Oral notes James Patterson Flashcards

1
Q

Missed approach fuel

A

200 lbs always even w/o alternate airport

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2
Q

Minimum takeoff fuel

A

takeoff burn + alternate burn + reserve + holding

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3
Q

How do you do a White bucket test?

A
  1. ) Siphon 1 gal. from fuel truck and check for sediments
  2. ) If present, siphon another gallon (up to 3 gals).
  3. ) If after 3 gals, there is still sediments, don’t use fuel truck. Write in “remarks” section of logcan.
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4
Q

Are MEL, CDL, and NEF equally important?

A

Yes. They could ground aircraft.

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5
Q

RVSM compliance check on PFD1, PFD2, and Standby altimeter.

A

75 ft of field elevation
50 ft difference between PFD1 and PFD2
150 ft of standby altimeter (0 - 5,000’ only). Above, check SOP.

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6
Q

When do we do T/O-1 (100% t/o thrust)?

A
C - ontaminated runway
A - TTCS inop
M - ELs says you have to
P - erformance (if Aerodata says you have to)
Winshear
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7
Q

What is Vref?

A

Landing speed upon crossing runway threshold.

Wind correction added for headwind = 1/2 hw + diff between sustained wind and gust factor.

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8
Q

Max wind additive for Vref at flaps 22?

A

20 kts

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9
Q

Max wind additive for Vref at flaps 45?

A

15 kts

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10
Q

Minimum additive for Vref for both flaps 22 and 45?

A

5 kts

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11
Q

What is “acceleration height”?

A

Height AGL when acft levels off to accelerate to Vfs (final segment speed). Given to us in MSL.

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12
Q

When is flaps retracted?

A

V2 + 15 AND at or above acceleration height.

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13
Q

What is minimum landing distance?

A

Aerodata given. Min runway length available for you to land. Crossing threshold at Vref at 50 ft AGL, you need to land within 60% of length.

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14
Q

Climb profile for Emb-145?

A

240 kts below 10,000’
270 kts above 10,000’
Transition to Mach .56 @ FL 180

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15
Q

What is SAT?

A

Static Air Temp. Used on the ground to define icing conditions of 10 deg C on the ground.

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16
Q

What is Normal Icing Conditions per FAA?

A

Contaminants adhering to acft, but the wx is no longer relevant.

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17
Q

What is the step for anti-icing in normal icing conditions?

A

1-step de-ice process. Spray acft with deice fluid followed by tactile check.

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18
Q

What is Icing Conditions on the ground?

A

Contaminants adhering to acft and the wx is still prevalent.

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19
Q

What step(s) for anti-icing in Icing Conditions on the ground?

A

2-step deice process. Spray acft with de-ice fluid, do tactile check. Then spray with anti-ice. Time for holdover.

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20
Q

What is icing conditions “holdover”?

A

Amount of time anti-ice fluid can be exposed to icing conditions before it becomes saturated.

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21
Q

Where can you spray de-ice fluid?

A

All over the acft.

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22
Q

Where can you spray anti-ice fluid?

A

Wings, stabs, rudders and top of fuselage.

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23
Q

What type is de-ice fluid?

A

Type 1, pink color, 50-50 solution in water and applied hot.

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24
Q

What type is anti-ice fluid?

A

Type 4, green color, 100% concentrate (no water added) and applied cold.

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25
Q

How to prepare acft for de-ice?

A
  1. ) Set parking brake
  2. ) Flaps and ailerons to neutral
  3. ) Trim to full nose down.
  4. ) Gust lock set.
  5. ) All doors, windows and emergency exit closed.
  6. ) Off gate - engines IDLE, bleeds & packs off, APU off
  7. ) On gate - engines OFF, bleeds & packs off, APU on.
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26
Q

Icing takeoff configuration for acft?

A
  1. ) Bleeds ON
  2. ) PACKS ON
  3. ) Cross bleed AUTO
  4. ) Ice Detection Override know - ENG
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27
Q

How many FADECs does each engine have?

A

2 FADECs per engine - FADEC A and FADEC B

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28
Q

How many FADECs run each time the engine is on?

A

Only 1 FADEC runs. The other is on standby, but still running engine data calculations in case it needs to take over.

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29
Q

What are the FADEC conversations?

A

On side, Cross side, and Discreet conversations.

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30
Q

What is FADEC On side conversation?

A

Conversation between FADEC A and FADEC B of the onside engine. “Are you okay?” If critical fault occurs, the other FADEC takes over. EICAS message comes out. They can use each others igniter.

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31
Q

What is FADEC cross side conversation?

A

Conversation between FADECs across each engine.

  1. ) Is your engine running? If not ATTCS bumps power to 100%
  2. ) Did you T/R deploy? If not, then no more than IDLE thrust is commanded.
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32
Q

What is FADEC discreet conversation?

A

FADEC talking to itself.

  1. ) Am I being asked to go-around (or takeoff) and is it 19 deg C or more outside? If yes to either, then turn OFF PACKS.
  2. ) Am I running? If not, then turn on the Electric Hydraulic Pumps.
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33
Q

In flight, when do you have to contact dispatch?

A
  1. ) ATC changes your cruise altitude >4,000’
  2. ) ATC increases your distance >500 nm
  3. ) ATC increases flight time >15 mins
  4. ) Anytime there is an emergency
34
Q

How many minutes of air supply does the PBE (portable breathing equipment) have?

A

15 mins

35
Q

How many feet away must a fire extinguisher from the PBE?

A

3 feet

36
Q

Per TSA policy, how often does the VOR check have to be done?

A

Daily. Usually on the first flight of the day.

37
Q

What is standard airport departure takeoff minimums?

A

1 statute mile (or 5,000’ RVR). Applies to 1 and 2 engine ops.

38
Q

When do we need a 2nd alternate airport?

A

When both destination and first alternate airport have marginal WX.

39
Q

What is considered marginal WX for the purpose of determining 2nd alternate?

A

Destination airport WX ceiling is < 1,000’ OR < 3 sm vis. AND alternate airport WX ceiling is < 600’ OR < 2 sm vis.

40
Q

What is “Exemption 17347”?

A

Allows dispatch to destination airport when WX conditional language (TEMPO or PROB) is below approach minimums. 2nd alternate airport is required.

41
Q

For “exemption 17347” to apply what does the TAF have in the main body and conditional language for destination, alternate and 2nd alternate airport?

A

Destination - Main body vis = 100% and Cond Lang = 50% visibility
Alternate - Main body visibility and ceiling = 100% of derived alt mins and Cond Lang visibility and ceiling = 50% of derived alt mins.
2nd Alternate - Main body visibility and ceiling = 100% of derived alternate mins and Cond. Lang. = 100% visibility and ceiling of derived alt mins.

42
Q

For the engines, can you switch the Stop/Start selector to stop if the engines are above IDLE setting?

A

No

43
Q

How many panels does the Speed Brakes have?

A

Four panels. 2 on each wing.

44
Q

Which of the Speed Brakes panel (inboard/outboard) deploy on the ground?

A

Both inboard and outboard

45
Q

Which of the Speed Brakes panel (inboard/outboard) deploy in the air?

A

Outboard spoilers only.

46
Q

For the EGPWS, how many seconds to you have to act for Warning and Caution?

A
Warning = 30 secs
Caution = 60 secs
47
Q

If your radar is deferred, does the GPWS still operate? Why?

A

Yes. Radar has nothing to do with GPWS.

48
Q

What is a “high minimums” Captain?

A

< 100 hours in type

49
Q

Are you allowed to reset circuit breakers?

A

No if not authorized. Once only if authorized. Prohibited if FUEL circuit breakers.

50
Q

What is a “landing performance decision tree”?

A

For runways < 9,000’ in length. Located in the Cockpit Resource Guide in the back of the QRH.

51
Q

Stabilized approach: at what height above the ground in IMC and VMC must you be in?

A
IMC = 1,000'
VMC = 500'
52
Q

If you are not in a “stabilized approach” below the IMC height AGL and/or VMC height AGL, what must you do?

A

Go-around (missed approach)

53
Q

Who initiates a go-around?

A

Either CA or FO

54
Q

Who initiates an aborted takeoff?

A

CA only.

55
Q

What is an NEF? Example?

A

Non-essential furnishings. Ex: coffee pot

56
Q

What is a CDL?

A

Configuration Deviation List. List of parts that may be missing for flight. Repairs are due when parts arrive.

57
Q

What is an MEL?

A

Minimum Equipment List

58
Q

What is an MIP?

A

Maintenance Irregularities Procedures

59
Q

What is a DMI?

A

Deferred Maintenance Item. Usually a sticker is placed next to the item deferred.

60
Q

What are the repair timelines for an MEL?

A

Cat A - as specified in the MEL (remarks section)
Cat B - 3 calendar days (or flight days)
Cat C - 10 calendar days
Cat D - 120 calendar days

61
Q

What is Cat I Landing minima for TSA?

Ops Spec C052

A

DH = 200’
1/2 mile visibility (with approved AP)
RVR = 1,800’ (to approved runways w/o TDZ and/or RCL lights.

62
Q

What is Cat II Landing minima for TSA?

Ops Spec C060

A
DH = 100'
RVR = 1,200' TDZ
63
Q

Average PAX summer weight?

A

May 1 to Oct 31
184 lbs adult
76 lbs child (2 - 12 years old)
Infants under 2 = zero

64
Q

Average PAX winter weight?

A

Nov 1 to Apr 30
189 lbs adult
81 lbs child (2 - 12 y.o.)

65
Q

Average crew weights?

A
Pilots = 190 lbs
FA = 170 lbs
ACM = 190 if seated in jumpseat
66
Q

Average checked bags weight?

A

30 lbs

67
Q

Average heavy bags weight?

A

60 lbs

68
Q

Average plane side loaded bags weight?

A

20 lbs

69
Q

Bags over 100 lbs?

A

Considered air freight

70
Q

Personal item placed in closet weight?

A

10 lbs

71
Q

What is Driftdown Method 1? (To the destination)

A

Aircraft max takeoff weight that ensures that if an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to destination, the aircraft’s net altitude will clear all obstructions 5 sm either side of the intended route by 1,000’.
Based on forecast winds and temps aloft, bleed configuration, and ice protection configuration.

72
Q

What is Driftdown Method 2? (Divert to suitable alternate)

A

Aircraft max takeoff weight that requires that if an engine failure occurs, the aircraft must be able to divert to at least 1 suitable airport from normal cruise altitude and the aircraft’s net driftdown altitude will clear all obstructions 5 sm either side of the route of flight by 2,000’ vertically until reaching the diversion airport.
Based on forecast winds and temp aloft, bleed config, and ice protection config.

73
Q

What ACARS code requires you to do a static takeoff?

A

F(ield lenght) or D(ry runway weight check)

74
Q

What is a static takeoff?

A

Hold the brakes until N2 is 25% engine power then release the brakes.

75
Q

What is CDFA?

A

Constant Descent Final Approach. Non-precision app

76
Q

What is the decision altitude for a CDFA?

A

Derived Decision Altitude

77
Q

TSA abort policy?

A

Below 80 kts, any problems
Above 80 kts to V1, no abort unless engine fire, failure or perception that the airplane won’t fly.
Above V1 - continue flight

78
Q

Reversionary Panel: What happens when you press either the buttons ADC, AHRS, or SG?

A

Cross side data. You’re looking at the other guys data.

79
Q

Emb-145 dimensions?

A

98 ft long
22 ft 2 in high
65 ft 9 in wingtip to wingtip

80
Q

What’s in the Accessory Gear Box?

A
H - ydraulic pump
O - il pump
P - MA
F - uel pump
A - ir turbine starter
G - enerators