PG-85-00-110-A Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of LCI?

A

Communication

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2
Q

Duration of disconnectivity from ALMIS for Paper log use

A

4 hours

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3
Q

How long can a discrep be open without any corrective maintenance action?

A

24 hours

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4
Q

How many days to report a Tri-Swap?

A

30 calendar days

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5
Q

What is entered in EAL once a part is received for a Parts Pending (PP) discrep?

A

PARTS RECEIVED AND AWAITING INSTALLATION

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6
Q

What is the distance from a building requiring a wing walker?

A

25ft

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7
Q

Which mission generated discrepancies may be carried forward?

A

Non-Grounding

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8
Q

When a component is repaired l, what is entered into the TSO block?

A

Enter hours since last overhaul was completed as taken from the component record

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9
Q

Who briefs pilots before a test flight?

A

QA

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10
Q

Max Eye wash station distance

A

100ft

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11
Q

What is the velocity of air across the filter in a spray booth?

A

200 feet per minute

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12
Q

Can you use Temporary scaffolding and stands

A

Yes, if approved by safety office

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13
Q

What is the railing height on a check stand?

A

42 inches

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14
Q

Radar must be secured if within how many feet of fueling operations?

A

300ft

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15
Q

How long to report a discrep after an aircraft transfer?

A

14days or 30 flight hours

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16
Q

How far out is a MDL printed?

A

For a 2 month operating period

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17
Q

What does humidity above 60% rapidly accelerate?

A

Corrosion

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18
Q

Who can assign serial numbers?

A

ALC ESD // CG-41

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19
Q

How long do you keep paper logs after being entered?

A

90 days

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20
Q

What is the proper way to date forms in EAL?

A

Zulu format // Month day year

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21
Q

How many days of paper logs are kept on hand?

A

1 week worth of

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22
Q

TCTO that requires less than 4hours for a plane that is going to PDM

A

Will NOT be issued within 45 days of induction

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23
Q

What temperature are resins stored at for maximum shelf life?

A

Less than or equal to 40F

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24
Q

How many MSR categories?

A

7

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25
What MSR category is for support equipment?
SE
26
What is required for SCHR?
Date last performed
27
When do you enter paper logs into EAL?
Prior to resuming use of ALMIS
28
How often is Paper log book training given?
Yearly / annually
29
What section of the paper log is for differed maintenance?
Section 1
30
How far out is PDM planned?
6 months
31
Who authorizes prototyping of chemicals?
ISM and ALC Product Line
32
Failure rate reduction using De-Humidifier carts?
40%
33
Which form do you fill out for damaged packaging?
CG-1577-B
34
What is not included in a Post PDM report?
Component Failure
35
What is the form for PQDR
Standard form 368
36
Who makes the PDM schedule ?
ALC
37
How often is the PDM schedule made/updated?
Quarterly
38
What form is filled out for scrap items?
DD-1577 Unserviceable (Condemned) “The red one”
39
What form is used for maintenance instructions?
OPNAV 4790/35
40
Oil Analysis Request Form
DD-2026
41
Who can approve working OVER 8 hours WITH flight duties?
Maintenance Release Authority, must notify EO
42
Who pays for salvage operations?
The Unit
43
How many fire extinguishers for fire guard?
One
44
Condition for Suspended ACMS for Non-Depot maintenance
NMCL
45
How many methods to submit request for Tech assistance?
Two : Tech Request and Engineering Service Request
46
What date would you enter if one isn’t available for a component?
1/1/1961
47
Who ensures stocking levels are properly stocked?
ALC
48
Three types of ACMS reports
Operational // Management // System
49
How many days to rectify shortages on a Triswap?
14 Days
50
What color text is used to denote Functional Checks in ALMIS
Red
51
Who is responsible for parts pooling?
Requesting Unit
52
Who can approve Working over 12 hours?
Unite EO, requires notification of CO
53
CG-1577-A is the
UR Tag
54
What form is used for an Unsatisfactory Report?
CG-4010
55
Who selects and designates in writing the QA inspector?
Engineering Officer
56
Where is the QA inspector normally assigned to?
QA section of the Engineering Department
57
Who inspects and signs off all grounding discrepancies and flight control work?
The primary QA
58
Where are the assigned collateral duty QA located?
Maintenance shop
59
When can a collateral QA sign off grounding discrepancies and flight control work?
When approved by a supervisor possessing a maintenance release authority
60
Who maintains the Unit’s master library of all applicable technical publications and directives?
QA personnel
61
Who assists in preparation of local maintenance instructions?
QA personnel
62
Who ensures that Support Equipment (SE) meets calibration and safety requirements?
QA personnel
63
Who ensures an aviation hydraulic surveillance program is in place?
QA personnel
64
What manual will you refer to for further guidance on aviation hydraulics and hydraulics surveillance?
NAV AIR 01-1A-17
65
Most Foreign Object Damage (FOD) can be attributed to what three general causes?
* Poor house keeping * Poor maintenance practices * Carelessness
66
Who promulgates local instructions stressing the need to reduce FOD?
The Engineering Officer (EO)
67
What monitors the conditions of enclosed mechanical systems through wear metal concentrations?
Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP)
68
Who participates in the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP)?
U.S. Coast Guard Aviation Facilities
69
Who provides funds for U.S. Coast Guard participation in JOAP?
The Commandant, Office of Aeronautical Engineering (C G-41)
70
Who ensures that maintenance personnel are trained in JOAP procedures?
Engineering Officer (EO)
71
Where will you write the location of the Lab and monitoring dates for an engine?
Significant Component History Report (S C H R)
72
What should you write when removing a component due to oil analysis program?
State the reason for removal and include contaminants in parts per million
73
What is the primary Directive for the Coast Guard involvement in the JOAP?
NAV AIR 17-15-50.1
74
Who performed the oil analysis for the Arriel 2C2-CG engines on the MH-65?
Turbomeca
75
What documentation do you use for special oil analysis for MH-65 gearboxes?
The applicable MPC
76
What program monitors the performance of equipment and brings trends to management attention?
Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
77
What is the Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM) Process Guide?
C G T O PG-85-00-30-A
78
What contaminant in aircraft fuel systems can cause engine failure?
Free water
79
When should fuel tanks and drains be drained?
Prior to the first scheduled flight of the Day
80
Clear and bright samples shall be completed in accordance with what manual?
C G T O PG-85-00-170-A
81
How long do you keep fuel samples?
24 hours
82
What type of PPE is needed when working with Fuel System Ice Inhibitor (FSII)?
Wear chemical goggles, impervious gloves, and a chemical apron
83
What is the identification number for FSII?
MIL-DTL-85470B
84
What is the normal level of fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII)?
0.07 to 0.15 percent per volume
85
What happens when you introduce FSII to JP5?
Lowers the flash point by 4 degrees Fahrenheit and inhibits bacterial growth
86
What is the Aviation Fuel Handling Process Guide?
C G T O PG-85-00-170-A
87
What equipment reduces avionics dispatch failure rates by 40%?
Mobile Dehumidification Carts (DH)
88
What Corrosion Control Program Process Guide provides mandatory requirements?
C G T O PG 85-00-60-A
89
For how long should you use a Dehumidification Cart on the Aircraft?
The maximum extent practicable
90
Who ensures that an effective calibration program is implemented?
Commanding Officer
91
What color are the TMDE labels if all calibration specifications are met?
White color
92
What program investigates and controls compromising emanations from electronics?
TEMPEST Program
93
Who oversees the U.S. Coast Guard Aviation TEMPEST program?
C G-41
94
What type of survey is required for baseline aircraft processing National Security Information?
Instrumented TEMPEST Survey (I T S)
95
What is the TEMPEST program manual?
Commandants Instruction M22416.6
96
Who prepares and signs a Maintenance Instruction?
Prepared by QA and signed by the Engineering Officer
97
What happens with a Maintenance Instruction that served its purpose?
It should be canceled and filed for 6 months after completion date
98
What local directive is prepared when specific work must be performed on a one-time basis?
Single Action Maintenance Instruction (SAMI)
99
What should not do with Test Measurement Diagnostic Equipment calibration interval?
Intervals may be shortened, but shall not be extended
100
What program should personnel working with composite material be enrolled in?
The Occupational Medical Surveillance and Evaluation Program
101
When should temporary repairs be immediately applied?
To damaged secondary and tertiary composite structures
102
What program is used for inspection, maintenance, and repairs of aircraft fuel systems?
The U.S. Coast Guard Aviation Confined Space Entry (CSE)
103
What manual is the Aircraft Fuel Cell and Tanks Manual?
NAV AIR 01-1A-35
104
Who is responsible for the physical handling and storage of COMSEC equipment?
KMI managers
105
During normal operations, what is the goal for Maintenance Shift Time (MST) workweek?
40 hours
106
What manual defines adequate rest facilities?
M3710.1
107
What is an adequate rest period?
At least eight continuous hours with no MST
108
What is the ACCB Process Guide?
CGTO PG-85-00-70-A
109
Who has the central responsibility for maintaining the Technical Airworthiness Assurance Process Guide?
The Chief, Office of Aeronautical Engineering (CG-41) and the Commanding Officer of the Aviation Logistics Center
110
What manual is referenced for guidance on flight crew or alert duty?
M3710.1
111
Who may authorize the exceedance of established limits when adequate rest facilities are available?
The unit Commanding Officer
112
Under what condition is Maintenance Shift Time (MST) considered cumulative?
Unless an adequate rest period is completed
113
What is considered an adequate rest period?
At least eight continuous hours in which the member accrues no Maintenance Shift Time (MST)
114
Who approves extending Maintenance Shift Time (MST) greater than 8 hours?
Shift supervisor
115
What is required for extending Maintenance Shift Time (MST) greater than 10 hours?
Maintenance Release Authority and notification to the Unit Engineering Officer
116
What is the restriction on performing maintenance on grounding discrepancies or flight control work?
Beyond 12 hours of cumulative Maintenance Shift Time (MST) without prior authorization from the unit Engineering Officer
117
How long must personnel refrain from performing maintenance after last alcohol use?
10 hours
118
At what angle should lathes, milling machines, and similar equipment be set to each other?
15 degrees
119
What is required for lighting in the shop's immediate areas?
Adequate to eliminate glare or shadows
120
What safety measures must be established for shop grinders?
* Grinders equipped with shatterproof shields * Metal hood type guards enclosing two-thirds of the abrasive wheel * Tool rests adjusted to 1/8-inch from abrasive wheel * Inspect abrasive wheel condition before each use * Protective face shield worn by the operator
121
How should the barrier guard on alligator shears be adjusted?
To prevent the operator from placing their hand or fingers under the shear blades
122
Who approves the location of battery shops?
Installation ground safety director, fire inspector chief, and medical officer
123
How many air changes per hour are required for mechanically ventilating nickel-cadmium battery shops?
Three to four air changes
124
What type of electrical fans can be installed in a battery shop?
Explosion proof fans
125
Can vented lead-acid batteries and nickel-cadmium batteries be serviced in the same room?
No
126
What are the requirements for charging sealed lead acid and sealed nickel cadmium batteries in the same area?
Minimum of 5 feet of clearance between the different batteries
127
What material should be used for the construction of battery shop floors and racks?
Acid resistant material or acid resistant paint
128
Can the same tools be used for both types of batteries?
No
129
What happens when water is poured into the electrolyte of a battery?
Intense heat is generated and may result in burns
130
What type of electrolyte is used in vented nickel cadmium batteries?
Strong solution of potassium hydroxide that is alkaline and corrosive
131
What type of tools should be used with nickel cadmium batteries?
Insulated tools
132
How often should heat shrink tubing on tools for nickel cadmium batteries be inspected?
Daily
133
What should be done if the battery case begins to heat excessively (reaches 115 °F)?
Add water to the affected cells or discontinue charging until the battery cools
134
What should be used to shield personnel from welding rays or flashes?
Fireproof screens/shields
135
How far should oxygen cylinder storage be from fuel-gas cylinders?
At least 20 feet or separated by a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet high
136
What should be done with a cylinder that has a leaking fitting or valve?
Taken into the open and slowly drained of contents
137
What is required before performing maintenance on power equipment?
Equipment must be shut down and control switch locked out or tagged
138
Machine guards must not be removed while the equipment is in operation. True or False?
True
139
What is required for sewing machines in the survival shop?
Effective guards to prevent operator’s fingers from being drawn under the needle
140
What is required for the use of cleaning fluid in the survival shop?
Use in well-ventilated rooms equipped with explosion proof exhaust fans
141
Where should waste or rags saturated with flammable substances be disposed?
Covered metal safety containers
142
What manual is used for the maintenance of gaseous oxygen servicing equipment?
Aviation Life Support Manual, COMDTINST M13520.1
143
What manual must paint shop safety comply with?
29 CFR 1910.107
144
How should paint rooms be separated from other operations?
By fire resistant walls
145
What is the required linear air velocity for paint spray booths?
200 feet per minute
146
What must be done before painting or using paint removers on an aircraft?
Aircraft shall be properly grounded
147
What type of containers are used for material disposal in paint booths?
Covered metal cans
148
What is the maximum amount of paint a storage container can hold?
Not more than 5-gallon capacity
149
What should be done with tools having defects that impair their strength?
Shall be removed from service
150
What type of electric powered hand tools should be used near flammable materials?
Explosion proof tools
151
What is the minimum height requirement for electric power tools in hangars housing fueled aircraft?
At least 18 inches above the floor level
152
The use of compressed air for blowing dirt from hands is prohibited. True or False?
True
153
What are the two kinds of solvent poisoning?
* Acute * Chronic
154
What is the Hazardous Waste Management Manual?
COMDTINST M16478.1
155
Where must electric spark ignition be prevented?
In work areas where flammable solvents are used
156
What type of fire extinguishers are most effective for solvent fires?
Carbon dioxide (C O 2) fire extinguishers
157
What type of gas should be used for purging solvent gases?
Nitrogen gas
158
How can you evaluate the amount of lighting in working areas?
Using a light meter calibrated in foot-candles
159
What manual contains Coast Guard policy regarding noise hazards?
Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47
160
What equipment is required when entering aircraft fuel tanks with toxic gases?
Airline respirator equipment
161
What shall be used when spraying aircraft polyurethane paint systems?
Full-face or hood type C, continuous flow supplied air respirators
162
What shall be used for mixing paints and general painting operations?
Chemical Cartridge Respirators
163
What must be used on all metal grinding, drilling, reaming, and cutting operations?
Goggles and face shields
164
What will be used where small parts are cleaned with flammable liquids?
Bench cans
165
Self-closing airtight metal cans are used for disposal of what type of waste?
Oily waste
166
What will be used for carrying and handling small quantities of flammable liquid?
Safety cans
167
What is required for personnel working in or inspecting an aircraft fuel tank?
Explosion-proof flashlights
168
What is the General Advanced Composite Repair Process Manual?
AFTO 1-1-690
169
What type of electrical equipment is allowed in the composite shop?
Only approved, explosion-proof electrical equipment
170
Can pregnant personnel work with composites?
No
171
What is the Coast Guard Hazardous Waste Management Manual?
COMDTINST M16478.1
172
What is required near the aircraft before engine starting?
A qualified fire guard with appropriate fire extinguisher
173
Is the purchase of Halon fire extinguishers for flight line, hangar, and shop use prohibited?
Yes
174
What type of fire extinguisher is used on the flight line?
150-pound dry chemical extinguishers
175
What type of fire extinguisher is used in hangars and shops?
C O 2 or dry chemical extinguishers
176
Combustible materials must not be stored within how many feet of stoves or boilers?
10 feet
177
What should be used beneath aircraft engines in hangars?
Drip pans
178
How can the risk of fire during cutting and drilling operations be minimized?
By using cutting or lubricating oils
179
Gases and vapors which are flammable must be dispersed. True or False?
True
180
In accordance with what instructions shall all extinguishers be inspected?
Manufacturer’s instructions
181
How often should fire extinguishers be inspected?
Monthly visual inspections
182
Flight line fire extinguisher requirements shall be in accordance with what manual?
AFTO 00-25-172
183
What manual should be used for Static Electrical Inspection procedures?
UFC 3-460-03 and MIL-HDBK-274 NOTICE 1
184
How often should existing static grounds be tested?
Every 24 months
185
What is the required standard for Flight line certified static grounds?
Less than 10,000 ohms
186
What is the required standard for Hangar deck certified power grounds?
Less than 25 ohms
187
What should be done with static grounding points exceeding resistance readings?
Removed from service and marked as out of service
188
How should certified static and power grounds be marked?
In 1-inch letters with date tested and test results in ohms
189
What is used to eliminate engine drippings on hangar floors?
Drip pans
190
What should be done for small priming spills involving an area of 18 inches or less?
Ramp personnel shall stand by until the aircraft is dispatched
191
What should be done for spills not over 10 feet in dimension?
Have a fire guard posted upwind with a fire extinguisher
192
What should be done for spills over 50 square feet or of a continuing nature?
Report to the supervisor and notify the fire department
193
Where should solvent-soaked waste and rags be disposed?
In self-closing airtight metal containers
194
What manual provides guidance on disposal of solvent-soaked waste?
Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1
195
What must guard open side floors or platforms four feet or more above ground?
Standard railing
196
What is the height of a standard railing?
42 inches
197
Who can approve temporary improvised scaffolds or stands?
Safety officer
198
What should be done before using a jack as a safety measure?
Inspect the jack for capacity and functionality
199
How close should the collet be kept to the lift tube cylinders during raising?
Within 2 threads
200
What is the vertical height of rails and posts?
42 inches
201
Who can approve Temporary improvised scaffolds or stands?
Safety officer
202
What should be done before using a jack?
Inspect jacks for lifting capacity, safety locks, pins, and serviceability
203
On collet-equipped jacks, how many threads should the collet be kept within during raising?
2 threads
204
What is the maximum wind velocity for jacking an airplane?
15 miles per hour
205
What safety precaution should be taken when inflating uninstalled tires?
Inflate in tire cage guards
206
What manual must facility weightlifting devices be tested in accordance with?
Civil Engineering Manual COMDTINST M11000.11 (series)
207
Aeronautical equipment must be tested in accordance with which manual?
NAVAIR 17-1-114 (series)
208
What should be used to record periodic inspections/testing of lifting devices?
ACMS special requirements (MSR)
209
What must be ensured before connecting oxygen cylinders to oxygen systems?
Correct identification with a white band or the words 'aviator's breathing oxygen'
210
Do not deplete an oxygen bottle below what PSI?
50 PSI
211
What is the minimum personnel required to service the aircraft with gaseous oxygen?
Two
212
How many turns should the oxygen servicing control valve not be opened?
3/4-turn
213
What should you do if LOX spills on asphalt or concrete expansion joint sealant?
Stop servicing within a 20-foot radius and do not walk over the spill for at least 30 minutes
214
What type of fire extinguisher is needed when servicing LOX?
125/150 lb. wheeled PKP fire extinguisher or equivalent
215
When servicing multiple aircraft, when should you purge the LOX servicing equipment?
Prior to the first servicing operation
216
How long should you wait for the LOX system to stabilize after servicing?
At least 30 minutes
217
The radar antenna should not be operated within how many feet of fueling operations?
300 feet
218
What type of cleaning product can be used for communications and electronic equipment?
Nonflammable and noncorrosive cleaning solvents
219
How close can you operate a vehicle from an aircraft during fueling/defueling?
50 feet
220
True or False: Taxi signal men shall use illuminated wands at night.
True
221
What must be stationed near the aircraft during engine start?
A qualified fire guard with a CO2, Halon, or dry chemical fire extinguisher
222
Who shall ensure their unit has a well-defined towing plan?
Commanding Officer
223
What is the minimum number of people required to tow an HC-130 aircraft?
7
224
What is the towing speed of an aircraft?
Not exceed the walking speed of team members
225
Who designates engine run-up areas?
The Commanding Officer
226
Who is authorized to start and run-up aircraft engines?
Qualified personnel designated in writing by the Commanding Officer
227
How many people are needed on a HC-130 cockpit for engine starts?
Two
228
How many people are needed on MH-60 and MH-65 helicopters for engine starts?
One
229
Shipboard operations are covered in which manual?
Shipboard-Helicopter Operational Procedures, COMDTINST M3710.2
230
Who may authorize taxiing without a taxi signal man?
Commanding Officers
231
How many wing walkers are needed when taxiing within 25 feet of obstructions?
One for each wing tip
232
How close to an obstruction can you taxi a plane?
Not within five feet
233
Hot refueling operations are not allowed within how many feet of any building?
100 feet
234
When are hot refueling operations allowed within 100 feet of a building?
When operating under a waiver from Commandant (CG-41)
235
New construction is prohibited within how many feet of the hot refueling area?
200 feet
236
What manual outlines hazardous waste disposal procedures?
Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1
237
What is the proper storage time for chemicals required for repair?
30 days for shops, 90 days for supply
238
Aviation fuel bowsers procured after what date must meet standard specifications?
1 January 1995
239
What system is used for ordering and maintaining technical publication unit libraries?
ATIP or future electronic library management system
240
Changes to technical manuals must be incorporated within how many working days?
5 working days
241
When do units conduct semiannual audits of technical publications?
April and October
242
Who conducts the technical publication April audit?
QA and shops
243
What is involved in a Rapid Action Change (RAC)?
Distributed by expedited means for safety of flight or faulty equipment
244
What is a TOPS page?
A page that supplements rather than replaces an individual page in a technical order
245
How is a TOPS page filed?
In the TO facing the affected TO page
246
What is a revision in technical documentation?
A completely new edition with a new basic date
247
Who conducts a monthly review of each asset logbook?
The Engineering Officer or designated representative
248
How should dates be recorded on forms?
Month, day, year (e.g., 04/03/99)
249
Where can you access the 781J web report form?
In the Aviation Logistics Management Information System (ALMIS) DSS Web Reports
250
When shall a unit print a new MDL?
At least once a month for each aircraft assigned
251
What is the ACMS User's Guide?
Aeronautical Engineering Process Guide, CGTO PG-85-00-10-A
252
What form documents unusual work for HC-130 aircraft scheduled for PDM?
Aircraft Missile Condition Report, AFTO Form 103
253
What is the Oil Analysis Request form?
DD 2026
254
What is the Serviceable Tag?
DD 1574 (orange)
255
What is the Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag?
DD 1577-2 (green)
256
What is the Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag for ALC only?
DD 1577-2 (blue)
257
What is the Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) Tag?
CG 1577-B
258
What form is attached to material determined irreparable?
DD-1577 Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag (Red)
259
What form should be submitted for parts or components failing to meet warranty?
CG-1577-B - PQDR
260
What form is used to communicate failures of aeronautical components?
JOINT DEFICIENCY REPORTING SYSTEM (JDRS) Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)
261
Who establishes local procedures for submitting PQDRs?
Engineering Officers
262
What type of form may be required for damaged packages?
Transportation Discrepancy Report (TDR) (Form SF 361)
263
Who signs the completed Post PDM report?
Unit CO
264
In how many calendar days should the memorandum be submitted after aircraft requirements are met?
30 calendar days
265
What report indicates the performance of Coast Guard Aeronautical Engineering?
MEASURES OF EFFECTIVENESS REPORT (MOE)
266
Where can you access the MEASURES OF EFFECTIVENESS REPORT (MOE)?
Through the ALMIS DSS
267
What is the status of an asset that is NMC due to unscheduled maintenance?
Non mission capable repair (NMCR)
268
What status reflects the percentage of time assets are unavailable due to depot level maintenance?
NMCD
269
Who authorizes the transfer of an aircraft to ALC for maintenance?
Commandant (CG-711)
270
What status reflects the percentage of time that assets are unavailable to air stations for operational use due to maintenance?
NMCD
271
Who authorized the transfer of an aircraft to ALC or contractor sites for depot maintenance?
Commandant (CG-711) via message
272
What status is used anytime an asset is suspended in ACMS?
Non-Mission Capable Layup (NMCL)
273
What is the total Maintenance Labor Hours expended at each unit as reported on ACMS?
Maintenance labor hour expected at a Unit
274
Where do you report the inability to maintain a B-0 asset?
EAL and recorded in the DSS
275
What metric indicates the reliability of an aircraft capable of completing assigned tasks?
Dispatch Reliability Index (DRI)
276
What does the Overall Maintenance Effort Index (OMEI) indicate?
Effort to generate each flight hour
277
What does the Unit level Maintenance Effort Index (UMEI) indicate?
Unit level effort to generate each flight hour
278
What indicates the ability of the Aeronautical Engineering System to provide reliable aircraft?
Performance Reliability Index (PRI)
279
What does Time Mission Loading Rate (TCMLR) refer to?
Dispatch of mission schedule events designated as time critical
280
What is the Time Critical Mission Success Index (TCMSI)?
Percentage of flights completed for time critical missions
281
What is ALMIS?
Asset Logistic Management Information System
282
How often should Air stations review the ALMIS users assigned groups and Roles Report?
Yearly
283
Who authorizes all ALMIS access requests before sending to ALC customer support?
User’s supervisors
284
Where can you find an ALMIS Request form?
CG PORTAL or ALMIS Customer support
285
How do you request changes to the ALMIS system?
Via unit chain of command to ALC’s Information System Division (ISD)
286
How many times a day must ALMIS backups be made?
At least once per shift
287
Where can you find in-depth direction for conducting EAL Contingency operations?
MPC 00 EAL.0 Contingency Operations
288
What shall be included in all ALMIS name entries?
Member’s grade/rank/rate and last four of their Employee ID Number
289
How should dates and times be recorded in EAL?
In ZULU format except for mission schedule
290
What is the only authorized ink color for paper forms?
Black or blue
291
What is Non-Mission Capable Maintenance (NMCM)?
The asset is undergoing scheduled maintenance work
292
What is Non-Mission Capable Repair (NMCR)?
The asset is undergoing unscheduled repair work
293
What is Non-Mission Capable Supply (NMCS)?
The asset is waiting for a critical part
294
What is Non-Mission Capable Depo (NMCD)?
The asset is undergoing depot level maintenance
295
What is Non-Mission Capable Layup (NMCL)?
The asset is suspended in ACMS for non-depot related activities
296
Where do you record all flight and non-flight generated discrepancies after pilot acceptance?
Mission generated Maintenance record
297
What color paper is used for No Mission Maintenance Records?
White paper
298
What is the purpose of Man Labor Hour accounting by US Coast Guard headquarters?
To assist in determining air station staffing and costs
299
Who is authorized to maintenance release aircraft at their unit?
The EO
300
What needs to be done when corrective action on a Bravo asset is delayed beyond 24 hours?
Apply one of the following codes: CF, CFD, PP, SQ
301
Who authorizes all deferred maintenance actions prior to asset release for flight?
The EO or their designated representative
302
How long should a discrepancy on mission Generated Maintenance Records not remain deferred?
Longer than 7 days
303
What do you do if a mission Generated Maintenance Record needs to be deferred for more than 7 days?
Copy to a no mission maintenance record and then defer
304
How many hours do you have to provide a part requisition number for Parts pending discrepancies?
72 hours
305
Who can approve a deferred discrepancy to remain open for more than 30 days?
Unit EO or their designated representative
306
What is required in EAL for all cannibalization removal from the donor asset?
Parts Pending discrepancy for non-flight essential parts or NMCS status
307
What is required for ground checks affecting flight characteristics?
Performance of one or more functional checks
308
What is required on a functional check in a paper logbook record?
Non-mission maintenance record discrepancy
309
What is the arrangement of asset paper logbooks?
Four sections: Deferred Maintenance Record, Mission Schedule and Asset Status, Fueling/Defueling Records, Maintenance Discrepancy Report
310
Where can you find Paper logbook record templates and instructions?
EAL under EAL Forms
311
How many days of printed forms must each unit maintain for fly away operations?
1 week
312
What color is the Preflight and Servicing Record?
Yellow sheet
313
How often will units conduct yearly paper logbook record training?
Yearly
314
How many sections are there for the Deferred Maintenance Record?
Three sections: CF, CFD, and PP
315
Who reviews the Deferred Maintenance Record?
The EO and their designated representative
316
What do Aviation logistics (AIRLOG) messages provide?
Policies and procedures relevant to all air units
317
What is the definition of Type 1 materiel?
Aeronautical materiel under individual management by ALC
318
What is Type 2 materiel?
Aeronautical materiel with service wide support responsibility and unit price of $250 or more
319
What is Type 3 materiel?
Consumable aeronautical materiel with a unit price less than $250
320
What is the Force/Activity designator for Air stations?
II
321
How many days do you have to ship Type 1 materiel?
No later than 15 days following receipt of shipping orders
322
Who issues orders for the occasional transfer of Type 1 materiel between units?
ALC
323
What is the required timeframe for invoices to be paid under the Prompt Payment Act?
30 days
324
Who determines whether a part is serviceable or unserviceable?
The EO
325
What is the purpose of a parts pool?
Allows air stations to support one another when parts are needed before ALC can supply them
326
What module is used to accept a parts pool request?
Parts Pool Module within AMMIS
327
Who coordinates the entire parts pool process?
The requesting unit
328
Kits requiring more than how many labor hours for incorporation will not be issued within 4 months of the scheduled aircraft PDM induction date?
4 labor hours
329
Kits requiring 4 or less labor hours for incorporation will not be issued within how many days of scheduled aircraft PDM induction dates?
45 days
330
Who must approve the installation of uninstalled change kits in a different aircraft/engine?
ALC
331
True or False: Uninstalled change kits for a specific aircraft/engine will accompany that aircraft on all ferry missions until incorporated.
True
332
How can you identify a TCTO change kit for spare components?
The letters SPAR will be used in lieu of aircraft/engine serial number
333
What manual provides specific packaging, marking, and shipping information?
Transportation of Freight, COMDTINST M4610.5
334
What should be used for tagging equipment?
Twine or other soft material
335
Materiel shall be shipped to ALC or other designated repair facility within how many days of removal from service?
15 days
336
True or False: Containers should be appropriately marked, especially when fragile equipment is involved.
True
337
What conditions eventually result from insufficient reparable received from units?
Non-Mission Capable Supply (NMCS)
338
Reparable shall be returned to ALC within how many days of removal from service?
15 days
339
What reports are available in the ALMIS DSS to assist units in the management of materiel?
* Unit Turn-in Report * C O Report - RFI Material Not Receipted * C O Report - NON-RFI Material Not Receipted
340
Aviation units are allowed a maximum of how many days from the date of failure of the part to the date of shipment to ALC for handling unserviceable materiel?
30 days
341
True or False: Local procedures shall be instituted to ensure handling requirements are met, prioritizing critical components.
True
342
What is the manual Preservation of Naval Aircraft?
NAVAIR 15-01-500
343
What is the recommended allowance percentage for each NIIN to avoid stocking out during unit replenishment time?
90 to 95%
344
How are Allowance Change Requests (ACR) processed?
Through AMMIS
345
True or False: Questions from ALC about ACR will be routed back to the user submitting the request.
True
346
Who conducts periodic reviews and analysis of unit demand to verify unit allowance levels?
The Business Operations Division at ALC
347
Who processes Allowance Change Requests (ACR) for review?
The Item Manager (IM) and additional technical/logistics personnel
348
Who is responsible for monitoring the status of their Allowance Change Requests (ACR)?
Unit personnel
349
Who should be contacted when a part has no owner and the user must solve the obsolescence problem?
Commandant (CG-44)
350
True or False: Only materials and processes with preliminary approval from both the ISM and ASB will be candidates for U.S. Coast Guard aircraft.
True
351
Who schedules the PDM of aircraft according to established standards?
The Commandant
352
Who can accomplish PDMs of aircraft?
ALC, D o D overhaul activities, or commercial contractors
353
Who approves TCTO change kits available after aircraft PDM induction?
Product Line Manager
354
Who retains oversight for returning aircraft to operational status after heavy depot maintenance?
The Product Line
355
What types of repairs are categorized under AIRCRAFT HEAVY REPAIR?
Severe corrosion damage, structural failures, and crash damage
356
Who should units contact if extensive aircraft repair is required beyond unit capability?
The respective ALC Product Line Engineering Cell
357
True or False: Specific requirements of the U.S. Coast Guard Air Operations Manual must be accomplished if further flight to a maintenance facility is required.
True
358
Who manages all requirements for CFT use and coordinates requests for ALC technical assistance?
The respective aircraft Product Line Engineering Cell
359
Who coordinates personnel, repair plan, parts, tooling, and funding necessary to assist the field unit?
The respective ALC Product Line Manager
360
Who is responsible for final determination regarding overhaul or repair of components returned from field units?
ALC
361
What are the two methods to request assistance?
* Technical Request (TR) for Technical Services * Engineering Services Request (ESR) for ESD assistance
362
What is the USCG Aviation Electromagnetic Compatibility (EMC) Tests Process Guide?
CGTO PG-85-00-220-A
363
What will be issued for urgent dissemination of information prior to a TCTO?
Maintenance Advisories (MA)
364
Who can submit Maintenance Advisories (MA)?
The appropriate Product Line EO or designated representative
365
True or False: The repository for Maintenance Advisories resides in the ATIP Maintenance Advisory database.
True
366
Who disseminates the release of the Maintenance Advisories (MA) via email notification?
The appropriate engineering cell
367
How many levels of urgency are there for Engineering Services Requests?
* Urgent: One week or less * Nonroutine: One week to one month * Routine: Greater than one month
368
Who is authorized to communicate with the Department of Defense concerning publication issues?
ALC Technical Information Management Branch (TIMB)
369
What amount of power supplies is required in rooms used for moisture removal of advanced composites?
120-volt (20-amp)
370
What amount of lighting is used in a composite shop to assure visibility of imperfections?
75 footcandle lighting or greater
371
Who is responsible for air quality testing in the facility?
The unit’s Safety Environmental Health Office (SEHO)
372
How should cleaning in the dirty room be performed?
By damp mopping, damp wiping, or vacuuming with an approved HEPA filter vacuum
373
True or False: Sanding or grinding of graphite should not be accomplished adjacent to circuit breakers.
True
374
At what temperature should epoxy resins be stored to maximize shelf life?
40 °F or below
375
What pressure should a bonding/layup be capable of maintaining?
Slight positive pressure (0.05 inch of water)
376
What will be installed to ensure the clean room maintains a positive pressure?
A manometer
377
Medical surveillance is required for personnel working with painted composites above the MSAL for how many days per year?
30 or more days per year
378
True or False: An employee is considered occupationally exposed if an exposure is likely to occur 30 or more days per year.
True
379
Who regulates the use of PPE?
The district SEHO
380
Who performs an air quality inspection when the facility is complete?
The SEHO
381
What PPE is required for handling fire damaged composite parts?
* Respirator with 0.3-micron HEPA filter * Leather palmed gloves * Goggles * Long sleeve loose fitting disposable coveralls * Vacuum cleaner with 0.3-micron HEPA filter
382
What PPE is required for machining/drilling sanding composite parts?
* Respirator with 0.3-micron HEPA filter * Vacuum cleaner with 0.3-micron HEPA filter
383
How far must the Emergency eyewash/deluge shower be located from a composite shop?
Within 100 feet