm? Face?

A

Leg=medial
Arm=less medial
Face=most lateral

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45
Q

What modulates cerebral perfusion? When does this change? What can be done to help in cases of acute cerebral edema? How do panic attacks cause fainting?

A

PCO2 (incr. PCO2 leads to incr. cerebral blood flow)

In extreme hypoxia (<50mmHg), decr. PO2 will cause perfusion to increase

In acute cerebral edema, hyperventilation can lead to Decr. PCO2 leading to decr. cerebral blood flow

In panic attacks, decr. PCO2 can lead to decr. blood flow leading to fainting

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46
Q

What does CPP equal? What happens if its zero?

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure=MAP (blood pressure) - ICP (intracranial pressure)

If BP is decr. or ICP is incr., it can reach zero which will result in brain death (no perfusion)

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47
Q

contralateral paralysis-upper limb and face
Contralateral loss of sensation-upper limb and face
Aphasia if in dominant
Hemineglect if in non dominant
Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it?

A

motor cortex-lateral
sensory cortex-lateral
Temporal lobe

MCA

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48
Q

CL paralysis-LL
CL loss of sens-lower limb

Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it?

A

Motor cortex-medial
Sensory cortex-medial

ACA

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49
Q

contralateral hemiplegia/hemiparesis

Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it? Cause of stroke?

A

Striatum, internal capsule

Lenticulostriate

Lacunar infarcts (2nd to unmanaged hypertension)

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50
Q

Contralateral hemiparesis-upper and lower limb
Decr. contralateral proprioception
Ipsilateral hypoglossal dysfunction
Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it? Which side does it often affect? What syndrome does it cause?

A

Lateral corticospinal tract
Medial lemniscus
Caudal medulla-hypoglossal nerve

ASA

Often bilateral

Medial medullary syndrome: infarct of paramedian branches of ASA and vertebral arteries.

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51
Q

Vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus; decr. pain and temp sensatin from ipsilateral face and CL body; dysphagia/hoarseness; decr. gag reflex; ipsilateral horner syndrome; ataxia, dysmetria

Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it? What syndrome does it cause? Which symptoms are unique to it?

A

Lateral medulla: vestibular nucl, lateral spinothalamic, spinal trigeminal nucl, nucl ambiguus, sympathetic fibers, inferior cerebellar peduncle

PICA

Lateral medullary (wallenberg) syndrome
Nucleus ambiguus effects (dysphagia/hoarseness) are unique to PICA

Don’t PickA horse that can’t eat

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52
Q

vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus.
Paralysis of face
Decr. lacrimation, salivation, taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue
Ipsi decr. pain and temp of face
CL decr. pain and temp of body
Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it? What syndrome does it cause?

A

Lateral pons: CN nuclei (vestibular nuclei, facial nucleus, spinal trigeminal nucl, cochlear nuclei), symp. fibers

Middle and inferior cerebellar peduncles

AICA

Lateral pontine syndrome

Facial nucleus effects unique to AICA

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53
Q

Contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing

Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it?

A

Occipital cortex, visual cortex

PCA

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54
Q

Preserved consciousness and blinking, quadriplegia, loss of voluntary facial, mouth, and tongue movements
Locked in syndrome

Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it?

A

Pons, medulla, lower midbrain, corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts, ocular CN nuclei, PPRF

Basilar

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55
Q

Visual field defects

Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it? Type of lesion?

A

Aneurysm (saccular) impinges CNs

ACom

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56
Q

CNIII palsy=symptoms?

Where is the lesion and what stroke caused it? Lesion?

A

Saccular aneurysm

Eye is down and out with ptosis and mydriasis

PCom

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57
Q

What is an aneurysm? What is a berry aneurysm? Where does it usually occur? What are its complications? ASsociations? Risk factors? What is a charcot bouchard microaneurysm? Association? Location?

A

Abnormal dilation of artery due to weakening of vessel wall

Bifurcations in the circle of willis (ACA and ACom)

Rupture–>SAH or hemorrhagic stroke

Bitemporal hemianopia via compression of optic chiasm

ADPKD, Ehler Danlos

Advanced age, hypertension, smoking, blackness

CHARCOT

Chronic hypertension
Small Vessels (BG and thalamus)
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58
Q

What is central post stroke pain syndrome? Pathophys? How common is it?

A

Neuropathic pain due to thalamic lesions. Initial paresthesias followed in weeks to months by allodynia and dysesthesia.

10% of stroke pts

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59
Q

What causes an epidural hematoma? Presentation/symptoms? Time course? CT scan?

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery after fracture of temporal bone.

Lucid interval. Rapid expansion on systemic pressure leading to transtentorial herniation and CNIII palsy

biconvex, hyperdense blood collecction
does not cross suture lines
Cross falx, tentorium

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60
Q

What cuases at subdural hematoma? Time course? What is the bleeding like? Epid? CT?

A

Rupture of bridging veins

Slow venous bleeding (develops over time)

Elderly, alcoholics, blunt trauma, shaken baby

Crescent shaped hemorrhage
Crosses suture lines
Midline shift
Doe not cross falx, tentorium

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61
Q

What causes a subarachnoid hemorrhage? Time Course? Presentation? Lab findings? Compications?

A

rupture of an aneurysm or AV malformation

Rapid time course

WHOML

Bloody or yellow spinal tap

Risk of vasospasm due to blood breakdown (not visible on CT=nimodipine)
risk of rebleed (visible on CT)
2-3 days later

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62
Q

What is the usual cause of an intraparenchymal hemorrhage? Other causes? typical location?

A

systemic hypertension

Amyloid angiopathy, vasculitis, neoplasm

BG and internal capsule
Can be lobar

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63
Q

What is ischemic brain disease/stroke? Time time for damage? Most vulnerable areas? Timetable for imaging? Why is imaging necessary? time table for histology?

A

Irreversible damage after 5 min. of hypoxia

Hippocampus, neocortex, cerebellum, watershed areas

Noncontrast CT to exclude hemorrhage (before tPA given)
CT detection after 6-24 hrs
Diffusion weighted MRI within 3-30 min.

12-48 hours=red neuron
24-72 hrs=necrosis + neutro
3-5 days=microglia
1-2 weeks=reactive gliosis + vasc. prolif
>2 weeks= glial scar
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64
Q

What is hemorrhagic stroke? Causes? Most common site?

A

Intracerebral bleeding

Hypertension, angicoag, cancer, ischemic stroke followed by reperfusion

BG

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65
Q

What is an ischemic stroke? What kind of necrosis? What are the 3 types? Causes of the types? Location? Treatment?

A

Acute blockage of vessels leads to ischemia leading to liquefactive necrosis

Thrombotic-clot forming directly at site f infarction (MCA) usually over atherosclerosis

Embolic: another part of body. Multiple vasc. territories. A fib/paradoxical emboli

Hypoxic: hypoperfusion or hypoxemia; all watershed areas; CV surgeries

Treatment: tPA (within 3-4.5 hr f nset and no hemorrhage), reduce risk w/ aspirin/clopidogrel; optimum conrtrol of BP, Blood sugars, lipids; treat conditions that increase risk (a fib, DVT)

66
Q

What is a TIA? Timetable?

A

Brief reversible episode of focal neuro dysfunction w/o acute infarction (neg. MRI), with the majority resolving in < 15 minutes. Deficits due to focal ischemia.

67
Q

What are dural venous sinuses? What is their role? input? Output? Why is the superior sagittal sinus significant?

A

Large venous channels that run through the dura. Drain blood from cerebral veins and receive CSF from arachnoid granulations. Empty into jugular vein.

Mainlocation of CSF return.

68
Q

Describe the pathway of the ventricular system. How is CSF made? Output?

A

Ependymal cells of choroid plexus make CSF.

Lateral ventricle to the foramina of Monro to the 3rd ventricle to the cerebral aqueduct of sylvius to the 4th ventricle to the subarachnoid space via foramen of Lushka (lateral) and foramen of magendie (medial). It is then reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations which drain into dural sinuses.

69
Q

What is the pathophys of idiopathic intracranial hypertension? Another name? symptoms? Signs? Risk factors? What is found on lumbar puncture? Treatment?

A

Pseudotumor cerebri

Incr. ICP w/ n apparent cause on imaging

Headaches, diplopia (CNVI palsy), no mental status alteration.

Papilledema

Worman of childbearing age, vitamin A excess, danazol

Lumbar puncture=incr. opening pressure and provides headache relief

Weight loss, acetazolamide, topiramate, invasive procedures.

70
Q

What is commnicating hydrocephalus generally? Symptoms? One possible cause?

A

Decr. CSF absorption by arachnoid granulations

Incr. ICP, papilledema, herniation

Arachnoid scarring post meningitis

71
Q

Epid of normal pressure hydrocephalus? Etiology? Pathophys? Symptoms?

A

Elderly

Idiopathic

CSF pressure elevated only episodically
No result in subarachnoid space volume
Expansion of ventricles distorts the fibers of the corona radiata

Urinary incontinence, ataxia, cognitive distortion

wet, wobbly, and wacky

72
Q

What is the pathophys of non communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Caused by structural blockage of CSF circ. within ventricular system

73
Q

What is ex vacuo ventriculomegaly? Causes? lab findings? Symptoms?

A

Appearance of incr. CSF on imaging, but actually due to decr. brain tissue

Alzheimers, advanced HIV, Pick disease

ICP normal

Triad not seen.

74
Q

Where is the motor cortex located? Describe the pathway of these fibers (pyramidal tract)? Corticobulbar tract?

A

Precentral gyrus and anterior part of paracentral lobule

Corona radiata to posterior limb of internal capsule (b/w thalamus and globus pallidus

Int. capsule to cerebral crus (inferior and superior colliculus (midbrain))

Cerebral crus to basilar part of pons

To pyramid (medulla)

to pyramidal decussation (caudal third of medulla)

to lateral corticospinal tract (spine) (post. part of lateral funiculus)

some fibers do not cross and stay in anterior funniculus

CORTICOBULBAR

Descends in much the same manner, but in pons and medulla, the fibers become much more diffuse and thus a single lesion is unlikely to have much effect.

75
Q

What does the posterior lobe of the cerebellum connect with? Anterior? Flocculonodular? What is the entire cerebellus connected to? What deep nuclei does the vermis connect with? paravermis? Lateral? What is the input pathway of the posterior lobe? Output pathway? Same for anterior? What kind of input fibers are involved in these tracts? What kind of fibers come from the inferior olivary complex? Input to olive? Pathway to cerebellum ?

A

Post=cortex
anterior=spinal cord
flocc=vestibular
entire=inferior olive

vermis=fastigial
paravermis=intermediate
lateral=dentate

POST

Association centers to internal capsule to cerebral crus to pontine nuclei to pontocerebellar tracts to CL middle cerebellar peduncle to posterior lobe to purkinje neurons to dentate nucleus to superior cerebellar peduncle to decussation (near red nucleus) to VL nucleus to motor cortex.

ANTERIOR

Lower limb to gracile tract to dorsal nucleus or clarke to dorsal spinocerebellar tract to inferior cerebellar peduncle

Upper limb to cuneate tract to accessory cuneate nucleus to cuneocerebellar tract to inf. cerebell peduncle to vermis and paravermis to purkinje to interposed and fastigial

Fastigial to vestibular nuclei to paravertebral and proximal muscles

Interposed to superior cerebellar peduncle to decussation to red nucleus to distal muscles

FLOCCULO (equilibrium and eye movements)

Vestibular nerve and nuclei to restiform body (medial part of inf .cere. ped.) to flocculo to fastigial to vest. nuclei and reticular formation (all bilateral)

Vestibuloocular fibers (from nuclei) to external ocular nuclei (3, 4, 6)

Medial and lateral vestibulospinal tracts (anterior funniculus)

Mossy fibers to granule cells
Inf. Olive=climbing fibers

Cortex and red nucleus to principal nucleus
Spinal cord to accessory nuclei
Olivocerebellar fibers to CL restiform body of inf. cereb. peduncle to all parts of cerebellar cortex as climbing fibers.

76
Q

Describe the touch pathway for the body.

A

below midthoracic to gracile tract
Above to cuneate tract

Gracile and cuneate tracts to gracile and cuneate nuclei (caudal medulla) to decussation to CL medial lemniscus to VPL of thalamus to posterior limb of int. capsule to postcentral gyrus and posterior part of paracentral lobule

77
Q

Describe the pain/temp pathway for the body.

A

Peripheral ganglia to tract of lissauer (up 1 to 2 segments) to marginal nucleus to ventral white commisure to CL spinothalamic tract (anterior part of lateral funiculus) to VPL to post. limb to sensory cortex.

78
Q

Describe the touch pathway for the face.

A

Trigeminal ganglia to principal sensory nucleus (posterolateral part of pons) to CL trigeminothalamic tract to VPM in thalamus to post. limb of int. capsule to sensory cortex.

79
Q

Describe the pain pathway for the face.

A

Trigeminal ganglion into pons and descend as spinal trigeminal tract where they synapse on caudal part of spinal trigeminal nucleus to CL trigeminothalamic tract to VPM to int. capsule to sensory cortex.

80
Q

List all the pairs of spinal nerves? Where do they all exit compared to the vertebrae? How far down does it extend? How far down does the subarachnoid space extend? Where is lumbar puncture performed ?

A

8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal

Nerves C1-7 exit above vert. C1-7

C8 exits below C7 and above T1.

The rest exit below their corresponding vert

Down to L1-L2

Subarachnoid to lower border of vertebra S2

LP at L3-L4 or L4-L5

81
Q

What occurs in vertebral disc herniation? usual location?

A

Nucleus pulposus herniates through annulus fibrosus

Posterolateral L4-L5 or L5-S1

82
Q

In the dorsal columns, spinothalamic tracts, and corticospinal tracts, where are the sacral, cervical, thoracic, and lumbar portions of body represented?

A

Legs are lateral in lateral tracts

Dorsal is organized with arms outside and legs inside

Corticospinal/spinothalamic (cervical is medial and sacral is lateral)

Order is reversed in dorsal columns (gracile internal, cuneate external)

83
Q

What area is affected in poliomyelitis and spinal muscular dystrophy (werdnig hoffman disease)? symptoms? What is the presentation of SMD like? Prognosis?

A

Anterior horns; LMN lesions only

Floppy baby with marked hypotonia and tongue fasciculatins

Median age of death of 7 months .

84
Q

What area is affected in MS? What is the lesion like? Symptoms?

A

White matter of cervical region
Random and asymmetric lesions

Demyelination

Scanning speech
Intention tremor
Nystagmus

85
Q

What area is affected in ALS? What are the symptoms like? Etiology? Presentation/progression? Prognosis? Treatment/mechanism?

A

Anterior horn and corticospinal tract

UMN and LMN deficits

Superoxide dismutase 1

Fasciculations then atrophy and weakness of hands

Fatal

Riluzole modestly incr. survival by decr. presynaptic glutamate release (riLOUzole)

86
Q

What is the lesion like in a complete occlusion of anterior spinal artery? At what levels does it occur?

A

Only spares dorsal columns and tracts of Lissauer

Upper thoracic ASA territory is watershed area.

87
Q

What is the lesion like in tabes dorsalis? Cause? What is the lesion like? symptoms? What are some associations? What will exam reveal?

A

Dorsal columns and roots

tertiary syphilis

Demyelination

Impaired sensation and proprioceptis which leads to progressive sensory ataxia (can’t sense or feel legs leading to poor coordination)

Charcot joints, shooting pain, argyll robertson pupils

Absence of DTRs and + romberg sign

88
Q

What is the lesion like in syringomyelia? Symptoms? Usual level? ASsocations?

A

Syrinx exapnds and damages anterior white commisure (spinothalamic tract)

Bilateral loss of pain and temp. (C8-T1)

Chiari I malformation

89
Q

What is the lesion like in Vit. b12 deficiency? Symptoms?

A

Subacute combined degeneration

Demyelination of dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal and spinocerebellar

Ataxic gait
Paresthesia
Impaired position and vibration sense

90
Q

What is the mutation in friedrichs ataxia? Which protein is affected? pathophys? Lesion? Symptoms? Presentation? What causes death?

A

GAA trinucl. repeat on chrom. 9

Frataxin (9 letters)

Impairment in mitochondrial function

Friedrich is Fratastic (frataxin); he’s your favorite frat brother, always staggering and falling but has a sweet (DM) big heart (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)

91
Q

What is brown sequard syndrome? What happens if it occurs above T1?

A

Hemisection of spinal cord

Above T1, may have symptoms of Horner syndrome

92
Q
Dermatomes 
C2
C3
C4
T4
T7
T10
L1
L4
S2,S3,S4
A
C2 posterior half of skull cap
C3 turtle neck
C4 low collar shirt
T4 at nipple
T7 xyphoid process
T10 at the umbilicus
L1 inguinal ligament
L4 knee
S2,S3,S4=erection and sensation of penile and anal zones
93
Q
Reflexes
biceps
triceps
patella
Achilles
A

1,2, buckle my shoe
3,4 kick the door
5,6 pick up sticks
7,8 lay them straight

1,2, testicles move
3,4 winks galore

S1/2=achilles
L3/4=patella
C5/6=Biceps
C7/8=Triceps

L1/2=cremaster reflex
S3/4=anal wink reflex

94
Q
What are primitive reflexes? When do they disappear? Why? When might they reemerge in adults? What is the? 
Moro reflex
rooting reflex
sucking reflex
palmar reflex
plantar reflex
galant reflex
A

Present in healthy infant, absent in adults
Disappear in first year of life
Frontal lobe inhibition
Frontal lobe lesions

Moro reflex: Abduct/extend arms when startled then draw together
rooting reflex: Movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked
sucking reflex:Sucking response when roof of mouth is touched
palmar reflex: Curling of fingers when palm is stroked
plantar reflex: Dorsiflexion of large toe and fanning of others with plantar stimulation
galant reflex: Stroking along one side of spine when in ventral position causes lateral flexion of lower body toward stimulated side

95
Q

What is the function of the superior colliculi? Inferior colliculi? What is parinaud syndrome?

A

Conjugate vertical gaze center

Auditory

Paralysis of vertical gaze center due to lesion in superior colliculi

96
Q

Where are sensory CN nuclei located? What is this called? Motor?

A

Sensory=alar plate=lateral

motor=basal plate=medial

97
Q

What CN is associated with the cribiform plate? What cranial nerves are associated with the middle cranial fossa? Through which bone do they exit? Where do they exit? What else exits in those places? What nerves exit through the poasterior cranial fossa? Through which bones? Where do they exit? What else exits in those places?

A

CN I=cribiform

Middle=sphenoid bone=CN II-VI

Optic canal=CNII, opthalmic artery, central retinal vein
Superior orbital fissure=CNIII, IV, V1, VI, opthalmic vein, sympathetic fibers
Foramen rotundum=CNV2
Foramen Ovale=CNV3
Foramen Spinosum=Middle mening artery

CNV exit Standing Room Only

Posterior=temporal or occipital

Internal auditory meatus=CN VII, VIII
Jugular foramen=CNIX, X, XI, jugular vein
Hypoglossal canal=CNXII
Foramen magnum=spinal roots of CNXI, brain stem, vertebral arteries.

98
Q

What are the functions of CNI-XII

A

Olfactory=smell (no thalamic relay)
Optic=sight
Oculomotor=eye movement, pupillary constriction, accomodation, eyelid opening
Trochlear=eye movement
Trigeminal=mastication (V3), facial sensation (V1-V3), somatosensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue
Abducens=eye movement
Facial=Facial movement, taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue, lacrimation, salivation (submand. and subling, not parotid, though it courses through), eyelid closing, stapedius muscle in ear
Vestibulocochlear=hearing, balance
Glossopharyngeal=Taste and somatosensation from posterior 1/3 of tongue, swallowing, salivatin (parotid), monitoring carotid body and sinus, stylopharygeus muscle (elevates pharynx/larynx)
Vagus=Taste from epiglottic region, swallowing, soft palate elevation, midline uvula (pulls it), talking, coughing, thoracoabdominal viscera, monitoring aorta arch chemo/baro receptors
Accessory=Head turning/shoulder shrugging
Hypoglossal=tongue movement

99
Q

What is the nucleus solitarius responsible for? which CNs is it associated with? Nucleus ambiguus? Dorsal motor nucleus?

A

Visceral sensory info (taste, baroreceptors, gut distention)=VII, IX, X

Moter innervation of pharynx, larynx, upper esophagus=IX, X, and XI

Dorsal motor nucleus=autonomic (parasym) fibers to heart, lungs, upper GI=X

100
Q

What are the afferent and efferent CN for the corneal, lacrimation, jaw jerk, pupillary, and gag reflexes?

A
Corneal=V1 opthalmic, VII
Lacr=V1, VII
Jaw Jerk=V3, V3
Pupillary=II, III
Gag=IX, X
101
Q

What occurs in a CNV motor lesion? A CN X lesion? A CNXI lesion? A CNXII lesion?

A

Jaw deviates to side of lesion (lateral pterygoid)

Uvula deviates away from lesion, weak side palate collapses

Weakness turning head to CL side of lesion (SCM)
Shoulder droop on side of lesion

Tongue deviates to side of lesion.

102
Q

What is located in the cavernous sinus? Function? How does cavernous sinus syndrome present? Etiologies? Which nerve is most susceptible to injury?

A

Blood rom eye and superficial cortex to cavernous sinus to dural sinuses to internal jugular vein.

CNIII, IV, V1, maybe V2, VI, postganglionic sympathetic pupillary fibers, ICA

Variable opthalmoplegia (VI most sensitive), decr. corneal sensation, Horner syndrome, maybe decr. maxillary sensaiton

Pituitary tumor mass effect
Carotid/cavernous fistula
Cavernous sinus thrombosis (infection)

103
Q

What are the parts of the outer ear? What is its role?

A

Visible portion of the ear (pinna), auditory canal and eardrum.

Transfers soundwaves via vibration of ear drum

104
Q

What are the parts of the middle ear? Function?

A

air filled space with three bones called the ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes).

Conduct and amplify sound from eardrum to inner ear

105
Q

What are the parts of the inner ear? Explain tonotropy.

A

Snail shaped fluid filled cochlea w/ basilar membrane that vibrates secondary to sound waves. Vibration transduced via specialized hair cells leading to auditory nerve signaling to brain stem.

Low frequency at apex near helicotrema
High frequency at base of cochlea

106
Q

What are the results of a rinne test and weber test in conductive hearing loss? Sensorineural? How does noise induce hearing loss? What is the progression like? What can sudden loud noises produce?

A

Conductive: R=Abnormal (bone > air) W=to affected ear
Sens: R=Normal (air > bone) W=To unaffected ear

Damage to stereociliated cells in organ of corti.
Loss of high frequency first.

Sudden extremely loud noises produce hearing loss due to tympanic membrane rupture

107
Q

What is a cholesteatoma? Locaiton? Pathophys?

A

Overgrowth of desquamated keratin debris within middle ear space

Erode ossicles and mastoid air cells leading to conductive hearing loss

108
Q

What is the face like in a UMN lesion? An LMN lesion? What is the pathophys of a facial nerve palsy? What are soe causes? Prognosis? Assocatins? Treatment?

A

UMN=CL paralysis of lower face
LMN=IL paralysis of whole face

Destruction of facial nucleus or nerve
LMN lesion

Idiopathic=bells palsy
Gradual recovery usually

Lyme disease, HSV, VZV, sarcoidosis, tumors, diabetes

Corticosteroids

109
Q

Which muscles close jaw? Which muscles open it. Innervation?

A

Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid

Lateral pterygoid

V3

110
Q

What creates aqueous humor? Innervation? Location? Where does it flow? What are its outputs? What effects do eye muscles have on aq. humor build up?

A

Ciliary epithelium (beta 2) in vitreous chamber

Then to posterior chamber (infront of lens, behind iris) then to anterior chamber (in front of lens and iris)

Trabecular meshwork to canal of schlemm

Ciliary muscle contraction can help open trabecular meshwork.

Pupillodilator muscle contraction can close the angle even more.

111
Q

What is glaucoma? Symptoms/signs in eye? What as some associations of open angle glaucoma? Primary and secondary causes? Presentation? What is the pathophys in primary closed/narrow angle glaucoma? Secondary? What is chronic closure like? symptoms? What is acute closure like? Pathophys? Symptoms? What should be avoided?

A

Optic disc atrophy with characteristic cupping (thinning of outer rim of optic nerve head vs. normal), elevated ICP, and prog. periph. visual field loss

Incr. age, afr. american, FH
Painless
Primary=unclear
Secondary=blocked trabecular meshwork from WBCs (uveitis), RBCs (vitreous hemorrhage), retinal elements (retinal detachment)

Primary=enlargement or forward movement of lens against central iris which leads to obstruction of normal aq. humor which leads to fluid build up behind iris which pushes it forward and impedes flow into trabecular meshwork
Secondary=hypoxia from retinal disease (DM, vein occusion) induces vasoproliferatin in iris that contracts angle

Chronic=asymptomatic w/ damage to optic nerve and periph. vision

True ophthalmic emergency
IOP pushes iris forward, abrupt angle closure
Very painful, red eye, sudden vision loss, halos around lights, rock hard eye, frontal headache
NO EPI (mydriasis)

112
Q

What is a refractive error? Treatment? Explain hyperopia, myopia, astigmatism, and presbyopia.

A

common cause of impaired vision, correctable w/ glasses

Hyper: eye too short for refractive power of cornea and lens (light focused behind retina)=farsightedness

Myopia: eye too long for refr. power of cornea and lens (light focused in front of retina)=nearsighted

AStigmatism: abnormal curvature of cornea leads to different refractive power at different axes

Presbyopia: Age related impaired accomodation, possibly due to decr. lens elasticity (reading glasses)

113
Q

What is a cataract? Symptoms? Risk factors?

A

Painless, often bilateral opacification of lens

Decrease in vision

Incr. age, smoking, EtOH, excessive sunlight, prolonged corticosteroid use, classic galactosemia, galactokinase defic, DM, trauma, infection

114
Q

What is the uvea? What is uveitis? What is uveitis? What are the symptoms? Associations?

A

Iris and choroid (ant. and post)

Inflammation of uvea

Hypopyon (accumulation of pus in ant. chamber)
Conjuctival redness

Systemic infl. disorders=sarcoid, RA, HLA B27 conditions

115
Q

What occurs in age related macular degen? Dry patho? Pres? Treatment? Wet Presentation? Treatment?

A

Degeneratin of macula. Causes distortion (metamorphopsia) and eventual loss of central vision (scotomas)

Yellowish EC material with gradual decr. in vision
Prevent progression w/ MV and antioxidant supplemetns

Rapid loss of vision (bleeding from neovasc)
Anti VEGF injections or laser

116
Q

What occurs in diabetic retinopathy? What are the two types like? Treatment?

A

Retinal damage due to chronic hyperglycemia

Non-prolif=damaged capillaries leadk blood, lipids and fluid seep into retina, macular edema
Blood sugar control, macular laser

Prolif=hypoxia to neovasc to traction on retina
Peripheral retinal photocoag, Anti VEGF

117
Q

What is the cause of retinal vein occlusion? Results?

A

Nearby arterial atherosclerosis

Retinal hemorrage, vein engorgement, edea in affected area

118
Q

What is retinal detachment? Ppathophy? Etiology? How does it look on fundoscopy? Associations? Presentation/progression? Treatment?

A

Separation of neursensory layer of retina from outermost pigmented epith (shields excess light, supports retina)

Degentartion of photorecep to vision loss

retinal breaks, diabetic traction, infl. effusions

Splaying and paucity of retinal vessels

High myopia

Flashes, floaters then monoocular loss of vision

Surgical emergency

119
Q

What is the presentation of central retinal artery occlusion? Fundoscopy? Pathophys of retinitis pigmentosa? Presentation/progression? Fundoscopy? pathophys of retinis? Etiology? Association? Pathophys of papilledema? Fundoscopy?

A

Acute painless monocular vision loss
Retina cloudy with atten vessels and cherry red spot at fovea

Inherited retinal degen
Painless, progressive vison loss beginning w/ night blindness
Bone spicule shaped deposits around macula

Retinal edema and necrosis leading to scar
CMV, HSV, VZV
Immunosuppression

Optic disc swelling de to incr. ICP
Enlarged blind spot and elevated optic disc with blurred margins on fundoscopic exam

120
Q

Describe the pathway for miosis. Describe the pathway/outcome for the pupillary light reflex.

A

Parasympathetic
Light in either retina sends signal to pretectal nuclei in midbrain that activates bilateral edinger westphal nuclei
Pupils conctract bilaterally

121
Q

Describe the pathway for mydriasis. What else do these sympathetic fibers do?

A

Sympathetic
1st neuron: Hypothalamus to ciliospinal center of budge (C8-T2)

2nd: exit at T1 to superior cervical ganglion (near lung apex, subclavian vessels)
3rd: Plexus along internal carotic through cavernous sinus; enters orbit as long ciliary nerve to pupillary dilator muscles

Also innervate smooth muscles of eyelids (minor retractors) and sweat glands of forehead and face.

122
Q

What is a marcus gunn pupil? How is it tested?

A

Optic nerve damage or severe retinal injury leasd to decr. bilateral pupillary constriction when light is shone in affected eye relative to other eye

Swinging flashlight test

123
Q

What are the symptoms of horner syndrome? What are some causes?

A

Ptosis, anhidrosis, miosis

Damage to sympathetic system to eye.

Lesion of spinal cord above T1 (pancoast tumor, brown sequard syndrome, late stage syringomyelia) or any interruption in the pathway.

124
Q

What is the function of CNIII? Which muscles? What is a sign that its motor output has been compromised? What things will do this? What are some signs that the parasymp? Causes? Where are the motor and parasymp fibers located in nerve?

A

CNIII has motor (central) and parasymp (peripheral)

Motor=IR, IO, MR, SR
Parasymp: Pupillodilation

Motor=Ptosis, down and out gaze
Vascular disease (DM) due to decr. diffusion of oxygen and nutrients to interior fibers. 

Para: Diminished pupillary light reflex, mydriasis, maybe down and out gaze
Compression (PCom aneurysm, uncal herniation)

125
Q

What is the function of CNIV? Muscle function? Symptoms with lesion?

A

Innervate superior oblique: abducts, intors, and depresses while adducted.

Eyes move upward, particularly w/ CL gaze
Head tilt toward the side of the lesion

126
Q

What is the function of CNVI? Muscle? Symptoms of lesion?

A

LR

Medially directed eye that cannot abduct

127
Q

What is the image like when it hits visual cortex? Describe the visual pathway.

A

Upside down and left-right reversed

Optic nerve to optic chiasm (near stalk of pituitary=middle of chiasm and ICAs=lateral chiasm

Optic tract passes Posterolateral along hypothalamus and cerebral crus to synapse on LGN, though some bypass LGN to superior colliculus (pretectal nuclei/miosis).

LGN receives ips. and CL fibers containing info from CL visual field.

From LGN, into post limb of int caps to optic radiation

Optic radiation spreads into dorsal (through parietal lobe) and ventral fibers/meyers loop (through temporal)

Contained in dorsal loop is the inf. visual field
Contained in ventral loop is the superior visual field

Optic radiation terminates in the calcarine sulcus (medial surface of the occipital lobe) which is the visual or striate cortex.

128
Q
a lesion in waht location will result in?
Right anopia
bitemporal hemianopia (causes)
Left homonymous hemianopia
left upper quadrantic anopia (causes)
left lower quadrantic anopia (causes)
Left hemianopia with macular sparing (causes)
Central scotoma (causes)
A

Right anopia: right optic nerve

bitemporal hemianopia (causes): medial optic chiasm (pituitary lesion)

Left homonymous hemianopia: right optic tract

left upper quadrantic anopia (causes): Right meyers loop (MCA, temporal lobe)

left lower quadrantic anopia (causes): Right dorsal optic radiation (MCA, parietal)

Left hemianopia with macular sparing (causes): Right cortex (PCA)

Central scotoma (causes): Macula (macular degeneration)

129
Q

What is the medial long. fasciculus? What is its function? What are the lesions like? Cause? What does a lesion result in? Symptoms? What does right INO signify? Left INO?

A

Pair of tracts that allow for crosstalk b/w CNVI and CNIII nucle. It coordinates both eyes to move in same horizontal directin. HIghly myelinated (quick).

When looking left, left CNVI (LR) stimulates right CNIII (MR) so they both look left.

Unilateral or bilateral (MS)

Internuclear Opthalmoplegia (INO).
CNVI makes the left eye look left, but since the right MLF is injured, the right eye doesn’t look left.
Also, the CNVI overfires causing nystagmus in left eye.
Convergence is normal.

Right INO=right paralyzation (Right MLF).

130
Q

What is the function of the frontal eye field? What happens when it’s stimulated?

A

voluntary conjugate eye movements

eyes turn to CL side.

131
Q

what is dementia?

A

A decr. in cognitive ability, memory, or function w/ intact consciousness

132
Q

Epid of alz. dis? Associations? Which protein incr. risk? Decr? Which proteins incr. risk of early onset? What are the micro and macro histo findings? Lab findings? How is A beta synthesized?

A

Older people.
DS

E2 decr. risk; E4 incr. risk
APP, Presenelin 1, 2 incr. risk of early onset

Widespread cortical atrophy; narrowing of gyri and widening of sulci.

Senile plaques in gray matter made up of EC beta amyloid core (from APP).
Amyloid angiopathy can lead to IC hemorrhage

Neurofibrillary tangles: intracellular, flame shaped, hyperphosphorylated tau protein->insoluble cytoskeletal elements.

133
Q

What are the symptoms of Pick disease? Another name? Location of lesions? Gross and micro histo?

A

Dementia, aphasia, parkinsonian aspects; change in personality

Frontotemporal dementia (spares parietal lobe and post. 2/3 of sup. temp. gyrus).

Pick bodies: silver staining spherical tau protein aggregates

Frontotemporal atrophy

134
Q

What are the symptoms of lewy body dementia? Histo findings?

A

Initially dementia and visual hallucinations, then parkinsonian.

Lewy bodies in cortex (alpha synuclein)

135
Q

What are the symptoms of Creutzfeldt Jakob disease? Histo?

A

Rapidly progerssive (weeks to months) dementia with myoclonus (startle myoclonus).

Spongiform cortex

Prions (PrPc (alpha) to PrPsc (beta pleated sheat))

136
Q

What are some other causes of dementia?

A

Multi-infarct/vascular

Syphillis

HIV

Vit. B1, 3, or 12 defic.

Wilson Disease

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

137
Q

What is the pathophys of MS? How can they present? what is the progression like? Epid? What are some diagnostic findings? How is it treated/managed?

A

Autoimmune inflammation and demyelination of CNS (brain and spinal cord)=IgG to Oligodendroglia

Optic neuritis (sudden loss of vision and marcus gunn pupils)
INO
Hemiparesis
Hemisensory symptoms
Bladder/bowel incontinence
Scanning speech (broken into syllables)
Intention tremor
Nystagmus

Women in their 30s and 20s
Whites living further form the equator

Incr. protein (IgG) in CSF
Oligoclonal (IgG) bands are diagnostic
MRI is gold standard: Periventricular plaques (areas of oligodendroctye loss and reactive gliosis) with destruction of axons; Multiple white matter lesins separated in space and time.

Slow progression w/ disease modifying therapies (Beta interferon, natalizumab)
Acute flares with IV steroids
Symptomatic treatment for neurogenic bladder, spasticity, and pain

138
Q

What is the most common subtype of guillain Barre? Pathophys? Symptoms? Prognosis? Lab finding? Clinical result of lab finding? Associations? Pathophys of association? Treatments/management?

A

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy

Autoimmune, destroys schwann cells
Inflammatin and demyelination of periph nerves and motor fibers

Symmetric ascending muscle weakness/paralysis
Possible autonomic dysreg (cardiac, hypertension, hypotension)
Possible sens. abnormalities

Almost all survive
Majority recover completely after weeks t months

Incr. CSF protein w normal cell count
Incr. protein may cause papilledema

Infections (C. jejuni, viral): molecular mimicry
inoculations
stress

Resp. support
plasmapheresis, IVIG

139
Q

What is pathophys of acute disseminated encephalomyelitis? What is another name for charcot-marie-tooth disease? Pathophys? Associations? What is the pathophys of Krabbe disease? Findings? What is the pathophys of metachromatic leukodystrophy? Findings? What is the pathophys of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy? Association? Prognosis? Risk factor?

A

Multifocal periventricular inflammation and demyelination after infection (commonly measles or VZV) or certain vaccines (rabies/smallpox)

Hereditary (auto dom) Motor and Sensory Neuropathy. Group of progressive nerve disorders related to defective production of proteins involved in structure and function of periph nerves of myelin sheath.
Scoliosis and foot deform (high or flat arches)

Auto recessive LSD caused by defic of galactocerebrosidase leading t buidl up of galactocerebroside and psychosine which destroys the myelin sheath.
Periph. neuro., devel. delay, optic atrophy, globoid cells

Auto recess. LSD due to arylsulfatase A defic. leading to build up of sulfatides leading to impaired production and destruction of myelin sheath leading to central and periph demyelinatin with ataxia, dementia.

Demyelination of CNS due t destruction of oligodendrocytes. JC Virus. 2-4% of AIDS patients (remains latent). Rapidly progressive, usually fatal.
Natalizumab, rituximab

140
Q

What are genetics of adrenoleukodystrophy? Pathophys? Results?

A

X linked.

disrupted metab. of VLCFAs leading to excess build up in nervous ystem, adrenal gland, and testes.
Progressive disease that can lead to long term coma/death and adrenal gland crisis.

141
Q

How are seizures classified? What is epilepsy? What is status epilepticus? What are the major causes of seizures in children, adults, and elderly?

A

Synchronized, high frequency neuronal firing

A disorder of recurrent seizures

Continous or recurring seizures that may result in brain injury (>10-30 min.)

Children=genetics, infection (febrile), trauma, congential, metabolic

Adults=tumor, trauma, stroke, infection

elderly=stroke, tumor, trauma, meta\bolic, infection

142
Q

What is a partial seizure? Most common location of origin? How is it often preceded? What may it progress to? What is a simple partial? Complex partial?

A

Single area of brain
Medial temporal lobe
Seizure aura
Can generalize

Consciousness intact (motor, sensory, autonomic, psychic)

Impaired consciousness

143
Q

What is a generalized seizure? Describe an absence seizure? Myoclonic? tonic-clonic? Tonic? Atonic?

A

Diffuse.

Absence=petit mal=3Hz, no postictal confusion; blank stare

Myoclonic=quick, repetitive jerks

tonic-clonic=grand mal=alternating stiffness and movement

tonic=stiffening

atonic=drop seizures

144
Q

What is a headache? Cause? Compare and contrast cluster headaches, tension headaches, and migraines concerning localization, duration, description/symptoms/assocations, and treatment. What are some other causes of headaches? What is trigeminal neuralgia like?

A

Pain due to irritation f structures such as the dura, cranial nerves, or extracranial structures.

CLUSTER
Unilateral
15 min.-3hr.; repetitive
Repetitive brief headaches, excruciating periorbital pain with lacrimation and rhinorrhea. May induce horner syndrome. More common in males
100% O2, sumatriptan

TENSION
bilateral
>30 min. (usual 4-6 hr.), constant
STeady pain. No photophobia, phonophobia, or aura
Analgesics, NSAIDS, acetaminophen; amytriptyline for chronic pain

MIGRAINE
Unilateral
4-72 hr.
Pulsating pain with nausea, photophobia, or phonophobia. Aura. Irritation of CNV, meninges, or blood vessels
Abortive therapies (triptans, NSAIDS) and prophylaxis (propanolol, topiramate, Ca channel blockers, amytriptyline)

SAH, meningitis, hydrocephalus, neoplasia, arteritis

Trigeminal neuralgia (repetitive shooting pain in distributin of CN V.

145
Q

What is vertigo? What is that cause of periph. vertigo? Findings? ? What is the cause of central vertigo? Findings?

A

Sensation of spinning while actually stationary

Periph=Inner ear etiology. Positional testing–>delayed horizontal nystagmus

Central=brain stem or cerebellar. Directional change of nystagmus, skew deviation, diplopia, dysmetria. Positional testing–>immediate nystagmus in any directioin. Focal neuro findings.

146
Q

Waht is Sturge Weber syndrome? Pathophys/mutation? Symptoms?

A

Congenital, non inherited, dvelopmental anomaly of neural crest derivatives due to activating mutation of GNAQ.

Small blood vessels

Port-wine stain on the face
Ipsi leptomeningeal angioma leading to seizures/epilepsy
Intellectual disability
episcleral hemangioma—>early nset glaucoma

147
Q

What is the inheritance of tuberous sclerosis? What are some results?

A
Hamartomas in CNS and skin
Angiofibromas
Mitral regurg
Ash-leaf spots
Rhabdomyoma (cardiac)
Dominant (autosomal)
Mental retardation
Angiomyolipoma (renal)
Seizures
Shagreen patches
Incr. incidence of subependymal astrocytomas and ungual fibromas
148
Q

What is the mutation in neurofibromatosis type I? Chrom? Mechanism? Another name? Derivative of skin tumors? Symptoms?

A

Mutated NF1 tumor suppressr gene (neurofibromin, a neg. regulator of RAS) on chrom. 17

Von Recklinghausen

Neural crest deriv

Cafe Au lait spots
Lisch nodulse
Cutanoeus neurofibromas
Optic gliomas, pheochromocytomas

149
Q

What is VHL disease? Symptoms? Locations?

A

Hemangioblastomas (high vasc. w/ hyperchromatic nuclei) in retina, brain stem, cerebellu, and spine

Angiomatosis (cavernous hemangiomas kin skin mucosa, organs)

Bilateral RCC

Pheochromocytomas

150
Q

What is meningitis? What are the leptomeninges? What are some causes in neonates? Children and teenagers? Adults and elderly? Non vaccinated infants? Viral? Immuncompromised? What are the symptoms? How is the diagnosis made? What are the findings in bacterial? Viral? Fungal? Complications/pathophys?

A

INflammation of the leptomeninges (pia and arachnoid)

Neonates=group b strep, e coli, listeria

Children=N. meningitidis (nasopharyngeal to blood)

Adults/elderly=Strep pneumo

Non vaccinated=H. influenze

Children=cocsackievirus

Immun=fungi

Headache, nuchal rigidity, and fever
Photophobia, vomiting, and altered mental status may be present

Lumbar puncture

Bacterial: Neutrophils w/ decr. CSF glucose, possible gram stain and culture

Viral: Lymphocytes w/ normal CSF glucose

Fngal: Lymph. w/ decr. CSF glucose

Complications with bacterial:
Death:herniation due to edema
Hydrocephalus, hearing loss, and seizures due to fibrosis.

151
Q

Where do metastatic tumors to the CNS come from? How do they present? How are primary tumor cells classified? Where are primary tumors located in the adult? Most common ones? In children? Most common?

A

Lung, breast, kidney

Multiple, well circumscribed lesions at the gray white junction

Accordig to cell type of origin

Adult=supratentorial
Glioblastoma multiforme, meningioma, schwannoma

Children=infratentorial
Pilocytic astrocytoma, ependymoma, and medulloblastoma

152
Q

What is the grade of glioblastoma multiforme like? Commonality? Location/shape? Histo? Stain? Prognosis?

A

High grade, malignant astrocytes

Most common malig CNS tumor in adults

Cerebral hemisphere and crosses corpus collosum (butterfly)

Regions of necrosis surrounded by tumor cells (pseudopalisading) and endothelial cell prolif.

GFAP positive

Poor prognosis

153
Q

What is a meningioma like? Commonality? epid? Presentation? IMaging? Histlogy?

A

Benign tumor of arachnoid cells

Most common benign CNS in adults

More common in women; not likely in children

Seizure: tumor compresses but does not invade cortex

Round mass attached to dura

Whorled pattern; psammoma bodies

154
Q

Waht is a schwannoma like? Location? Presentation? Staining? Associations?

A

Benign tumor of schwann cells

Cranial or spinal nerves; in cranium, CNVIII at cerebellopontine angle

Loss of hearing, tinnitus

S-100 positive

NF2=bilateral CNVIII schwannomas

155
Q

What is an oligodendroglioma? What is seen on imaging? Presentation? Histo?

A

Malignant tumor of oligodendrocytes

Calcified tumor in the white matter, usually frontal lobe

seizures, maybe

fried egg appearance

156
Q

What is a pilocytic astrocytoma like? Commonality? Location? Imaging? Histo? Staining?

A

Benign tumor of astrocytes

Most common CNS tumor in children

Cerebellum

Cystic lesion with a mural nodule

Rosenthal fibers (thick eosinophilc processes of astrocytes) and eosinophilic granular bodies

GFAP

157
Q

What is a medulloblastoma like (cells)? Epid? Histlogy? Growth/spread? Prognosis? What is drop metastasis?

A

Malignant tumor from granular cells of cerebellum (neuroectoderm)

Children

Small, round blue cells; Homer-Wright rosettes

Poor prognosis

Grows rapidly, spreads via CSF

Metastasis t cauda equina

158
Q

What is an ependymoma like? Epid? Location? Presentation? Histo?

A

Malig tumor of ependymal cells

Children

4th ventricle

hydrocephalus

Perivascular pseudorosettes

159
Q

What is a craniopharyngioma like? Location/epid? Presentation? Imaging? Prognosis?

A

Epithelial remnants f rathkes puch

Supratentorial mass in chldren or teens

Compress optic nerve; bitemporal hemianopsia

Calcifications on imaging

Benign, but recurs after resection.

160
Q

What can a cingulate herniation under falx cerebri cause? A downward transtentorial (central) herniation? An uncal herniation? A cerebellar tonsillar herniation?

A

Can compress ACA

Caudal displacement of brainstem leading to rupture of paramedian basilar artery branches leading to duret hemorrhages, usually fatal.

Uncus=medial temporal lobe
Compresses CNIII, ipsilateral PCA, CL crus cerebri at kernohan notch (ipsi paresis)

Coma and death result when these herniations compress brain stem.