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Embraer 145 oral flashcards > Personal > Flashcards

Personal Flashcards

1
Q

What does Pitot-Static 3 feed?

A

CPAM (Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module)

ISIS

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2
Q

Which side of the aircraft front are each Static ports?

A

Odd # static (1 and 3) on the left and even # on right.

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3
Q

Which Pitot-Static power ADC #1?

A

Pitot 1 plus Static 1 and 4

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4
Q

Which Pitot-Static power ADC #2?

A

Pitot 2 plus Static 2 and 3

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5
Q

When one fuel boost pump fail, at what fuel pressure will the other pumps come on?

A

Below 6.5 psi

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6
Q

In the fuel system, what does the pressure relief valve do?

A

Allows expanding fuel (from cold to hot) to go back to the wing tank.

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7
Q

What keeps the collector box full of fuel?

A

Flapper valves and Motive flow/Ejector/Venturi pump which requires at least one boost pump operating.

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8
Q

Up to what altitude is the suction feed being sucked by FPMU to feed the engine in case all boost pumps fail?

A

Up to 25,000’

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9
Q

Which tank is the fuel temp measured from and where is it displayed?

A

Left tank and on the MFD.

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10
Q

Why is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized?

A

To avoid system cavitation.

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11
Q

Where is the engine driven hydraulic pump located?

A

In the accessory gear box

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12
Q

Where is the electric driven hydraulic pump located?

A

In the hydraulic bay

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13
Q

If you encounter icing conditions, what do you do?

A

Check windshield edges for any ice. If you see, check bleed OPEN indications on the icing panel. If not, then QRH.

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14
Q

What are the electrically powered icing components?

A

Heat probes (TAT probe), sensors (Pitot) and windows.

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15
Q

When does the electrical anti-icing heat begin?

A

When engine is started

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the pneumatic anti-ice with regards to Vortilons?

A

Exhaust for wing anti-ice air.

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17
Q

How does the anti-icing detector work?

A

Vibrates ultrasonic frequency. When ice adheres to it, frequency changes. When frequency changes, probe heats up and opens the anti-icing valves.

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18
Q

What happens to PACKS when anti-icing kicks on?

A

Left PACK shuts off at/below 24,600’

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19
Q

Where are the heating elements on the windows and does it heat the edges of the windows?

A

Elements are in between the inner/outer layers of the window and it does not heat the edges.

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20
Q

What do bonding straps on gear doors do?

A

Grounds doors to prevent static electricity from sealing doors shut.

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21
Q

What’s the purpose of the brushes on the main gear wells?

A

Aerodynamic sealing

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22
Q

How does the landing gears come up?

A

Hydraulic Downlock Release breaks the over-center locks and gear actuators overpower the big ass springs

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23
Q

How are nose gear doors held up?

A

Hydraulic pressure

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24
Q

How does the WOW switch logic work?

A

If all switches working - 3 of 4 must agree
If 3 are valid - 2 of 3 must agree
If 2 are valid - both must agree, else default signal
Default won’t let you raise gears if down.

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25
What does the nose gear WOW do?
Feeds thrust reverser logic and steering control
26
What is the "+" sign on the overhead panel electric blocks?
Where backlighting wiring is connected
27
How does the nosewheel steering work?
Electrically commanded, hydraulically actuated
28
What type of oil system does the aircraft have?
Dry sump - pump and oil tanks are in separate locations
29
What pushes and pulls oil through the engine and how many?
1 push pump and 5 scavenge pumps
30
Where are the scavenge pumps located?
Fan section, Fwd, Center, Aft and AGB
31
How is oil cooled?
ACOC - Air Cooled Oil Cooler | FCOC - Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler
32
When does oil bypass the FCOC?
Fuel hot >93 deg C and differential oil pressure of 50 psi
33
What would cause the oil pressure to go high?
When bearings are cold, seal may not be complete. Allows pressure from center bearing to bypass the bearing and overpower the system past the Pressure Regulating Valve.
34
How does the aircraft deal with this high oil pressure?
System design allows the center SUMP to flow directly to the back of the PRV to address the issue and allow oil to continue.
35
How many oil pumps does each engine have?
1 pump unit with 1 push and 5 scavange pumps
36
How long after shutdown do you wait to check oil quantity?
5 mins
37
Where can you read the oxygen pressure for the tanks?
Oxygen service area and on the MFD Environmental page
38
What are the 3 oxygen mask position?
100% - 100% oxygen Normal - mixes cabin air with 100% Emergency - 100% delivered under pressure used for smoke to vent goggles.
39
What type is the passenger oxygen?
Chemically generated
40
When does the passenger oxygen mask drop when the switch is set to AUTO?
When cabin altitude reaches 14,000'
41
When does the fasten belts/no smoking sign automatically come one?
When the passenger masks drops
42
What's the difference between the 9th and 14th stage bleed air?
Volume
43
Where are the engine bleed valves located?
Pylon
44
When does the Ram Air Door in the Air Cycle Machine close?
Airborne, when both PACKS go offline in an emergency or when you turn off the PACKS.
45
Does ram air go instantly in the Cockpit and Cabin when PACKS are off?
No. Residual cabin pressure keeps it out until pressure goes down or there is a depressurization.
46
What is PACK overload?
When PACKS are taken off line due to temperature or pressure.
47
What do you do in case of PACK overload?
QRH as directed - cycle the PACK button
48
When crossbleed is in the AUTO position, when does it open?
Engine start or anti-icing conditions
49
How many recirculation fans does the aircraft have?
2
50
What's the purpose of the recirculation fan?
Recirculate cabin air to put back moisture in the dry cabin or to cool down a hot aircraft.
51
What happens if you forget to set destination field elevation in the pressurization?
Defaults to 8,000'
52
How many and what type of pneumatic outflow valves does the aircraft have for pressurization?
1 - electro-pneumatic | 1 - pneumatic
53
When in "auto" mode, how many valves are working?
2 with the pneumatic slave to the electro pneumatic
54
When in "manual" mode, how many valves are working?
1
55
How is pressurization controlled in the aircraft by PACK air moving?
Conditioned air leaves the aircraft via the outflow valves.
56
What are the limits in pressurization?
Normal = 7.8 psi Max negative -0.3 psi Max overpressure = 8.1 psi
57
When does the aircraft begin pressurization?
Takeoff thrust pressurizes to 300' below sea level at departure and landing field.
58
What is CPAM?
Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module. Data source for Auto Pressurization with Cabin altitude, rate, and pressure
59
Where does CPAM get its info?
Pitot-static 3
60
When/how does the DUMP button work?
Only in AUTO mode and when cabin altitude is at or above 14,500'. Dumps pressure to 14,500'.
61
When does the cabin altitude warning come on?
10,000'
62
What happens when a leak is detected in the pneumatic system?
EICAS message BLEED 2 LEAK and red LEAK on the overhead panel Bleed Valve button
63
How are leaks detected?
Multiple temp probes monitor for leaks
64
What happens if a "massive" leak is detected?
Associated bleed is shutoff Crossbleed Valve is closed EICAS message CROSS BLD CLOSED, ENG/APU BLD CLOSED
65
How many computers does the SPS have?
1
66
What are the components of the SPS computer?
2 independent channels, 2 AOA sensors, 2 stick shakers, 1 stick pusher on CA side
67
When does the pusher not push?
``` >200 kts 1/2 G <200 RA (except on test on ground) After 10 secs if RA fails One channel inop or disabled. ```
68
How many channels to shake?
Needs only 1 channel
69
When in a stall attitude, what does the system do to pitch trim?
Pitch trim will not allow any more nose up trim
70
How does the APU prevent compressor stalls?
Anti-surge valve
71
Where does the AP (autopilot) connect to?
CA aileron/cable runs
72
Which flight control does the AP use?
Ailerons, elevator and elevator trims
73
Where do you get the AHRS heading information?
Flux detectors on each wingtip
74
When do you need to turn off the Y/D?
200' if coupled to Nav source. 1,000' if NOT coupled to a Nav source. FAF for S/E
75
When does the FD automatically go into low bank mode?
Above 25,000' in HDG mode.
76
When must you use the NAV mode in lieu of APPR mode?
ILS Circle to land, ILS with GS out, GPS apps
77
What are the FLC Profiles for climb and descent?
Climb: 240 <10,000'/250 >10,000 transitioning to Mach .56 at 18,000 Descent: 2,000 fpm >12,000', transition to 2,000 fpm to 1,000 fpm to 10,000'. Below 10,000' at 1,000 fpm
78
Order of alignment for the FMS?
1) GPS 2) DME/DME 3) DME/VOR
79
What is the TCS button and what does it do?
Touch Control Steering. Disables the AP temporarily.
80
What are the wx radar buttons and what does it do?
RCT - rain echo attenuation: paints shadows Cyan. STAB - stabilization - compensates for aircraft movement. Hit 4 times in 3 secs, its forces radar to standby TGT - target alert: alerts crew to RED or Magenta echoes beyond selected range TRB - turbulence: paints white when you enter turbulence GMAP - mountainous terrain map
81
What will happen if you use the Emergency brakes and the wheels seize and goes to 0?
Spoilers will drop down.
82
If you want to talk to FA, which button do you push?
CABIN doorbell. Gives green light and activates the interphone.
83
What does the CAB EMER button do?
Ding dong and red light on FAM comm panel. Activates the interphone.
84
What does the ATTD CALL do?
Ding dong only.
85
What will the FA want to know during an emergency call?
What, where, how long, and evacuation.
86
Is TBCH a radio?
No. Just an alternate way of tuning RMU #2
87
How many radio service busses on the aircraft?
3 RSBs
88
What would it take to lose the radios?
You would have to lose two buses which includes the primary bus.
89
If you lose all 3 RSBs, can you still tune anything?
Yes, via RMU2 since it is not powered by an RSB.
90
How many DAUs are there and how many channels each?
Two DAUs and 2 channels (A and B) each.
91
If you lose one channel, how do you get the other channel?
Reversionary button on the pedestal.
92
How do you know if DAU has failed?
Loss of engine data on the affected DAU
93
What is OXYGEN LO PRESS mean?
You have 12 mins of oxygen left.
94
Where would you find PFD CAS messages?
QRH for non EICAS messages
95
How many channels does the AWS have?
Aural Warning Systems have primary and backup channels
96
What is Windshear Escape Guidance?
Amber means performance increase "Caution Windshear" | Red - performance decrease. "Windshear" 3 times aural. Must go around
97
What does windshear escape do to FD?
Overrides FD. Reverts to wings level w/ Windshear icon on the PFD. Stick shaker if needed.
98
When does windshear escape override FD?
When in go around mode or takeoff mode. | When TLA greater than 78 degrees in a performance decreasing shear.
99
How do you force Windshear Escape manually?
Press the go-around button
100
What are the important items on DC2?
IC 600 #2 Nosegear doors Auto pressurization
101
What are the important items on AC bus?
W - indshear A - CARS printer G - PWS
102
Does the Central Bus have any draw items?
No. Provides connection for APU/GPU and separation point for networks
103
What is on the backup Hot bus?
EDL and GCU
104
Is there anything on the Shed bus pilots care about?
Flashlight charging and Taxi light
105
What powers the APU start?
Battery # 2 (In electrical emergency, Batt # 1 connected)
106
What busses do you have during an electrical emergency?
Central (to start the APU), Essential Bus and Hot Bus
107
What is Compressor Acceleration Bleed Valve?
CABV - takes 9th stage are to assist in accelerating to idle RPM during engine start.
108
When does aircraft automatically use bleed air from 14th stage?
Anti-ice One engine to start the other Low TLA
109
When does FADEC give up on auto light in flight?
When N2 is below 53%
110
How many fuel pumps are in the FPMU?
2 - one low press and one high press connected to one shaft
111
Where is ITT measured from?
First stage of low pressure turbine
112
When are T/Rs available?
Nosewheel WOW | Main gear WOW plus >25 kts wheel speed

Embraer 145 oral flashcards (5 decks)

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