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Embraer 145 oral flashcards > Personal > Flashcards

Personal Flashcards

1
Q

What does Pitot-Static 3 feed?

A

CPAM (Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module)

ISIS

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2
Q

Which side of the aircraft front are each Static ports?

A

Odd # static (1 and 3) on the left and even # on right.

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3
Q

Which Pitot-Static power ADC #1?

A

Pitot 1 plus Static 1 and 4

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4
Q

Which Pitot-Static power ADC #2?

A

Pitot 2 plus Static 2 and 3

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5
Q

When one fuel boost pump fail, at what fuel pressure will the other pumps come on?

A

Below 6.5 psi

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6
Q

In the fuel system, what does the pressure relief valve do?

A

Allows expanding fuel (from cold to hot) to go back to the wing tank.

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7
Q

What keeps the collector box full of fuel?

A

Flapper valves and Motive flow/Ejector/Venturi pump which requires at least one boost pump operating.

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8
Q

Up to what altitude is the suction feed being sucked by FPMU to feed the engine in case all boost pumps fail?

A

Up to 25,000’

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9
Q

Which tank is the fuel temp measured from and where is it displayed?

A

Left tank and on the MFD.

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10
Q

Why is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized?

A

To avoid system cavitation.

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11
Q

Where is the engine driven hydraulic pump located?

A

In the accessory gear box

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12
Q

Where is the electric driven hydraulic pump located?

A

In the hydraulic bay

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13
Q

If you encounter icing conditions, what do you do?

A

Check windshield edges for any ice. If you see, check bleed OPEN indications on the icing panel. If not, then QRH.

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14
Q

What are the electrically powered icing components?

A

Heat probes (TAT probe), sensors (Pitot) and windows.

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15
Q

When does the electrical anti-icing heat begin?

A

When engine is started

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the pneumatic anti-ice with regards to Vortilons?

A

Exhaust for wing anti-ice air.

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17
Q

How does the anti-icing detector work?

A

Vibrates ultrasonic frequency. When ice adheres to it, frequency changes. When frequency changes, probe heats up and opens the anti-icing valves.

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18
Q

What happens to PACKS when anti-icing kicks on?

A

Left PACK shuts off at/below 24,600’

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19
Q

Where are the heating elements on the windows and does it heat the edges of the windows?

A

Elements are in between the inner/outer layers of the window and it does not heat the edges.

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20
Q

What do bonding straps on gear doors do?

A

Grounds doors to prevent static electricity from sealing doors shut.

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21
Q

What’s the purpose of the brushes on the main gear wells?

A

Aerodynamic sealing

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22
Q

How does the landing gears come up?

A

Hydraulic Downlock Release breaks the over-center locks and gear actuators overpower the big ass springs

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23
Q

How are nose gear doors held up?

A

Hydraulic pressure

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24
Q

How does the WOW switch logic work?

A

If all switches working - 3 of 4 must agree
If 3 are valid - 2 of 3 must agree
If 2 are valid - both must agree, else default signal
Default won’t let you raise gears if down.

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25
Q

What does the nose gear WOW do?

A

Feeds thrust reverser logic and steering control

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26
Q

What is the “+” sign on the overhead panel electric blocks?

A

Where backlighting wiring is connected

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27
Q

How does the nosewheel steering work?

A

Electrically commanded, hydraulically actuated

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28
Q

What type of oil system does the aircraft have?

A

Dry sump - pump and oil tanks are in separate locations

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29
Q

What pushes and pulls oil through the engine and how many?

A

1 push pump and 5 scavenge pumps

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30
Q

Where are the scavenge pumps located?

A

Fan section, Fwd, Center, Aft and AGB

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31
Q

How is oil cooled?

A

ACOC - Air Cooled Oil Cooler

FCOC - Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler

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32
Q

When does oil bypass the FCOC?

A

Fuel hot >93 deg C and differential oil pressure of 50 psi

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33
Q

What would cause the oil pressure to go high?

A

When bearings are cold, seal may not be complete. Allows pressure from center bearing to bypass the bearing and overpower the system past the Pressure Regulating Valve.

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34
Q

How does the aircraft deal with this high oil pressure?

A

System design allows the center SUMP to flow directly to the back of the PRV to address the issue and allow oil to continue.

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35
Q

How many oil pumps does each engine have?

A

1 pump unit with 1 push and 5 scavange pumps

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36
Q

How long after shutdown do you wait to check oil quantity?

A

5 mins

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37
Q

Where can you read the oxygen pressure for the tanks?

A

Oxygen service area and on the MFD Environmental page

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38
Q

What are the 3 oxygen mask position?

A

100% - 100% oxygen
Normal - mixes cabin air with 100%
Emergency - 100% delivered under pressure used for smoke to vent goggles.

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39
Q

What type is the passenger oxygen?

A

Chemically generated

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40
Q

When does the passenger oxygen mask drop when the switch is set to AUTO?

A

When cabin altitude reaches 14,000’

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41
Q

When does the fasten belts/no smoking sign automatically come one?

A

When the passenger masks drops

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42
Q

What’s the difference between the 9th and 14th stage bleed air?

A

Volume

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43
Q

Where are the engine bleed valves located?

A

Pylon

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44
Q

When does the Ram Air Door in the Air Cycle Machine close?

A

Airborne, when both PACKS go offline in an emergency or when you turn off the PACKS.

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45
Q

Does ram air go instantly in the Cockpit and Cabin when PACKS are off?

A

No. Residual cabin pressure keeps it out until pressure goes down or there is a depressurization.

46
Q

What is PACK overload?

A

When PACKS are taken off line due to temperature or pressure.

47
Q

What do you do in case of PACK overload?

A

QRH as directed - cycle the PACK button

48
Q

When crossbleed is in the AUTO position, when does it open?

A

Engine start or anti-icing conditions

49
Q

How many recirculation fans does the aircraft have?

A

2

50
Q

What’s the purpose of the recirculation fan?

A

Recirculate cabin air to put back moisture in the dry cabin or to cool down a hot aircraft.

51
Q

What happens if you forget to set destination field elevation in the pressurization?

A

Defaults to 8,000’

52
Q

How many and what type of pneumatic outflow valves does the aircraft have for pressurization?

A

1 - electro-pneumatic

1 - pneumatic

53
Q

When in “auto” mode, how many valves are working?

A

2 with the pneumatic slave to the electro pneumatic

54
Q

When in “manual” mode, how many valves are working?

A

1

55
Q

How is pressurization controlled in the aircraft by PACK air moving?

A

Conditioned air leaves the aircraft via the outflow valves.

56
Q

What are the limits in pressurization?

A

Normal = 7.8 psi
Max negative -0.3 psi
Max overpressure = 8.1 psi

57
Q

When does the aircraft begin pressurization?

A

Takeoff thrust pressurizes to 300’ below sea level at departure and landing field.

58
Q

What is CPAM?

A

Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module. Data source for Auto Pressurization with Cabin altitude, rate, and pressure

59
Q

Where does CPAM get its info?

A

Pitot-static 3

60
Q

When/how does the DUMP button work?

A

Only in AUTO mode and when cabin altitude is at or above 14,500’. Dumps pressure to 14,500’.

61
Q

When does the cabin altitude warning come on?

A

10,000’

62
Q

What happens when a leak is detected in the pneumatic system?

A

EICAS message BLEED 2 LEAK and red LEAK on the overhead panel Bleed Valve button

63
Q

How are leaks detected?

A

Multiple temp probes monitor for leaks

64
Q

What happens if a “massive” leak is detected?

A

Associated bleed is shutoff
Crossbleed Valve is closed
EICAS message CROSS BLD CLOSED, ENG/APU BLD CLOSED

65
Q

How many computers does the SPS have?

A

1

66
Q

What are the components of the SPS computer?

A

2 independent channels, 2 AOA sensors, 2 stick shakers, 1 stick pusher on CA side

67
Q

When does the pusher not push?

A 
>200 kts
1/2 G
<200 RA (except on test on ground)
After 10 secs if RA fails
One channel inop or disabled.
68
Q

How many channels to shake?

A

Needs only 1 channel

69
Q

When in a stall attitude, what does the system do to pitch trim?

A

Pitch trim will not allow any more nose up trim

70
Q

How does the APU prevent compressor stalls?

A

Anti-surge valve

71
Q

Where does the AP (autopilot) connect to?

A

CA aileron/cable runs

72
Q

Which flight control does the AP use?

A

Ailerons, elevator and elevator trims

73
Q

Where do you get the AHRS heading information?

A

Flux detectors on each wingtip

74
Q

When do you need to turn off the Y/D?

A

200’ if coupled to Nav source. 1,000’ if NOT coupled to a Nav source.
FAF for S/E

75
Q

When does the FD automatically go into low bank mode?

A

Above 25,000’ in HDG mode.

76
Q

When must you use the NAV mode in lieu of APPR mode?

A

ILS Circle to land, ILS with GS out, GPS apps

77
Q

What are the FLC Profiles for climb and descent?

A

Climb: 240 <10,000’/250 >10,000 transitioning to Mach .56 at 18,000
Descent: 2,000 fpm >12,000’, transition to 2,000 fpm to 1,000 fpm to 10,000’. Below 10,000’ at 1,000 fpm

78
Q

Order of alignment for the FMS?

A

1) GPS
2) DME/DME
3) DME/VOR

79
Q

What is the TCS button and what does it do?

A

Touch Control Steering. Disables the AP temporarily.

80
Q

What are the wx radar buttons and what does it do?

A

RCT - rain echo attenuation: paints shadows Cyan.
STAB - stabilization - compensates for aircraft movement. Hit 4 times in 3 secs, its forces radar to standby
TGT - target alert: alerts crew to RED or Magenta echoes beyond selected range
TRB - turbulence: paints white when you enter turbulence
GMAP - mountainous terrain map

81
Q

What will happen if you use the Emergency brakes and the wheels seize and goes to 0?

A

Spoilers will drop down.

82
Q

If you want to talk to FA, which button do you push?

A

CABIN doorbell. Gives green light and activates the interphone.

83
Q

What does the CAB EMER button do?

A

Ding dong and red light on FAM comm panel. Activates the interphone.

84
Q

What does the ATTD CALL do?

A

Ding dong only.

85
Q

What will the FA want to know during an emergency call?

A

What, where, how long, and evacuation.

86
Q

Is TBCH a radio?

A

No. Just an alternate way of tuning RMU #2

87
Q

How many radio service busses on the aircraft?

A

3 RSBs

88
Q

What would it take to lose the radios?

A

You would have to lose two buses which includes the primary bus.

89
Q

If you lose all 3 RSBs, can you still tune anything?

A

Yes, via RMU2 since it is not powered by an RSB.

90
Q

How many DAUs are there and how many channels each?

A

Two DAUs and 2 channels (A and B) each.

91
Q

If you lose one channel, how do you get the other channel?

A

Reversionary button on the pedestal.

92
Q

How do you know if DAU has failed?

A

Loss of engine data on the affected DAU

93
Q

What is OXYGEN LO PRESS mean?

A

You have 12 mins of oxygen left.

94
Q

Where would you find PFD CAS messages?

A

QRH for non EICAS messages

95
Q

How many channels does the AWS have?

A

Aural Warning Systems have primary and backup channels

96
Q

What is Windshear Escape Guidance?

A

Amber means performance increase “Caution Windshear”

Red - performance decrease. “Windshear” 3 times aural. Must go around

97
Q

What does windshear escape do to FD?

A

Overrides FD. Reverts to wings level w/ Windshear icon on the PFD. Stick shaker if needed.

98
Q

When does windshear escape override FD?

A

When in go around mode or takeoff mode.

When TLA greater than 78 degrees in a performance decreasing shear.

99
Q

How do you force Windshear Escape manually?

A

Press the go-around button

100
Q

What are the important items on DC2?

A

IC 600 #2
Nosegear doors
Auto pressurization

101
Q

What are the important items on AC bus?

A

W - indshear
A - CARS printer
G - PWS

102
Q

Does the Central Bus have any draw items?

A

No. Provides connection for APU/GPU and separation point for networks

103
Q

What is on the backup Hot bus?

A

EDL and GCU

104
Q

Is there anything on the Shed bus pilots care about?

A

Flashlight charging and Taxi light

105
Q

What powers the APU start?

A

Battery # 2 (In electrical emergency, Batt # 1 connected)

106
Q

What busses do you have during an electrical emergency?

A

Central (to start the APU), Essential Bus and Hot Bus

107
Q

What is Compressor Acceleration Bleed Valve?

A

CABV - takes 9th stage are to assist in accelerating to idle RPM during engine start.

108
Q

When does aircraft automatically use bleed air from 14th stage?

A

Anti-ice
One engine to start the other
Low TLA

109
Q

When does FADEC give up on auto light in flight?

A

When N2 is below 53%

110
Q

How many fuel pumps are in the FPMU?

A

2 - one low press and one high press connected to one shaft

111
Q

Where is ITT measured from?

A

First stage of low pressure turbine

112
Q

When are T/Rs available?

A

Nosewheel WOW

Main gear WOW plus >25 kts wheel speed

Embraer 145 oral flashcards (5 decks)

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