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Embraer 145 oral flashcards > Electrical > Flashcards

Electrical Flashcards

1
Q

How many generators do we have?

A

4 engine and 1 apu

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2
Q

How many amps do the engine generators provide?

A

400 amps

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3
Q

How many amps does the APU generator provide?

A

400 amps up to 30k feet and 300 amps above 30k

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4
Q

What’s the min battery temp to start the APU?

A

-20 degrees Celsius

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5
Q

Minimum voltage to start APU off the batteries?

A

22 volts

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6
Q

If battery is below 22 volts, how do you start APU?

A

Ask for a ground power unit (GPU)

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7
Q

How many gens do we have to lose to lose shed bus?

A

2 or 3 gens (including APU gen)

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8
Q

Does the shed bus override knob work in flight?

A

No

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9
Q

When does the shed bus go online?

A

Normal electrical conditions, otherwise on the ground with at least 1 generator online.

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10
Q

Shed bus knob. What do the different positions do?

A

OFF - de-energizes shed bus manually
AUTO - electrical distribution logic (EDL) controls shed bus contactors
OVRD - closes shed bus contactors provided the acft is on the ground and at least 1 generator is online.

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11
Q

Essential Power button. What happens when you press it?

A

Depressed - Overrides EDL to force both Ess bus contactors to their “electrical emergency” positions and connects the batteries directly to the Ess buses. White stripe illuminates.

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12
Q

QRH - Loss of all generators

A 
Airspeed - Max 250 kias
Altitude - MEA or 10,000 ft, whichever is higher
Essential Power - ON
Crew Oxygen - as required
Passenger Oxygen - as required
Emergency Lights - OFF
Land at the nearest suitable airport
***see the rest in QRH***
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13
Q

What does Essential bus power?

A

EICAS
RMUs
ISIS

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14
Q

How are emergency lights powered?

A

4 dedicated batteries

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15
Q

How long are emergency lights powered?

A

Approximately 15 minutes

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16
Q

If electrical emergency at 37,000 ft, and emergency lights come on, what do you do?

A

Descend to 30,000 ft so you can start the APU and use its generator.

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17
Q

What does turning on the red beacon light do?

A

It starts the flight data recorder on the ground.

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18
Q

What does pulling the fire handle do?

A

Hydraulic shutoff valve - closes associated
Engine bleed valve - closes associated
Engine inlet anti-ice valve - closes
Fuel shutoff valve (at the wing root)- closes

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19
Q

What powers the valves that fire handles closes?

A

Hydraulic shutoff - hot bus
Fuel shutoff - hot bus
Bleed valve - essential bus
Inlet anti-ice valve - DC bus

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20
Q

What’s on the hot bus?

A

Fuel shutoff valve, hydraulic shutoff valve, fire extinguishers, ELT, refueling courtesy and main door lights.

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21
Q

Fire test button pushed, what happens?

A

Fire bell rings, fire handle lights, bagg extg lights, Master Warning and Master Caution lights and EICAS messages appear.

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22
Q

What EICAS messages appear on fire test?

A 
E1-2 Fire
APU Fire
BAGG SMOKE
E1-2 FIREDET FAIL
APU FIREDET FAIL
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23
Q

ENG1 FIRE message disappears and replaced by ENG1 FIREDET FAIL message.

A

Treat it as an engine fire and run the engine fire memory item.

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24
Q

Memory item: Engine fire, severe damage or separation.

A

Assoc thrust lever - IDLE
Assoc Start/Stop Selector - STOP
Assoc Fire Extg Handle - PULL (DO NOT ROTATE)

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25
Q

You’re taxiing out and you get APU FIRE message, the FA calls and says there is smoke in the back. The captain has passed out. What do you do?

A

Stop the airplane and evacuate.

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26
Q

Can fuel be transferred from one tank to the other?

A

NO

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27
Q

Where are the fuel pumps located?

A

In the collector box at the wing root.

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28
Q

When can we not have the fuel xfeed knob in xfeed?

A
  1. ) Takeoff
  2. ) Go-around
  3. ) Landing
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29
Q

How is fuel moved through the wings?

A

From the tip to the root via gravity.

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30
Q

What keeps fuel from going back from root to tip?

A

One-way flapper valves.

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31
Q

What do fuel pumps do other than supply the engines?

A

Supplies the compressor variable geometry (CVG)? Also supplies the fuel cooled oil cooler (FCOC)?

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32
Q

How much fuel is in each wing?

A

5717 lbs.

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33
Q

Unusable fuel in each wing?

A

39 lbs.

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34
Q

Unusable fuel with one pump inop?

A

365 lbs.

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35
Q

At 5,000 ft, you hit turbulence. What airspeed?

A

200 kias

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36
Q

At 30,000 ft you hit turbulence, what airspeed?

A

250 kias or .63 mach whichever is lower

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37
Q

If we hit turbulence and you need to communicate to FA to take a seat, what do you do?

A

Press the ATTD CALL ICU button overhead twice. Signals four ding dongs.

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38
Q

For the powerplant in flight, when do we turn ON igniters instead of AUTO?

A

Turbulence or rain.

39
Q

If in icing conditions and we don’t tell FADEC to takeoff in icing conditions, what could that mean to us?

A

If you enter icing conditions and the anti-ice kicks on, you’ll have a loss of thrust, which makes your takeoff data invalid and especially bad if you lose an engine.

40
Q

On takeoff, you rotate at Vr, the elevator freezes around 10 degrees, what do you do?

A

Jammed elevator:

Elevator disconnect - PULL

41
Q

What does takeoff data assume?

A

Loss of an engine on takeoff.

42
Q

In an emergency, what buttons do you press and how many times to communicate with FA?

A

ATTD CALL button twice and CABIN EMER once.

43
Q

Max altitude to start the APU?

A

30,000’

44
Q

EGT limitations for APU start/continous operation?

A

Max to start 884 deg C. Continuous ops 680 deg C (717 deg C up to 5 mins)

45
Q

Memory item - APU fire

A

APU fuel shutoff valve - CLOSE

46
Q

When do we load icing takeoff in Takeoff Data?

A

10 deg C or less AND visible moisture OR 10 deg C or less AND ceiling 1,500’ AGL. Contaminated runway.

47
Q

What does the FADEC do when icing takeoff selected?

A

Reduces takeoff thrust to allow for Anti-Ice to kick on during takeoff.

48
Q

What conditions to turn igniters to ON? On the ground.

A

Turbulence and/or rain. Aircart or bottle start. Starting Cold engine AND 10 deg C or less.

49
Q

Engine warm up.

A

Prior to t/o, run at low thrust or idle 4 mins for cold engine or 2 mins for warm engine. To increase N2 above 83%, engine oil min temp 40 deg C or run the engine at least 8 mins.

50
Q

Why would we turn off the guarded hyd sys button?

A

Hydraulic fluid overheat.

51
Q

Difference between engine driven and electric hydraulic pump?

A

Engine driven - 3000 psi piston type

Electric driven - 2900 psi impeller type and output volume 1/10 of fluid pushed out by engine driven.

52
Q

Difference between hyd sys 1 and hyd sys 2?

A

Hydraulic system 1 has a priority valve. Each one has some different component they service - i.e. inboard/outboard brakes and spoilers and landing gear and emergency brakes.

53
Q

What does the priority valve prioritize?

A

Prioritizes the flight controls in case engine driven pump fails and electric pump takes over. Restricts hydraulic fluid to the landing gear during retraction. Retraction is slow.

54
Q

How many accumulators are on each hyd system?

A

One accumulator per system.

55
Q

What does the hyd accumulator do?

A

Accumulators keep the surges of the hydraulic pumps at a minimum and to keep 3000 psi pressure available for operations of landing gear and main door (sys #1) and the emergency parking brake (sys #2).

56
Q

Does emergency brake have any protections?

A

No.

57
Q

Does the normal brakes have any protections?

A

Yes.

58
Q

If CA has his feet on toe brakes after landing, will your tires blow? What protection?

A

No. Touchdown protection. Wheel brakes de-activated until one of two events occur:

  1. ) WOW + 3 secs OR
  2. ) Wheel speed of 50 kts.
59
Q

What other protections does brakes have?

A
  1. ) Anti-skid - wheel speed >10kts. Average all 4 main wheels. If one falls below average, brake pressure is reduced on that wheel until speed returns to average.
  2. ) Locked wheel - wheel speed >30kts. If one wheel is 30% slower than the others, then full brake release for that wheel until it recovers speed.
  3. ) Touchdown - prevents wheel brakes from activating while airborne until one of two events occur (whichever is first) (a) WOW + 3 secs or (b) wheel speed of 50 kts.
60
Q

What is rudder “hardover”?

A

Uncommanded move of the rudder of more than 5 degrees deflection.

61
Q

Hardover protection?

A

Shuts off all hydraulic power to the rudder and reverts rudder to mechanical mode. Occurs when:

  1. ) Rudder deflects more than 5 degrees.
  2. ) Opposite direction pedal force of >130 lbs.
  3. ) Both engines N2 above 56%
62
Q

Ice Test procedures:

A 
Engine bleeds - OPEN
APU bleed - CLOSED
PACKS - ON
Ice Detection Override Knob - ALL
Thrust levers - 83% N2
Ice Det Test Knob - 1 then 2 (not more than 15 secs)

Observe the following indication on both sides:
1.) OPEN inscription on ENG, WING, and STAB
2.) EICAS messages:
ICE DET 1(2) FAIL - caution
BLD 1(2) LOW TEMP - caution
ICE CONDITION - advisory
CROSS BLD OPEN (may be displayed) - advisory

Thrust levers - IDLE
Ice Det Override Knob - AUTO or ENG
Engine and APU bleeds - as required

63
Q

Ice Detection Knob to ENG?

A

Opens engine inlet anti-ice valves. Above 25 kts wheel speed, WING/STAB anti-ice valves are opened if ice is detected.

64
Q

Ice Detection Knob to ALL?

A

Above 25 kts, opens all pneumatic anti-ice valves. Below 25 kts, opens only the engine inlet anti-ice valve

65
Q

Ice Detection Knob to AUTO?

A

Allows automatic operation of the anti-ice system.

66
Q

Oil pressure limits:

A

Below and at or above 88% N2 - 110 psi
Below 88% N2, can be exceeded if oil temp is below 21 deg C and engine in IDLE until 110 psi. Also amber 111 - 115 psi time limit is 5 mins. 116 - 155 psi time limit is 2 mins. Total above 110 psi cannot exceed 5 mins.

At or above 88% N2, 111 - 115 psi time limit 5 mins. 116 - 155 psi time limit is 2 mins. Total above 110 psi cannot exceed 5 mins.

67
Q

How many gasper fans are there?

A

One

68
Q

Gasper fan on the ground?

A

Turned on as soon as the associated DC bus is energized.

69
Q

Gasper fan in flight?

A

Overhead button in AirCond/Pneumatic panel turns on/off in flight only.

70
Q

Aileron/Roll Trim Runaway memory item:

A

Quick Disconnect Button - PRESS and HOLD

Aileron Systems 1 and 2 - OFF

71
Q

Jammed Aileron memory item: why?

A

Aileron Disconnect - PULL

Disconnects the jammed side from the free side, allowing the free side to be commanded.

72
Q

Takeoff config: what does it look for?

A

Flaps - 9 degrees
Spoilers - closed
Trim - set green
Parking Brake - off

73
Q

What powers the igniters on the engine?

A

PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) above 10% N2.

74
Q

Other than the igniters, what else does PMA power?

A
  1. ) FADECs at min 50% N2.

2. ) Thrust rating mode buttons in case of electrical emergency.

75
Q

How many flap panels are there?

A

Two (double slotted) flap panels on each wing.

76
Q

How are flaps powered?

A

FPDU (Flap Power and Drive Unit) with two motors drive all the flap actuators through flexible shafts.

77
Q

What if flaps move at different rates?

A

Velocity sensors installed at the end of the flexible shafts detect panel assymetry. In such case, the system is disabled.

78
Q

Elevator trim after takeoff limitation? What if it’s exceeded?

A

Keep trimmed within the green band. If exceeded, high loads on horizontal stabilizer may stall the HSA (Horizontal Stabilizer Actuator), inducing a temporary loss of pitch command.

79
Q

Which speed brake panel open in flight?

A

Outboard panels

80
Q

When can speed brakes open?

A

TLA (thrust lever angle) of both engines below 50 deg

81
Q

Jammed elevator memory item:

A

Elevator disconnect - PULL

82
Q

When is takeoff alternate required?

A

If the departure airport’s weather is below Cat I landing minimums.

83
Q

How far (or close) does the takeoff alternate be?

A

Must not be more than one (1) hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one (1) engine inoperative. (For Emb-145 it is about 250 nm).

84
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

Forecasted WX one hour before and one hour after your ETA is less than 2,000’ ceiling OR less than 3 miles visibility.

85
Q

What are mins for these alternates?

A

Derived alternate mins for TSA:
Add 400 ft to MDA or DA and 1 sm to visibility for airports with at least 1 operational nav facility for straight-in non-prec app, or Cat I prec app, or when applicable, a circling app.

Add 200 to DA or MDA to higher of the two approaches and 1/2 sm visibility for airports with at least 2 operational nav facilities each providing straight in app to different suitable runways.

86
Q

How do I know alternate airport is approved for use?

A

Listed in OPS SPEC C070 and authorized for that particular operation.

87
Q

What is min fuel comprised of?

A

Burn (t/o to touchdown) + Alternate (200 lbs for Missed App) + Reserve + Holding fuels

88
Q

What is DD?

A

Driftdown

89
Q

What is DP?

A

Depresurization

90
Q

Are we Method 1 or Method 2 for OFP?

A

Method 1 - Captain initiated Operational Flight Plan (OFP). Method 2 is dispatcher initiated.

91
Q

Why are there two landing limitations listed in the OFP for each runway at destination?

A

One for flaps 22 and one for flaps 45.

92
Q

What are the thrust rating mode buttons on the center pedestal? - AOM II page 564

A

It defines the available engine thrust at the existing ambient conditions.
CON - Max Continuous available when PA is above 300’ above t/o altitude and no landing gear down and locked or PA is >1700’ above t/o altitude. Inhibited on ground.
CLB and CRZ - available when PA is >500’ above t/o altitude and no landing gear down and locked signal. Or when PA is >1700’ above t/o alt and no OEI signal. Inhibited on the ground.

93
Q

Minimum voltage for GPU to start the APU?

A

19 volts

Embraer 145 oral flashcards (5 decks)

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