PG-85-00-110-A Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of LCI?

A

Communication

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2
Q

Duration of disconnectivity from ALMIS for Paper log use

A

4 hours

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3
Q

How long can a discrep be open without any corrective maintenance action?

A

24 hours

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4
Q

How many days to report a Tri-Swap?

A

30 calendar days

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5
Q

What is entered in EAL once a part is received for a Parts Pending (PP) discrep?

A

PARTS RECEIVED AND AWAITING INSTALLATION

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6
Q

What is the distance from a building requiring a wing walker?

A

25ft

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7
Q

Which mission generated discrepancies may be carried forward?

A

Non-Grounding

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8
Q

When a component is repaired l, what is entered into the TSO block?

A

Enter hours since last overhaul was completed as taken from the component record

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9
Q

Who briefs pilots before a test flight?

A

QA

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10
Q

Max Eye wash station distance

A

100ft

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11
Q

What is the velocity of air across the filter in a spray booth?

A

200 feet per minute

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12
Q

Can you use Temporary scaffolding and stands

A

Yes, if approved by safety office

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13
Q

What is the railing height on a check stand?

A

42 inches

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14
Q

Radar must be secured if within how many feet of fueling operations?

A

300ft

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15
Q

How long to report a discrep after an aircraft transfer?

A

14days or 30 flight hours

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16
Q

How far out is a MDL printed?

A

For a 2 month operating period

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17
Q

What does humidity above 60% rapidly accelerate?

A

Corrosion

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18
Q

Who can assign serial numbers?

A

ALC ESD // CG-41

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19
Q

How long do you keep paper logs after being entered?

A

90 days

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20
Q

What is the proper way to date forms in EAL?

A

Zulu format // Month day year

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21
Q

How many days of paper logs are kept on hand?

A

1 week worth of

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22
Q

TCTO that requires less than 4hours for a plane that is going to PDM

A

Will NOT be issued within 45 days of induction

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23
Q

What temperature are resins stored at for maximum shelf life?

A

Less than or equal to 40F

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24
Q

How many MSR categories?

A

7

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25
Q

What MSR category is for support equipment?

A

SE

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26
Q

What is required for SCHR?

A

Date last performed

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27
Q

When do you enter paper logs into EAL?

A

Prior to resuming use of ALMIS

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28
Q

How often is Paper log book training given?

A

Yearly / annually

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29
Q

What section of the paper log is for differed maintenance?

A

Section 1

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30
Q

How far out is PDM planned?

A

6 months

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31
Q

Who authorizes prototyping of chemicals?

A

ISM and ALC Product Line

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32
Q

Failure rate reduction using De-Humidifier carts?

A

40%

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33
Q

Which form do you fill out for damaged packaging?

A

CG-1577-B

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34
Q

What is not included in a Post PDM report?

A

Component Failure

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35
Q

What is the form for PQDR

A

Standard form 368

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36
Q

Who makes the PDM schedule ?

A

ALC

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37
Q

How often is the PDM schedule made/updated?

A

Quarterly

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38
Q

What form is filled out for scrap items?

A

DD-1577 Unserviceable (Condemned)

“The red one”

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39
Q

What form is used for maintenance instructions?

A

OPNAV 4790/35

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40
Q

Oil Analysis Request Form

A

DD-2026

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41
Q

Who can approve working OVER 8 hours WITH flight duties?

A

Maintenance Release Authority, must notify EO

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42
Q

Who pays for salvage operations?

A

The Unit

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43
Q

How many fire extinguishers for fire guard?

A

One

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44
Q

Condition for Suspended ACMS for Non-Depot maintenance

A

NMCL

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45
Q

How many methods to submit request for Tech assistance?

A

Two : Tech Request and Engineering Service Request

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46
Q

What date would you enter if one isn’t available for a component?

A

1/1/1961

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47
Q

Who ensures stocking levels are properly stocked?

A

ALC

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48
Q

Three types of ACMS reports

A

Operational // Management // System

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49
Q

How many days to rectify shortages on a Triswap?

A

14 Days

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50
Q

What color text is used to denote Functional Checks in ALMIS

A

Red

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51
Q

Who is responsible for parts pooling?

A

Requesting Unit

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52
Q

Who can approve Working over 12 hours?

A

Unite EO, requires notification of CO

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53
Q

CG-1577-A is the

A

UR Tag

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54
Q

What form is used for an Unsatisfactory Report?

A

CG-4010

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55
Q

Who selects and designates in writing the QA inspector?

A

Engineering Officer

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56
Q

Where is the QA inspector normally assigned to?

A

QA section of the Engineering Department

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57
Q

Who inspects and signs off all grounding discrepancies and flight control work?

A

The primary QA

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58
Q

Where are the assigned collateral duty QA located?

A

Maintenance shop

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59
Q

When can a collateral QA sign off grounding discrepancies and flight control work?

A

When approved by a supervisor possessing a maintenance release authority

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60
Q

Who maintains the Unit’s master library of all applicable technical publications and directives?

A

QA personnel

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61
Q

Who assists in preparation of local maintenance instructions?

A

QA personnel

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62
Q

Who ensures that Support Equipment (SE) meets calibration and safety requirements?

A

QA personnel

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63
Q

Who ensures an aviation hydraulic surveillance program is in place?

A

QA personnel

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64
Q

What manual will you refer to for further guidance on aviation hydraulics and hydraulics surveillance?

A

NAV AIR 01-1A-17

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65
Q

Most Foreign Object Damage (FOD) can be attributed to what three general causes?

A
  • Poor house keeping
  • Poor maintenance practices
  • Carelessness
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66
Q

Who promulgates local instructions stressing the need to reduce FOD?

A

The Engineering Officer (EO)

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67
Q

What monitors the conditions of enclosed mechanical systems through wear metal concentrations?

A

Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP)

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68
Q

Who participates in the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP)?

A

U.S. Coast Guard Aviation Facilities

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69
Q

Who provides funds for U.S. Coast Guard participation in JOAP?

A

The Commandant, Office of Aeronautical Engineering (C G-41)

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70
Q

Who ensures that maintenance personnel are trained in JOAP procedures?

A

Engineering Officer (EO)

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71
Q

Where will you write the location of the Lab and monitoring dates for an engine?

A

Significant Component History Report (S C H R)

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72
Q

What should you write when removing a component due to oil analysis program?

A

State the reason for removal and include contaminants in parts per million

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73
Q

What is the primary Directive for the Coast Guard involvement in the JOAP?

A

NAV AIR 17-15-50.1

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74
Q

Who performed the oil analysis for the Arriel 2C2-CG engines on the MH-65?

A

Turbomeca

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75
Q

What documentation do you use for special oil analysis for MH-65 gearboxes?

A

The applicable MPC

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76
Q

What program monitors the performance of equipment and brings trends to management attention?

A

Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)

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77
Q

What is the Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM) Process Guide?

A

C G T O PG-85-00-30-A

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78
Q

What contaminant in aircraft fuel systems can cause engine failure?

A

Free water

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79
Q

When should fuel tanks and drains be drained?

A

Prior to the first scheduled flight of the Day

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80
Q

Clear and bright samples shall be completed in accordance with what manual?

A

C G T O PG-85-00-170-A

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81
Q

How long do you keep fuel samples?

A

24 hours

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82
Q

What type of PPE is needed when working with Fuel System Ice Inhibitor (FSII)?

A

Wear chemical goggles, impervious gloves, and a chemical apron

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83
Q

What is the identification number for FSII?

A

MIL-DTL-85470B

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84
Q

What is the normal level of fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII)?

A

0.07 to 0.15 percent per volume

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85
Q

What happens when you introduce FSII to JP5?

A

Lowers the flash point by 4 degrees Fahrenheit and inhibits bacterial growth

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86
Q

What is the Aviation Fuel Handling Process Guide?

A

C G T O PG-85-00-170-A

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87
Q

What equipment reduces avionics dispatch failure rates by 40%?

A

Mobile Dehumidification Carts (DH)

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88
Q

What Corrosion Control Program Process Guide provides mandatory requirements?

A

C G T O PG 85-00-60-A

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89
Q

For how long should you use a Dehumidification Cart on the Aircraft?

A

The maximum extent practicable

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90
Q

Who ensures that an effective calibration program is implemented?

A

Commanding Officer

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91
Q

What color are the TMDE labels if all calibration specifications are met?

A

White color

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92
Q

What program investigates and controls compromising emanations from electronics?

A

TEMPEST Program

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93
Q

Who oversees the U.S. Coast Guard Aviation TEMPEST program?

A

C G-41

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94
Q

What type of survey is required for baseline aircraft processing National Security Information?

A

Instrumented TEMPEST Survey (I T S)

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95
Q

What is the TEMPEST program manual?

A

Commandants Instruction M22416.6

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96
Q

Who prepares and signs a Maintenance Instruction?

A

Prepared by QA and signed by the Engineering Officer

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97
Q

What happens with a Maintenance Instruction that served its purpose?

A

It should be canceled and filed for 6 months after completion date

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98
Q

What local directive is prepared when specific work must be performed on a one-time basis?

A

Single Action Maintenance Instruction (SAMI)

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99
Q

What should not do with Test Measurement Diagnostic Equipment calibration interval?

A

Intervals may be shortened, but shall not be extended

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100
Q

What program should personnel working with composite material be enrolled in?

A

The Occupational Medical Surveillance and Evaluation Program

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101
Q

When should temporary repairs be immediately applied?

A

To damaged secondary and tertiary composite structures

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102
Q

What program is used for inspection, maintenance, and repairs of aircraft fuel systems?

A

The U.S. Coast Guard Aviation Confined Space Entry (CSE)

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103
Q

What manual is the Aircraft Fuel Cell and Tanks Manual?

A

NAV AIR 01-1A-35

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104
Q

Who is responsible for the physical handling and storage of COMSEC equipment?

A

KMI managers

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105
Q

During normal operations, what is the goal for Maintenance Shift Time (MST) workweek?

A

40 hours

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106
Q

What manual defines adequate rest facilities?

A

M3710.1

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107
Q

What is an adequate rest period?

A

At least eight continuous hours with no MST

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108
Q

What is the ACCB Process Guide?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-70-A

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109
Q

Who has the central responsibility for maintaining the Technical Airworthiness Assurance Process Guide?

A

The Chief, Office of Aeronautical Engineering (CG-41) and the Commanding Officer of the Aviation Logistics Center

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110
Q

What manual is referenced for guidance on flight crew or alert duty?

A

M3710.1

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111
Q

Who may authorize the exceedance of established limits when adequate rest facilities are available?

A

The unit Commanding Officer

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112
Q

Under what condition is Maintenance Shift Time (MST) considered cumulative?

A

Unless an adequate rest period is completed

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113
Q

What is considered an adequate rest period?

A

At least eight continuous hours in which the member accrues no Maintenance Shift Time (MST)

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114
Q

Who approves extending Maintenance Shift Time (MST) greater than 8 hours?

A

Shift supervisor

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115
Q

What is required for extending Maintenance Shift Time (MST) greater than 10 hours?

A

Maintenance Release Authority and notification to the Unit Engineering Officer

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116
Q

What is the restriction on performing maintenance on grounding discrepancies or flight control work?

A

Beyond 12 hours of cumulative Maintenance Shift Time (MST) without prior authorization from the unit Engineering Officer

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117
Q

How long must personnel refrain from performing maintenance after last alcohol use?

A

10 hours

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118
Q

At what angle should lathes, milling machines, and similar equipment be set to each other?

A

15 degrees

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119
Q

What is required for lighting in the shop’s immediate areas?

A

Adequate to eliminate glare or shadows

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120
Q

What safety measures must be established for shop grinders?

A
  • Grinders equipped with shatterproof shields
  • Metal hood type guards enclosing two-thirds of the abrasive wheel
  • Tool rests adjusted to 1/8-inch from abrasive wheel
  • Inspect abrasive wheel condition before each use
  • Protective face shield worn by the operator
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121
Q

How should the barrier guard on alligator shears be adjusted?

A

To prevent the operator from placing their hand or fingers under the shear blades

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122
Q

Who approves the location of battery shops?

A

Installation ground safety director, fire inspector chief, and medical officer

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123
Q

How many air changes per hour are required for mechanically ventilating nickel-cadmium battery shops?

A

Three to four air changes

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124
Q

What type of electrical fans can be installed in a battery shop?

A

Explosion proof fans

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125
Q

Can vented lead-acid batteries and nickel-cadmium batteries be serviced in the same room?

A

No

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126
Q

What are the requirements for charging sealed lead acid and sealed nickel cadmium batteries in the same area?

A

Minimum of 5 feet of clearance between the different batteries

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127
Q

What material should be used for the construction of battery shop floors and racks?

A

Acid resistant material or acid resistant paint

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128
Q

Can the same tools be used for both types of batteries?

A

No

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129
Q

What happens when water is poured into the electrolyte of a battery?

A

Intense heat is generated and may result in burns

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130
Q

What type of electrolyte is used in vented nickel cadmium batteries?

A

Strong solution of potassium hydroxide that is alkaline and corrosive

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131
Q

What type of tools should be used with nickel cadmium batteries?

A

Insulated tools

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132
Q

How often should heat shrink tubing on tools for nickel cadmium batteries be inspected?

A

Daily

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133
Q

What should be done if the battery case begins to heat excessively (reaches 115 °F)?

A

Add water to the affected cells or discontinue charging until the battery cools

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134
Q

What should be used to shield personnel from welding rays or flashes?

A

Fireproof screens/shields

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135
Q

How far should oxygen cylinder storage be from fuel-gas cylinders?

A

At least 20 feet or separated by a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet high

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136
Q

What should be done with a cylinder that has a leaking fitting or valve?

A

Taken into the open and slowly drained of contents

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137
Q

What is required before performing maintenance on power equipment?

A

Equipment must be shut down and control switch locked out or tagged

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138
Q

Machine guards must not be removed while the equipment is in operation. True or False?

A

True

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139
Q

What is required for sewing machines in the survival shop?

A

Effective guards to prevent operator’s fingers from being drawn under the needle

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140
Q

What is required for the use of cleaning fluid in the survival shop?

A

Use in well-ventilated rooms equipped with explosion proof exhaust fans

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141
Q

Where should waste or rags saturated with flammable substances be disposed?

A

Covered metal safety containers

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142
Q

What manual is used for the maintenance of gaseous oxygen servicing equipment?

A

Aviation Life Support Manual, COMDTINST M13520.1

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143
Q

What manual must paint shop safety comply with?

A

29 CFR 1910.107

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144
Q

How should paint rooms be separated from other operations?

A

By fire resistant walls

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145
Q

What is the required linear air velocity for paint spray booths?

A

200 feet per minute

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146
Q

What must be done before painting or using paint removers on an aircraft?

A

Aircraft shall be properly grounded

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147
Q

What type of containers are used for material disposal in paint booths?

A

Covered metal cans

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148
Q

What is the maximum amount of paint a storage container can hold?

A

Not more than 5-gallon capacity

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149
Q

What should be done with tools having defects that impair their strength?

A

Shall be removed from service

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150
Q

What type of electric powered hand tools should be used near flammable materials?

A

Explosion proof tools

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151
Q

What is the minimum height requirement for electric power tools in hangars housing fueled aircraft?

A

At least 18 inches above the floor level

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152
Q

The use of compressed air for blowing dirt from hands is prohibited. True or False?

A

True

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153
Q

What are the two kinds of solvent poisoning?

A
  • Acute
  • Chronic
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154
Q

What is the Hazardous Waste Management Manual?

A

COMDTINST M16478.1

155
Q

Where must electric spark ignition be prevented?

A

In work areas where flammable solvents are used

156
Q

What type of fire extinguishers are most effective for solvent fires?

A

Carbon dioxide (C O 2) fire extinguishers

157
Q

What type of gas should be used for purging solvent gases?

A

Nitrogen gas

158
Q

How can you evaluate the amount of lighting in working areas?

A

Using a light meter calibrated in foot-candles

159
Q

What manual contains Coast Guard policy regarding noise hazards?

A

Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47

160
Q

What equipment is required when entering aircraft fuel tanks with toxic gases?

A

Airline respirator equipment

161
Q

What shall be used when spraying aircraft polyurethane paint systems?

A

Full-face or hood type C, continuous flow supplied air respirators

162
Q

What shall be used for mixing paints and general painting operations?

A

Chemical Cartridge Respirators

163
Q

What must be used on all metal grinding, drilling, reaming, and cutting operations?

A

Goggles and face shields

164
Q

What will be used where small parts are cleaned with flammable liquids?

A

Bench cans

165
Q

Self-closing airtight metal cans are used for disposal of what type of waste?

A

Oily waste

166
Q

What will be used for carrying and handling small quantities of flammable liquid?

A

Safety cans

167
Q

What is required for personnel working in or inspecting an aircraft fuel tank?

A

Explosion-proof flashlights

168
Q

What is the General Advanced Composite Repair Process Manual?

A

AFTO 1-1-690

169
Q

What type of electrical equipment is allowed in the composite shop?

A

Only approved, explosion-proof electrical equipment

170
Q

Can pregnant personnel work with composites?

A

No

171
Q

What is the Coast Guard Hazardous Waste Management Manual?

A

COMDTINST M16478.1

172
Q

What is required near the aircraft before engine starting?

A

A qualified fire guard with appropriate fire extinguisher

173
Q

Is the purchase of Halon fire extinguishers for flight line, hangar, and shop use prohibited?

A

Yes

174
Q

What type of fire extinguisher is used on the flight line?

A

150-pound dry chemical extinguishers

175
Q

What type of fire extinguisher is used in hangars and shops?

A

C O 2 or dry chemical extinguishers

176
Q

Combustible materials must not be stored within how many feet of stoves or boilers?

A

10 feet

177
Q

What should be used beneath aircraft engines in hangars?

A

Drip pans

178
Q

How can the risk of fire during cutting and drilling operations be minimized?

A

By using cutting or lubricating oils

179
Q

Gases and vapors which are flammable must be dispersed. True or False?

A

True

180
Q

In accordance with what instructions shall all extinguishers be inspected?

A

Manufacturer’s instructions

181
Q

How often should fire extinguishers be inspected?

A

Monthly visual inspections

182
Q

Flight line fire extinguisher requirements shall be in accordance with what manual?

A

AFTO 00-25-172

183
Q

What manual should be used for Static Electrical Inspection procedures?

A

UFC 3-460-03 and MIL-HDBK-274 NOTICE 1

184
Q

How often should existing static grounds be tested?

A

Every 24 months

185
Q

What is the required standard for Flight line certified static grounds?

A

Less than 10,000 ohms

186
Q

What is the required standard for Hangar deck certified power grounds?

A

Less than 25 ohms

187
Q

What should be done with static grounding points exceeding resistance readings?

A

Removed from service and marked as out of service

188
Q

How should certified static and power grounds be marked?

A

In 1-inch letters with date tested and test results in ohms

189
Q

What is used to eliminate engine drippings on hangar floors?

A

Drip pans

190
Q

What should be done for small priming spills involving an area of 18 inches or less?

A

Ramp personnel shall stand by until the aircraft is dispatched

191
Q

What should be done for spills not over 10 feet in dimension?

A

Have a fire guard posted upwind with a fire extinguisher

192
Q

What should be done for spills over 50 square feet or of a continuing nature?

A

Report to the supervisor and notify the fire department

193
Q

Where should solvent-soaked waste and rags be disposed?

A

In self-closing airtight metal containers

194
Q

What manual provides guidance on disposal of solvent-soaked waste?

A

Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1

195
Q

What must guard open side floors or platforms four feet or more above ground?

A

Standard railing

196
Q

What is the height of a standard railing?

A

42 inches

197
Q

Who can approve temporary improvised scaffolds or stands?

A

Safety officer

198
Q

What should be done before using a jack as a safety measure?

A

Inspect the jack for capacity and functionality

199
Q

How close should the collet be kept to the lift tube cylinders during raising?

A

Within 2 threads

200
Q

What is the vertical height of rails and posts?

A

42 inches

201
Q

Who can approve Temporary improvised scaffolds or stands?

A

Safety officer

202
Q

What should be done before using a jack?

A

Inspect jacks for lifting capacity, safety locks, pins, and serviceability

203
Q

On collet-equipped jacks, how many threads should the collet be kept within during raising?

A

2 threads

204
Q

What is the maximum wind velocity for jacking an airplane?

A

15 miles per hour

205
Q

What safety precaution should be taken when inflating uninstalled tires?

A

Inflate in tire cage guards

206
Q

What manual must facility weightlifting devices be tested in accordance with?

A

Civil Engineering Manual COMDTINST M11000.11 (series)

207
Q

Aeronautical equipment must be tested in accordance with which manual?

A

NAVAIR 17-1-114 (series)

208
Q

What should be used to record periodic inspections/testing of lifting devices?

A

ACMS special requirements (MSR)

209
Q

What must be ensured before connecting oxygen cylinders to oxygen systems?

A

Correct identification with a white band or the words ‘aviator’s breathing oxygen’

210
Q

Do not deplete an oxygen bottle below what PSI?

A

50 PSI

211
Q

What is the minimum personnel required to service the aircraft with gaseous oxygen?

A

Two

212
Q

How many turns should the oxygen servicing control valve not be opened?

A

3/4-turn

213
Q

What should you do if LOX spills on asphalt or concrete expansion joint sealant?

A

Stop servicing within a 20-foot radius and do not walk over the spill for at least 30 minutes

214
Q

What type of fire extinguisher is needed when servicing LOX?

A

125/150 lb. wheeled PKP fire extinguisher or equivalent

215
Q

When servicing multiple aircraft, when should you purge the LOX servicing equipment?

A

Prior to the first servicing operation

216
Q

How long should you wait for the LOX system to stabilize after servicing?

A

At least 30 minutes

217
Q

The radar antenna should not be operated within how many feet of fueling operations?

A

300 feet

218
Q

What type of cleaning product can be used for communications and electronic equipment?

A

Nonflammable and noncorrosive cleaning solvents

219
Q

How close can you operate a vehicle from an aircraft during fueling/defueling?

A

50 feet

220
Q

True or False: Taxi signal men shall use illuminated wands at night.

A

True

221
Q

What must be stationed near the aircraft during engine start?

A

A qualified fire guard with a CO2, Halon, or dry chemical fire extinguisher

222
Q

Who shall ensure their unit has a well-defined towing plan?

A

Commanding Officer

223
Q

What is the minimum number of people required to tow an HC-130 aircraft?

A

7

224
Q

What is the towing speed of an aircraft?

A

Not exceed the walking speed of team members

225
Q

Who designates engine run-up areas?

A

The Commanding Officer

226
Q

Who is authorized to start and run-up aircraft engines?

A

Qualified personnel designated in writing by the Commanding Officer

227
Q

How many people are needed on a HC-130 cockpit for engine starts?

A

Two

228
Q

How many people are needed on MH-60 and MH-65 helicopters for engine starts?

A

One

229
Q

Shipboard operations are covered in which manual?

A

Shipboard-Helicopter Operational Procedures, COMDTINST M3710.2

230
Q

Who may authorize taxiing without a taxi signal man?

A

Commanding Officers

231
Q

How many wing walkers are needed when taxiing within 25 feet of obstructions?

A

One for each wing tip

232
Q

How close to an obstruction can you taxi a plane?

A

Not within five feet

233
Q

Hot refueling operations are not allowed within how many feet of any building?

A

100 feet

234
Q

When are hot refueling operations allowed within 100 feet of a building?

A

When operating under a waiver from Commandant (CG-41)

235
Q

New construction is prohibited within how many feet of the hot refueling area?

A

200 feet

236
Q

What manual outlines hazardous waste disposal procedures?

A

Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1

237
Q

What is the proper storage time for chemicals required for repair?

A

30 days for shops, 90 days for supply

238
Q

Aviation fuel bowsers procured after what date must meet standard specifications?

A

1 January 1995

239
Q

What system is used for ordering and maintaining technical publication unit libraries?

A

ATIP or future electronic library management system

240
Q

Changes to technical manuals must be incorporated within how many working days?

A

5 working days

241
Q

When do units conduct semiannual audits of technical publications?

A

April and October

242
Q

Who conducts the technical publication April audit?

A

QA and shops

243
Q

What is involved in a Rapid Action Change (RAC)?

A

Distributed by expedited means for safety of flight or faulty equipment

244
Q

What is a TOPS page?

A

A page that supplements rather than replaces an individual page in a technical order

245
Q

How is a TOPS page filed?

A

In the TO facing the affected TO page

246
Q

What is a revision in technical documentation?

A

A completely new edition with a new basic date

247
Q

Who conducts a monthly review of each asset logbook?

A

The Engineering Officer or designated representative

248
Q

How should dates be recorded on forms?

A

Month, day, year (e.g., 04/03/99)

249
Q

Where can you access the 781J web report form?

A

In the Aviation Logistics Management Information System (ALMIS) DSS Web Reports

250
Q

When shall a unit print a new MDL?

A

At least once a month for each aircraft assigned

251
Q

What is the ACMS User’s Guide?

A

Aeronautical Engineering Process Guide, CGTO PG-85-00-10-A

252
Q

What form documents unusual work for HC-130 aircraft scheduled for PDM?

A

Aircraft Missile Condition Report, AFTO Form 103

253
Q

What is the Oil Analysis Request form?

A

DD 2026

254
Q

What is the Serviceable Tag?

A

DD 1574 (orange)

255
Q

What is the Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag?

A

DD 1577-2 (green)

256
Q

What is the Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag for ALC only?

A

DD 1577-2 (blue)

257
Q

What is the Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) Tag?

A

CG 1577-B

258
Q

What form is attached to material determined irreparable?

A

DD-1577 Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag (Red)

259
Q

What form should be submitted for parts or components failing to meet warranty?

A

CG-1577-B - PQDR

260
Q

What form is used to communicate failures of aeronautical components?

A

JOINT DEFICIENCY REPORTING SYSTEM (JDRS) Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)

261
Q

Who establishes local procedures for submitting PQDRs?

A

Engineering Officers

262
Q

What type of form may be required for damaged packages?

A

Transportation Discrepancy Report (TDR) (Form SF 361)

263
Q

Who signs the completed Post PDM report?

A

Unit CO

264
Q

In how many calendar days should the memorandum be submitted after aircraft requirements are met?

A

30 calendar days

265
Q

What report indicates the performance of Coast Guard Aeronautical Engineering?

A

MEASURES OF EFFECTIVENESS REPORT (MOE)

266
Q

Where can you access the MEASURES OF EFFECTIVENESS REPORT (MOE)?

A

Through the ALMIS DSS

267
Q

What is the status of an asset that is NMC due to unscheduled maintenance?

A

Non mission capable repair (NMCR)

268
Q

What status reflects the percentage of time assets are unavailable due to depot level maintenance?

A

NMCD

269
Q

Who authorizes the transfer of an aircraft to ALC for maintenance?

A

Commandant (CG-711)

270
Q

What status reflects the percentage of time that assets are unavailable to air stations for operational use due to maintenance?

A

NMCD

271
Q

Who authorized the transfer of an aircraft to ALC or contractor sites for depot maintenance?

A

Commandant (CG-711) via message

272
Q

What status is used anytime an asset is suspended in ACMS?

A

Non-Mission Capable Layup (NMCL)

273
Q

What is the total Maintenance Labor Hours expended at each unit as reported on ACMS?

A

Maintenance labor hour expected at a Unit

274
Q

Where do you report the inability to maintain a B-0 asset?

A

EAL and recorded in the DSS

275
Q

What metric indicates the reliability of an aircraft capable of completing assigned tasks?

A

Dispatch Reliability Index (DRI)

276
Q

What does the Overall Maintenance Effort Index (OMEI) indicate?

A

Effort to generate each flight hour

277
Q

What does the Unit level Maintenance Effort Index (UMEI) indicate?

A

Unit level effort to generate each flight hour

278
Q

What indicates the ability of the Aeronautical Engineering System to provide reliable aircraft?

A

Performance Reliability Index (PRI)

279
Q

What does Time Mission Loading Rate (TCMLR) refer to?

A

Dispatch of mission schedule events designated as time critical

280
Q

What is the Time Critical Mission Success Index (TCMSI)?

A

Percentage of flights completed for time critical missions

281
Q

What is ALMIS?

A

Asset Logistic Management Information System

282
Q

How often should Air stations review the ALMIS users assigned groups and Roles Report?

A

Yearly

283
Q

Who authorizes all ALMIS access requests before sending to ALC customer support?

A

User’s supervisors

284
Q

Where can you find an ALMIS Request form?

A

CG PORTAL or ALMIS Customer support

285
Q

How do you request changes to the ALMIS system?

A

Via unit chain of command to ALC’s Information System Division (ISD)

286
Q

How many times a day must ALMIS backups be made?

A

At least once per shift

287
Q

Where can you find in-depth direction for conducting EAL Contingency operations?

A

MPC 00 EAL.0 Contingency Operations

288
Q

What shall be included in all ALMIS name entries?

A

Member’s grade/rank/rate and last four of their Employee ID Number

289
Q

How should dates and times be recorded in EAL?

A

In ZULU format except for mission schedule

290
Q

What is the only authorized ink color for paper forms?

A

Black or blue

291
Q

What is Non-Mission Capable Maintenance (NMCM)?

A

The asset is undergoing scheduled maintenance work

292
Q

What is Non-Mission Capable Repair (NMCR)?

A

The asset is undergoing unscheduled repair work

293
Q

What is Non-Mission Capable Supply (NMCS)?

A

The asset is waiting for a critical part

294
Q

What is Non-Mission Capable Depo (NMCD)?

A

The asset is undergoing depot level maintenance

295
Q

What is Non-Mission Capable Layup (NMCL)?

A

The asset is suspended in ACMS for non-depot related activities

296
Q

Where do you record all flight and non-flight generated discrepancies after pilot acceptance?

A

Mission generated Maintenance record

297
Q

What color paper is used for No Mission Maintenance Records?

A

White paper

298
Q

What is the purpose of Man Labor Hour accounting by US Coast Guard headquarters?

A

To assist in determining air station staffing and costs

299
Q

Who is authorized to maintenance release aircraft at their unit?

A

The EO

300
Q

What needs to be done when corrective action on a Bravo asset is delayed beyond 24 hours?

A

Apply one of the following codes: CF, CFD, PP, SQ

301
Q

Who authorizes all deferred maintenance actions prior to asset release for flight?

A

The EO or their designated representative

302
Q

How long should a discrepancy on mission Generated Maintenance Records not remain deferred?

A

Longer than 7 days

303
Q

What do you do if a mission Generated Maintenance Record needs to be deferred for more than 7 days?

A

Copy to a no mission maintenance record and then defer

304
Q

How many hours do you have to provide a part requisition number for Parts pending discrepancies?

A

72 hours

305
Q

Who can approve a deferred discrepancy to remain open for more than 30 days?

A

Unit EO or their designated representative

306
Q

What is required in EAL for all cannibalization removal from the donor asset?

A

Parts Pending discrepancy for non-flight essential parts or NMCS status

307
Q

What is required for ground checks affecting flight characteristics?

A

Performance of one or more functional checks

308
Q

What is required on a functional check in a paper logbook record?

A

Non-mission maintenance record discrepancy

309
Q

What is the arrangement of asset paper logbooks?

A

Four sections: Deferred Maintenance Record, Mission Schedule and Asset Status, Fueling/Defueling Records, Maintenance Discrepancy Report

310
Q

Where can you find Paper logbook record templates and instructions?

A

EAL under EAL Forms

311
Q

How many days of printed forms must each unit maintain for fly away operations?

A

1 week

312
Q

What color is the Preflight and Servicing Record?

A

Yellow sheet

313
Q

How often will units conduct yearly paper logbook record training?

A

Yearly

314
Q

How many sections are there for the Deferred Maintenance Record?

A

Three sections: CF, CFD, and PP

315
Q

Who reviews the Deferred Maintenance Record?

A

The EO and their designated representative

316
Q

What do Aviation logistics (AIRLOG) messages provide?

A

Policies and procedures relevant to all air units

317
Q

What is the definition of Type 1 materiel?

A

Aeronautical materiel under individual management by ALC

318
Q

What is Type 2 materiel?

A

Aeronautical materiel with service wide support responsibility and unit price of $250 or more

319
Q

What is Type 3 materiel?

A

Consumable aeronautical materiel with a unit price less than $250

320
Q

What is the Force/Activity designator for Air stations?

A

II

321
Q

How many days do you have to ship Type 1 materiel?

A

No later than 15 days following receipt of shipping orders

322
Q

Who issues orders for the occasional transfer of Type 1 materiel between units?

A

ALC

323
Q

What is the required timeframe for invoices to be paid under the Prompt Payment Act?

A

30 days

324
Q

Who determines whether a part is serviceable or unserviceable?

A

The EO

325
Q

What is the purpose of a parts pool?

A

Allows air stations to support one another when parts are needed before ALC can supply them

326
Q

What module is used to accept a parts pool request?

A

Parts Pool Module within AMMIS

327
Q

Who coordinates the entire parts pool process?

A

The requesting unit

328
Q

Kits requiring more than how many labor hours for incorporation will not be issued within 4 months of the scheduled aircraft PDM induction date?

A

4 labor hours

329
Q

Kits requiring 4 or less labor hours for incorporation will not be issued within how many days of scheduled aircraft PDM induction dates?

A

45 days

330
Q

Who must approve the installation of uninstalled change kits in a different aircraft/engine?

A

ALC

331
Q

True or False: Uninstalled change kits for a specific aircraft/engine will accompany that aircraft on all ferry missions until incorporated.

A

True

332
Q

How can you identify a TCTO change kit for spare components?

A

The letters SPAR will be used in lieu of aircraft/engine serial number

333
Q

What manual provides specific packaging, marking, and shipping information?

A

Transportation of Freight, COMDTINST M4610.5

334
Q

What should be used for tagging equipment?

A

Twine or other soft material

335
Q

Materiel shall be shipped to ALC or other designated repair facility within how many days of removal from service?

A

15 days

336
Q

True or False: Containers should be appropriately marked, especially when fragile equipment is involved.

A

True

337
Q

What conditions eventually result from insufficient reparable received from units?

A

Non-Mission Capable Supply (NMCS)

338
Q

Reparable shall be returned to ALC within how many days of removal from service?

A

15 days

339
Q

What reports are available in the ALMIS DSS to assist units in the management of materiel?

A
  • Unit Turn-in Report
  • C O Report - RFI Material Not Receipted
  • C O Report - NON-RFI Material Not Receipted
340
Q

Aviation units are allowed a maximum of how many days from the date of failure of the part to the date of shipment to ALC for handling unserviceable materiel?

A

30 days

341
Q

True or False: Local procedures shall be instituted to ensure handling requirements are met, prioritizing critical components.

A

True

342
Q

What is the manual Preservation of Naval Aircraft?

A

NAVAIR 15-01-500

343
Q

What is the recommended allowance percentage for each NIIN to avoid stocking out during unit replenishment time?

A

90 to 95%

344
Q

How are Allowance Change Requests (ACR) processed?

A

Through AMMIS

345
Q

True or False: Questions from ALC about ACR will be routed back to the user submitting the request.

A

True

346
Q

Who conducts periodic reviews and analysis of unit demand to verify unit allowance levels?

A

The Business Operations Division at ALC

347
Q

Who processes Allowance Change Requests (ACR) for review?

A

The Item Manager (IM) and additional technical/logistics personnel

348
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring the status of their Allowance Change Requests (ACR)?

A

Unit personnel

349
Q

Who should be contacted when a part has no owner and the user must solve the obsolescence problem?

A

Commandant (CG-44)

350
Q

True or False: Only materials and processes with preliminary approval from both the ISM and ASB will be candidates for U.S. Coast Guard aircraft.

A

True

351
Q

Who schedules the PDM of aircraft according to established standards?

A

The Commandant

352
Q

Who can accomplish PDMs of aircraft?

A

ALC, D o D overhaul activities, or commercial contractors

353
Q

Who approves TCTO change kits available after aircraft PDM induction?

A

Product Line Manager

354
Q

Who retains oversight for returning aircraft to operational status after heavy depot maintenance?

A

The Product Line

355
Q

What types of repairs are categorized under AIRCRAFT HEAVY REPAIR?

A

Severe corrosion damage, structural failures, and crash damage

356
Q

Who should units contact if extensive aircraft repair is required beyond unit capability?

A

The respective ALC Product Line Engineering Cell

357
Q

True or False: Specific requirements of the U.S. Coast Guard Air Operations Manual must be accomplished if further flight to a maintenance facility is required.

A

True

358
Q

Who manages all requirements for CFT use and coordinates requests for ALC technical assistance?

A

The respective aircraft Product Line Engineering Cell

359
Q

Who coordinates personnel, repair plan, parts, tooling, and funding necessary to assist the field unit?

A

The respective ALC Product Line Manager

360
Q

Who is responsible for final determination regarding overhaul or repair of components returned from field units?

A

ALC

361
Q

What are the two methods to request assistance?

A
  • Technical Request (TR) for Technical Services
  • Engineering Services Request (ESR) for ESD assistance
362
Q

What is the USCG Aviation Electromagnetic Compatibility (EMC) Tests Process Guide?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-220-A

363
Q

What will be issued for urgent dissemination of information prior to a TCTO?

A

Maintenance Advisories (MA)

364
Q

Who can submit Maintenance Advisories (MA)?

A

The appropriate Product Line EO or designated representative

365
Q

True or False: The repository for Maintenance Advisories resides in the ATIP Maintenance Advisory database.

A

True

366
Q

Who disseminates the release of the Maintenance Advisories (MA) via email notification?

A

The appropriate engineering cell

367
Q

How many levels of urgency are there for Engineering Services Requests?

A
  • Urgent: One week or less
  • Nonroutine: One week to one month
  • Routine: Greater than one month
368
Q

Who is authorized to communicate with the Department of Defense concerning publication issues?

A

ALC Technical Information Management Branch (TIMB)

369
Q

What amount of power supplies is required in rooms used for moisture removal of advanced composites?

A

120-volt (20-amp)

370
Q

What amount of lighting is used in a composite shop to assure visibility of imperfections?

A

75 footcandle lighting or greater

371
Q

Who is responsible for air quality testing in the facility?

A

The unit’s Safety Environmental Health Office (SEHO)

372
Q

How should cleaning in the dirty room be performed?

A

By damp mopping, damp wiping, or vacuuming with an approved HEPA filter vacuum

373
Q

True or False: Sanding or grinding of graphite should not be accomplished adjacent to circuit breakers.

A

True

374
Q

At what temperature should epoxy resins be stored to maximize shelf life?

A

40 °F or below

375
Q

What pressure should a bonding/layup be capable of maintaining?

A

Slight positive pressure (0.05 inch of water)

376
Q

What will be installed to ensure the clean room maintains a positive pressure?

A

A manometer

377
Q

Medical surveillance is required for personnel working with painted composites above the MSAL for how many days per year?

A

30 or more days per year

378
Q

True or False: An employee is considered occupationally exposed if an exposure is likely to occur 30 or more days per year.

A

True

379
Q

Who regulates the use of PPE?

A

The district SEHO

380
Q

Who performs an air quality inspection when the facility is complete?

A

The SEHO

381
Q

What PPE is required for handling fire damaged composite parts?

A
  • Respirator with 0.3-micron HEPA filter
  • Leather palmed gloves
  • Goggles
  • Long sleeve loose fitting disposable coveralls
  • Vacuum cleaner with 0.3-micron HEPA filter
382
Q

What PPE is required for machining/drilling sanding composite parts?

A
  • Respirator with 0.3-micron HEPA filter
  • Vacuum cleaner with 0.3-micron HEPA filter
383
Q

How far must the Emergency eyewash/deluge shower be located from a composite shop?

A

Within 100 feet