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AMT Jeopardy > 3710.1 > Flashcards

3710.1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who can authorize further flight away from home station with no cosmetic or structural damage?

A

CO

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2
Q

What % of total Fixed Wing flight hours are dedicated to training?

A

20%

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3
Q

What % of Rotary Wing flight outs are dedicated to training?

A

40%

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4
Q

Who acts as the senior member of the Unit Safety and Health Committee?

A

XO

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5
Q

Who acts as the president of the unit permanent mishap board?

A

XO

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6
Q

Who monitors flight proficiency and training of all assigned crew members?

A

CO

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7
Q

Who assigns flight pay system managers ?

A

CO

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8
Q

Who acts as a Member of the unit safety board and permanent mishap board and advises the CO on matters of flight safety.

A

Flight Safety Officer

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9
Q

Who acts as the liaison between the enlisted workforce and command cadre

A

CMC

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10
Q

Who supervises the Flight Examining and Flight Standards boards?

A

Ops

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11
Q

Who maintains weight and balance records

A

Flight Services

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12
Q

Who establishes programs for fuel and oil contamination prevention, FOD, and corrosion control?

A

AEO

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13
Q

Who is responsible to the CO for the mx of aircraft, GSE, and facilities?

A

AEO

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14
Q

Who is QA responsible to?

A

AEO

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15
Q

Who establishes qualification requirements for QA inspectors and maintains a record of all designated inspectors?

A

QA Officer

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16
Q

Who DIRECTS preventative and corrective maintenance of aircraft?

A

MX Officer

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17
Q

Who Plans, Schedules, and controls all phases of maintenance?

A

MX Officer

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18
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining all ground equipment, conducting FOD prevention, MANAGES the fuel facilities, and coordinating training of personnel in evolved in ground handling?

A

MX Officer

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19
Q

Who is the MX Officer responsible to?

A

AEO

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20
Q

Who serves as the SENIOR enlisted advisor for the AEO?

A

LCPO

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21
Q

Who oversees flight orders, flight pay, and operational/technical qualifications for enlisted personnel?

A

LCPO

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22
Q

Who does the LCPO report to?

A

AEO

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23
Q

Who administers programs for maintenance and repair of buildings, grounds, boats, and vehicles?

A

Facilities Engineering Officer

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24
Q

What is considered the Red Zone for reverse cycle ops?

A

0300-Sunrise

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25
Q

How many days of reverse cycle ops to adapt?

A

4 days

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26
Q

How often do rotary wing aircrew undergo Underwater Egress Training (dunker)?

A

75 months

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27
Q

Max weekly flight hours?

A

50hrs within 7days

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28
Q

A crew member may remain in a duty status indefinitely as long as they have not exceed _______

A

An average of 4 flight hours a day

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29
Q

How many types of Low Pressure/ Hypoxia trainers?

A

3 : LPC / MHT / NHT

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30
Q

How many days after reporting to unit for SWET training?

A

60 days

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31
Q

What are the semi-annual training periods?

A

Jan1-July1

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32
Q

Who recommends a member for instructor qual?

A

Operations Officer

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33
Q

After STAN check, how long before written test due?

A

30days

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34
Q

Who is in charge of the fuel farm?

A

MX Officer

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35
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining shelf life limits?

A

Quality Assurance Officer

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36
Q

Who is responsible for tracking Unit training on egress?

A

Operations Officer

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37
Q

Who supervises and administers the unit safety program?

A

XO

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38
Q

When giving blood how long are you grounded for 200 cc or more?

A

3 days (72 hrs.)

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39
Q

When giving blood how long are you grounded for 500 cc or more?

A

7 days

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40
Q

Who provides approval to scuttle an aircraft?

A

CG-711

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41
Q

Who is responsible for calibrating equipment at a unit?

A

Maintenance Officer

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42
Q

Who can authorize a test flight to be completed after sunset?

A

Commanding Officer

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43
Q

What determines the rating of crane required to lift an aircraft?

A

50% greater than max gross weight

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44
Q

What is the minimum number of people required to taxi in a confined space?

A

2 safety observers minimum

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45
Q

What is the rated capacity of a crane to salvage an aircraft?

A

50% greater than max gross weight

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46
Q

What is the first step in a salvage operation?

A

Keep the aircraft from sinking

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47
Q

What flag is flown in the port aft corner of a ship if it is fuel capable?

A

Hotel (H)

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48
Q

What liquid is used for composite material containment during a salvage operation?

A

Liquid floor wax, spray lacquer, poly primer, and light oil

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49
Q

An aircraft lands with minor damage, who can authorize it to fly?

A

Commanding Officer

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50
Q

An aircraft lands with major damage, who can authorize it to fly?

A

CG-711 with technical concurrence from CG-41

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51
Q

What form is CG-5285?

A

USCG Training record

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52
Q

Who reports to the C O about aircrew stan check, aircrew performance, etc?

A

Flight standard board, Standardization Officer

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53
Q

What happens when you fail a stan check?

A

Unqualified

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54
Q

When you fly for eight hours, how much bed rest is required?

A

8 hours

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55
Q

Hazardous cargo carried in a C G aircraft must comply with what regulations?

A

AFMAN 24-204

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56
Q

What is considered an operations and emergency bill?

A

Fire, field crash, water crash, SAR, Disaster control, Communications, Hurricane, Pre-mishap plan, Recovery and salvage

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57
Q

Who authorizes repair to hoisting cables for helicopters?

A

CG-711

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58
Q

Where would you find watch standing procedures?

A

Unit organization Manual, the third chapter

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59
Q

When a member takes a flight while on leave, how much of their minimum recurrent training can be counted?

A

All

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60
Q

Who has overall responsibility of precision tools?

A

Maintenance Officer

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61
Q

Who is responsible for procurement, custody, issue, and condition of all general and special tools required by the Aeronautical Engineering Department?

A

Aviation Materiel Officer

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62
Q

What is composed of experienced Aircraft Commanders, Instructor Pilots, Flight Examiners, the flight safety Officer, and enlisted flight crew members established at the Unit?

A

Flight standard board (FSB)

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63
Q

Who acts as senior member of the unit safety and Health Committee?

A

Executive Officer

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64
Q

How often is physiology training required?

A

Annually

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65
Q

Who would a member report mental instability to if they are unable to perform flight duties?

A

Commanding Officer

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66
Q

How long are Aircrew Syllabus and check rides sheet maintained?

A

4 years

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67
Q

Who is the release authority for aircraft that has suspected major structural damage?

A

CG-711

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68
Q

What is the lowest authority to schedule flights?

A

Operations Officer

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69
Q

Who can authorize an unscheduled flight?

A

Commanding Officer

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70
Q

The M A A works for who?

A

XO

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71
Q

How often is OPS Hazard training given?

A

Within 60 days on initial assignment at the Unit and annually thereafter

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72
Q

When does semiannual recurrent training begin?

A

First of January and the first of July

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73
Q

What is the start/stop date for annual recurrent training?

A

1 January to 31 December

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74
Q

Annual requirement may be extended to the end of the 15th calendar month with what?

A

Commanding Officer approval

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75
Q

What types of board is composed of experienced pilots and enlisted flight crewmembers?

A

Flight Standards Board (FSB)

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76
Q

How are the crew listed on part II of the CG 4377?

A

Names and the last four number of the Social Security

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77
Q

How long after a crewmember stops flying will their qualifications in the type aircraft lapse?

A

12 months

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78
Q

Who is responsible for aircraft inventory of an aircraft to be transferred?

A

Aviation Materiel Officer

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79
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining firefighting and crash rescue equipment at a unit?

A

Facilities Engineering Officer

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80
Q

If you have an Aircrew member on flight orders and they want to take themselves out because of mental/personal problems, who must be notified?

A

C O

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81
Q

What is the manual for maintaining aircrew qualifications?

A

M3710.1

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82
Q

What is the required off-duty time for 8 hours of flight time?

A

Must allow a minimum of 8 hours of bed rest

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83
Q

How often is egress training required?

A

Annually

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84
Q

Who can authorize further flight with major damages?

A

CG-711

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85
Q

Who can authorize minor flights with minor damages?

A

C O

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86
Q

Must have a standardization every how many months?

A

12 months, except pilots in DIFPRO assignments

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87
Q

How long are check rides sheet and syllabus kept?

A

4 years

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88
Q

What is recommended for containment of composite material after a mishap?

A

Cover helicopter parts containing exposed composite with polyethylene sheeting, taping securely

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89
Q

What is required if you wear prescription eyewear during flight operations?

A

Shall wear them during flight operations and have a backup set readily available

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90
Q

Who aids the operations officer in keeping the 4377 Part II?

A

Flight Services Officer

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91
Q

How long should a rescue swimmer keep records?

A

Shall be maintained for a minimum of 18 months

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92
Q

Which manual contains information regarding training for Non-aircrew?

A

M3710.1

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93
Q

Who maintains personal Training Records?

A

C O

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94
Q

How long is a Rescue Swimmer Syllabus maintained?

A

18 months

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95
Q

How long is the Rescue swimmer Stan check maintained?

A

Length of carrier

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96
Q

Who approves Syllabi?

A

CG-711

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97
Q

Who can waive a PT test for a Rescue Swimmer that is on leave for 30+ days?

A

CG-711

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98
Q

When can minimums be prorated if you are on emergency leave?

A

More than 30 days

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99
Q

How many instruction for semiannual mins are required for an instructor?

A

At least 3

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100
Q

How many secure voice OPS are required for an MSO?

A

2 secure coms and 2 of everything else

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101
Q

How many EP’s are required for a FM to complete for semi-annual mins?

A

2 hoist and 1 swimmer

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102
Q

How often must a BH hoist?

A

Once per semi-annual period

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103
Q

Which Officer is responsible for flags for dignitaries?

A

Navigations Officer

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104
Q

Which Officer is responsible for storing Cryptographic gear?

A

Communications Officer

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105
Q

How many flight hours is an AMS required to have in rotary wing to receive wings?

A

200

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106
Q

How many flight hours is an AMS required to have in fixed wing to receive wings?

A

400

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107
Q

Which department is responsible for the calibration of tools?

A

Engineering Department

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108
Q

Which manual is used to rescind aircrew wing?

A

M1000.2

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109
Q

Which manual is used to award aircrew wing?

A

M1000.2

110
Q

What percent must a recovery crane be rated to recover a helicopter?

A

50% more than the maximum gross weight of the aircraft

111
Q

How long must you remain in the water for wet drills?

A

10 min

112
Q

How long must you be qualified to become an instructor?

A

6 months

113
Q

How often does the Unit F E B meet?

A

Quarterly

114
Q

How often is the dunker (underwater egress) required for rotor wing personnel?

A

75 calendar months

115
Q

How long after a Pilot’s failed event must the C.O. write a letter to the CG-711?

A

Shall be submitted within 30 Days

116
Q

What happens to a member’s training record when PCS?

A

Sealed and hand carried by the member

117
Q

What level can you fly at without pressurization and oxygen?

A

Will not exceed FL180

118
Q

How often must a swimmer fly with the stan team?

A

Every four years

119
Q

How long are rescue swimmer training records kept?

A

18 months

120
Q

For a rescue swimmer to keep their EMT certification, how much additional training is required?

A

24 hours of EMT level CE

121
Q

What must be done for crewmembers who have not flown in 12 months?

A

Complete a Commandant (CG711) approved designation syllabus (stan check)

122
Q

What files are used to make a positive check on the timely submission of the unit’s recurring reports and other correspondence?

A

Tickle file

123
Q

What sections are in a unit organization manual for watch details?

A

1st - general principles, mission of the unit and general information; 2nd - department organization and detail duties; 3rd - watch organization; 4th - System of unit orders and institution

124
Q

How many hours for AMS to wear aircrew wings full time on fixed wing?

A

400

125
Q

Who is the president of the mishap board?

A

XO

126
Q

If a Commanding Officer with Tactical Control is unavailable, who is the next person in the chain of command to approve the flight schedule?

A

No lower than the assigned Operations Officer

127
Q

How long are flight plans filed at the Unit?

A

90 days

128
Q

When is a physical copy of a Form-F not required to be filed?

A

When the aircraft is capable of recording weight and balance data on a crash worthy recorder

129
Q

Who can authorize a flight following non-structural cosmetic damage to an aircraft?

A

C O

130
Q

What is the maximum flight time for a helicopter crewmember to fly while wearing CBR gear?

A

4 hours

131
Q

What is the maximum flight time for a fixed wing crewmember to fly while wearing CBR gear?

A

4 hours

132
Q

What is considered a near miss in aviation?

A

Less than 500 feet to another aircraft

133
Q

How far from a beach line is fixed wing flight restricted?

A

1 mile less than 2,000 feet

134
Q

How far from a beach is helicopter flight restricted?

A

¼ mile less than 500 feet

135
Q

What manual is for helicopter external load?

A

COMDT INST M13482

136
Q

HH-60 can land on national security cutters and some ______ ft. cutters.

A

270

137
Q

Who acts as senior member of the Unit Training board?

A

Operations Officer

138
Q

The leading chief reports directly to who?

A

Aeronautical Engineering Officer

139
Q

What signifies a member has received advanced training to complete a specific CG mission?

A

Qualification

140
Q

What manual is used for enlisted aircrew insignia?

A

Enlisted, Evaluations, and Advancement CIM 1000.2

141
Q

How often is a rescue swimmer on ADP required to complete a stan check with the Rescue swimmer stand division?

A

Every four years

142
Q

When a CG Mission requires a fast rope operation, who is in control?

A

Governed by FORCECOM approved Coast Guard Tactics, Techniques and Procedures

143
Q

When is a HC-130 load master required for flight?

A

Whenever the cargo may affect the weight and balance of the aircraft

144
Q

If a member of the flight crew reports a laser strike, who is notified upon completion of the flight?

A

OPCON, the nearest air traffic control facility, and local law enforcement

145
Q

What is the authoritative manual for CRM?

A

Risk Management Instruction COMDINST 3500.3

146
Q

What is the amount of flight time required for fixed wing AMS to permanently wear aircrew wing?

A

400 hrs.

147
Q

What percentage of fuel is required for flight planning?

A

Fuel carried on departure will be at least 10% more than the required to reach the alternate airfield

148
Q

For every flight over water, what is taken into consideration?

A

Estimated time to loss of useful consciousness, Probable survival time, estimated recovery time

149
Q

What is the range for a medium range CG asset?

A

400 Nautical Miles action radius plus 2.5 hours search remaining

150
Q

What report is used to conduct a positive check of unit reports?

A

Tickler files

151
Q

How many hours to add to crew rest if time zone landed in is more than 4 hours different from departure time zone?

A

Shall be increased by three hours

152
Q

If a member completes training using a simulator with visuals and motion engaged, how long must they wait before they can fly?

A

Not authorized within a 12-hour period immediately after simulator or AWT events

153
Q

A circular for transportation of Coast Guard Aircraft is published by who?

A

Office of Management and Budget (OMB) circular

154
Q

How long are check rides and syllabi saved?

A

4 years

155
Q

According to the 3710.1, how many safety observers are required in a congested area?

A

Minimum of two. One per wing.

156
Q

What is the preferred method for containing composites at a crash?

A

Polyethylene sheeting

157
Q

How long after a Stan check does one have to get another?

A

12 months, may be extended to 15 months

158
Q

Who approves taking off after minor damage?

A

C O

159
Q

What manuals are used for flight orders?

A

CIM7220.39 Management and Administration of Aviation Incentive Pay

160
Q

Aviators with eyewear are required to do what?

A

Shall wear them during all flight ops, have a backup set available, may not wear contact lenses for solo pilot Ops

161
Q

If you get 8 hrs. flight time, how much bed rest is required?

A

8 hours

162
Q

Who can be the lowest ranking member to approve the flight schedule?

A

Operations Officer

163
Q

Who can assist the Operations Officer and keeps 4377 part II?

A

Flight Services Officer

164
Q

What are the most important things for high power engine runs?

A

Should be designated area so exhaust blast will not cause damage

165
Q

Who do you see to ground yourself?

A

C O

166
Q

What is the Enlisted Performance Qualifications Manual?

A

Performance Qualifications Guide from the CG Institute

167
Q

If you land with structural damage, who can approve further flight?

A

CG-711

168
Q

What Manual is for Flight Pay?

A

7220.39

169
Q

When loading and unloading hazmat, what manual is referenced?

A

AFMAN 24-204

170
Q

How often is the time between Stan checks?

A

12 months normally, 15 months max

171
Q

Who assists the Operations Officer and keeps 4377 part II?

A

Flight Services Officer

172
Q

Who do you see to ground yourself for emotional reasons?

A

C O

173
Q

How would an aircraft flight of 13 hrs. and 13 minutes be logged on the 781J?

A

13.2

174
Q

How much bed rest is required after 8 hrs. of flight time?

A

8 hours

175
Q

How often do you keep a completed standardization check?

A

4 years

176
Q

Who authorizes repairs to hoisting cables for helicopters?

A

CG-711

177
Q

Where would you find watch standing procedures?

A

Stations Instructions

178
Q

When a member takes a flight while on leave, how much of their minimum recurrent training can be counted?

A

Can be logged to meet semiannual training requirements

179
Q

Who disposes of excess surveyed property?

A

Property Officer

180
Q

Designated flight crew members shall be awarded insignia, as described in what manual?

A

Uniform Regulations, COM

181
Q

What is the standard time for flight missions?

A

8 hours

182
Q

How often is a completed standardization check kept?

A

4 years

183
Q

Where can watch standing procedures be found?

A

Stations Instructions

184
Q

Who has overall responsibility for precision tools?

A

Maintenance Officer

185
Q

Designated flight crew members shall be awarded insignia as described in which manual?

A

Uniform Regulations, COMDTINST M1020.6

186
Q

Award insignia for Coast Guard Aviators in accordance with which manual?

A

COMDINST M1000.3

187
Q

Award Flight Surgeon Insignia in accordance with which manual?

A

Coast Guard Aviation Medicine Manual COMDTINST M6410.3

188
Q

Aviation mission specialist insignia are authorized to be worn temporarily under what condition?

A

As long as the individual is assigned to a unit with responsibilities to perform on the mission specialist duties and maintains the appropriate qualification criteria

189
Q

Who is not authorized to wear the mission specialist insignia?

A

Personnel qualified or previously qualified as pilots, Naval Flight Officers, Flight Surgeons, Aircrew or Rescue Swimmers

190
Q

Awarding the Rescue Swimmer Insignia is in accordance with which manual?

A

Uniform Regulations COMDTINST M1020.6

191
Q

What is required to obtain Instructor Qualification?

A

Instructed for at least six months and recommended by the Unit Operations Officer

192
Q

Who initiates action for survey in the event of loss, damage, or destruction of accountable items?

A

Aviation Materiel Officer

193
Q

Who inventories aircraft upon receipt and transfer?

A

Aviation Materiel Officer

194
Q

Who is responsible for procurement, custody, issue and condition of all general and special tools required by the Aeronautical Engineering Department?

A

Aviation Materiel Officer

195
Q

What is the recommended operational window for night adapted flight missions?

A

2200 to 0400

196
Q

Who maintains aircraft and station emergency bills?

A

Operations Officer

197
Q

Who supervises the Flight Examining Board and Flight Standards Board?

A

Operations Officer

198
Q

Who monitors the accuracy of Aviation Incentive Pay (AVIP), Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay (HDIP), and Special Duty Assignment Pay (SDAP)?

A

C O

199
Q

Who acts as the senior member of the unit safety and health committee?

A

X O

200
Q

Who supervises the Master at Arms (M A A)?

A

X O

201
Q

Who acts as president of the Unit Permanent Mishap board?

A

X O

202
Q

At large units, who assists the Executive Officer in their duties?

A

Deputy Executive Officer

203
Q

Who assists the C.O. in promoting unit wellbeing?

A

Chaplain

204
Q

Who is the liaison between the enlisted workforce and command cadre?

A

Command Master Chief

205
Q

Who maintains weight and balance records, flight logs, reports and records?

A

Flight Services Officer

206
Q

Who provides medical services if a medical officer is not assigned?

A

Administration Officer

207
Q

Who must you obtain permission from before donating blood?

A

C O

208
Q

What is the standard unit for donating blood?

A

Less than 500 c c

209
Q

How often shall one not donate blood?

A

Every 120 days

210
Q

Aircrew personnel should not engage in demanding flights for a period of _____ week after blood donation.

A

one

211
Q

Donation of plasma, platelets or other blood components that results in less than _____ C C of whole blood loss is grounding for only 24 hours.

A

200 c c

212
Q

How many days is one grounded for donating bone marrow?

A

7 days

213
Q

What is the recommended maximum caffeine intake?

A

450 mg per day. 3 to 4 cups

214
Q

Any CG member involved in what type of mishap shall undergo a complete aviation physical examination?

A

Class A and B

215
Q

What is the minimum height requirement for aviation personnel?

A

157.4 cm (62 inches)

216
Q

What is the maximum height requirement for aviation personnel?

A

198 cm (78 inches)

217
Q

Multivision lenses are authorized for use while flying if uncorrected near vision is less than _____ in either eye.

A

20/40

218
Q

Procuring contact lenses at government expense is _____

A

Not authorized

219
Q

Who is the only officer that may authorize designated aviation personnel to perform aviation duties?

A

C O

220
Q

What is the Medical Recommendation for Flying Duty form?

A

CG-6020

221
Q

Who may relieve from flying duty any individual reported physically incapacitated?

A

C O

222
Q

What are the types of Aeronautical waivers?

A

Temporary and Permanent

223
Q

Who maintains the mishap response kit?

A

Flight Surgeon

224
Q

Who is responsible for oversight of the Unit’s Rescue Swimmer (RS) EMT continuing Education (CE) program?

A

The Unit Flight Surgeon

225
Q

True or False: Motion sickness is grounding and medications used to treat motion sickness are grounding.

A

True

226
Q

Aviation personnel must be free of residual symptoms and off motion sickness medications for _____ hours prior to resuming aviation duties.

A

24

227
Q

After receiving immunizations, members shall be grounded for _____ hours.

A

12

228
Q

Personnel shall be grounded for _____ hours after receiving allergy immunotherapy.

A

12

229
Q

Aviation personnel will not fly within _____ hours following SCUBA diving, compressed air dives or hyperbaric chamber dives.

A

24

230
Q

Who can authorize a member to fly within 24 hours of SCUBA diving?

A

C O after examination by and cleared by a Flight Surgeon

231
Q

Alcohol containing beverages require _____ hours of flight restriction termination.

A

12 hours

232
Q

Who is normally assigned as the Salvage Officer?

A

The Aviation Engineering Officer from the parent air station

233
Q

What minimum capacity greater than the maximum gross weight of the helicopter is recommended for the crane?

A

50%

234
Q

Who conducts the Foreign Object Damage (FOD) prevention program?

A

Maintenance Officer

235
Q

Who manages the aviation fuel facilities?

A

Maintenance Officer

236
Q

What is the fuel reserve requirement for fixed wing aircraft?

A

45 minutes of flight after reaching the alternate

237
Q

What is the fuel reserve requirement for rotary wing aircraft?

A

20 minutes of flight after reaching the alternate

238
Q

Retain completed weight and balance forms for _____ days at the aircraft home.

A

90

239
Q

Retain copies of flight plans filed at Coast Guard Units for _____ days.

A

90

240
Q

Where can you find the minimum rescue equipment required on board Coast Guard fixed wing aircraft?

A

Coast Guard Life Support Equipment Manual (ALSE) COMDTINST M135520.1 and Aviation Life Support Equipment Process Guide CGTO PG-85-00-310-A

241
Q

Use of other protective clothing for conducting Coast Guard missions is prohibited unless authorized by _____

A

CG-711

242
Q

When is an anti-exposure garment (dry suit) required?

A

Water temp 60-70, Air temp A < 85, W < 60

243
Q

Underwear for flight suits shall be _____% cotton of fire retardant and _____

A

100, Moisture Wicking

244
Q

Socks for flight suits shall be at least _____% cotton or wool.

A

80

245
Q

What type of undergarment is not authorized to wear with the Aircrew Dry coverall (ADC)?

A

Cotton

246
Q

Dry suits and accompanying wet/dry suit hood/surf cap shall be worn for rescue swimmers when water temp is below _____ degrees.

A

55

247
Q

When is the aircraft required to carry life rafts?

A

For flights that remain over water longer than 30 minutes or extended beyond 100 nautical miles from the nearest shore

248
Q

What manual specifies the minimum content of the survival vest?

A

Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment Manual (ALSE) CMDTINST M13520.1

249
Q

Who may authorize additional items to the survival vest to meet local conditions?

A

CG-711

250
Q

Pressurized aircraft operating above FL 350, _____ pilot at the controls shall be wearing and using an oxygen mask unless there are two pilots at the controls.

A

One

251
Q

Pressurized aircraft operating above FL 410, _____ pilot at the controls shall be wearing and using an oxygen mask.

A

One

252
Q

Who is responsible for the loading/unloading of cargo?

A

P I C

253
Q

Minimum pilots required for test flight?

A

All except SRR helicopter-AC and FP, SRR Helicopter-AC

254
Q

What are the clothing requirements for passengers?

A

Inappropriate civilian clothing includes tank tops, shorts, sandals, revealing, soiled or torn clothing

255
Q

What are the requirements for child passengers?

A

Shall be accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant designated by the child’s parent or guardian

256
Q

When are pets authorized on a government aircraft?

A

Guide, rescue or police dogs

257
Q

Who do you report a midair collision to?

A

National Command Center via telephone within 5 minutes and to Commandant (CG-1131) within 12 hours via preliminary mishap report

258
Q

Who do you submit requests for changes to the 3710.1?

A

CG-711 via request Unit CO

259
Q

All Air stations and the operations division of the Aviation Training Center fall under the operational control of _____

A

District area Commanders

260
Q

All Atlantic Area HC-130 aircraft are under the operational control of _____

A

Area Commander

261
Q

All other Coast Guard Aircraft fall under the operational control of _____

A

District Commanders

262
Q

The training Division of the Aviation Training Center falls under the Operational control of _____

A

FORCE COM

263
Q

The Aviation Logistic Center falls under the Operational Control of _____

A

Commandant CG-4

264
Q

Air Station Washington falls under the operational control of _____

A

Commandant CG-711

265
Q

For aviation missions involving multiple aircraft, who may be assigned as Air Mission Commander (AMC)?

A

Operations Officer

266
Q

How many first aid kits are required on the aircraft?

A

One for every ten occupants

267
Q

The contents of the first aid kits (and maintenance cycle) are enrolled in _____

A

Aviation Computerized Maintenance System (ACMS)

268
Q

What is required when Oxymetazoline spray (Afrin) in the first aid kit is used?

A

A mishap message

269
Q

Where can you find information on the number and location of crash axes?

A

Flight Manual

270
Q

Who approves Personnel Hoisting and Delivery Devices?

A

ACCB

271
Q

Personnel Hoisting and Delivery Devices maintained at air stations shall be enrolled in _____

A

ACMS

272
Q

Approved litters aboard cutters or at boat stations shall be marked as _____

A

Helicopter hoistable

AMT Jeopardy (7 decks)

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