Mock oral with Capt Steve Flashcards

1
Q

Cat II landing mins?

A

100’ DH
RVR = 1200TDZ/600Mid/300RO
AP engaged. Both CA and FO trained.

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2
Q

FO min RVR for takeoff?

A

1,800’

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3
Q

Max aft cargo weight w/o horizontal restraining net?

A

2,182 lbs. Unless placarded that it has reinforced liners and does not require net.

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4
Q

When can you NOT use Exemption 17347?

A

Cat II approach, Charter, and in Canada

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5
Q

FO Restrictions:

A
  1. ) Actual wx less than straight-in Cat I landing mins.
  2. ) Runway shorter than 4,500’
  3. ) Braking action less than FAIR
  4. ) Non-grooved rwy that are wet or contaminated
  5. ) Xwind component >20 kts
  6. ) Capt says so.
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6
Q

High min FO?

A

FO with less than 100 hours in type, CA will do t/o & land

  1. ) Special use airports
  2. ) Visibility at or below 3/4 mile or RVR at or below 4,000’
  3. ) Runway contaminated by water, snow or slush
  4. ) Braking less than good.
  5. ) Xwind component >15 kts
  6. ) Windshear
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7
Q

What does DAU #1 monitor? DAU #2?

A

DAU 1 = #1 eng and fwd

DAU 2 = #2 eng and back

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8
Q

What do you see on AI when AHRS fail?

A

Just a blue ball

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9
Q

How often do you do a stall test?

A

Every leg whether you have ice compensation or not. Stall test will reset ice compensation.

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10
Q

What does windshear escape mode prevent?

A

Stall, descent, and overspeed

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11
Q

Ice compensation?

A

When ice is detected at low speed, stick shaker for flaps 9 and 22 is inhibited until 5 mins before t/o.

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12
Q

What are the component of Stall protection system (SPS)?

A

1 computer, 2 AOA, 2 channels, 1 stick pusher, 1 stick shaker on CA side

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13
Q

When will stick pusher not push?

A

1) 200 kts or less
2) less than 200 ft AGL
3) on the ground (except test)
4) with 1 SPS channel inop
5) quick disconnect button pressed and held
6) less than 1/2 G
7) SPS Cutout guarded button (Cutout 1 or Cutout 2) is pressed.

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14
Q

When does aural warning sound?

A

Above 10,000 feet

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15
Q

Aural Warning System components?

A

1 computer, 2 identical channels

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16
Q

When does Takeoff inhibition occur?

A

V1 - 15 up to 400’ AGL

CAS <60 kts or after 60 secs

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17
Q

When does landing inhibition occur?

A

200 AGL

WOW + 3 secs or 60 secs

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18
Q

What is CVG and where is it located?

A

Compressor Variable Geometry and located at Inlet Guide Vanes and the first 5 stages of the compressor

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19
Q

How many blades does the engine fan have and what turns it?

A

24 blades and turned by LOW pressure 3-stage turbine

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20
Q

What runs the N2 compressor and how many stages does it have?

A

Turned by HI pressure 2-stage turbine and has 14 stages.

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21
Q

Where is bleed air tapped from the compressor?

A

9th and 14th stage

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22
Q

What turns the Accessory Gear Box?

A

Tower shaft connected to the compressor.

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23
Q

What is in the AGB (Accessory Gear Box)?

A
H - ydraulic pump
O - il pump
P - MA
F - uel pump
A - ir Turbine Starter
G - enerators
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24
Q

How many fuel nozzles does the engine burner cans have?

A

16 (candles)

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25
How many pumps does the oil system have?
5 scavenge pumps and 1 pressure pump
26
Where are the sumps located?
Fan, Fwd of engine, Center, back and AGB.
27
How many quarts does the oil tank hold?
12 qts.
28
How many quarts of oil before reporting to MX?
8 qts
29
How many quarts of oil to write it up?
6 qts
30
How many chip detectors and where located for the oil system?
4 chip detectors located in each sump except at the AGB
31
When can the thrust reverser be deployed?
1. ) WOW | 2. ) Wheel speed of > 25 kts or Nosewheel on ground
32
On the ground, what could shutdown APU?
Anything such as fire, overspeed, overheat, etc.
33
In the air, what could shutdown the APU?
Anything NOT heat related such as overspeed.
34
Where does the fuel shutoff when pressing the APU Stop button?
At the APU
35
Where does the fuel shutoff when switching the APU On/Off selector switch to OFF?
At the wing root
36
When all fuel pump goes inop, fuel suction pump works until what altitude?
25,000'
37
What's the average weight of jet fuel per gal?
6.767 lbs
38
What does the Lead-Acid Backup battery power?
EDL (Electrical Distribution Logic) and the GCU (Generator Control Unit)
39
What is the main goal of the EDL?
To maintain 2 separate network and every draw item has at least 2 generators.
40
What's on the Hot Bus #1?
``` F - uel shutoff R - efueling Panel E - LT S - quib As H - ydraulic SOV ```
41
What's on the Hot Bus #2?
``` F - uel shutoff C - Courtesy lights A - ir stair/Main door S - quib Bs H - ydraulic SOV ```
42
When does the engine generators come on?
At 56.4% N2
43
When do you turn off the Avionics Master button?
When the QRH tells you to.
44
What happens when you turn off the AC Power button?
It disconnects the AC inverter
45
What happens when you push the Backup button?
Removes the backup battery from charging. Such as when it overheats over 70 deg C.
46
What is the 4th gear pin for?
Holds the nose gear doors
47
When does the nose wheel steering disconnect when using rudder?
Steering at more than 5 degrees
48
How does elevators work?
Mechanically commanded with assistance from spring and servo tabs.
49
When does spring and servo tab assist the elevator?
Spring tab during high speed only. Servo tab at all speeds.
50
What are the trim priority for Primary and Backup?
Primary for CA only. Backup for both CA and FO
51
What are the protections for the trim?
Quick disconnect button 3 secs switch when both sides are pressed 7 secs disables trim when half of the trim is being used 16 secs will stop the trim from moving stabilizers. Shuts off entire channel.
52
What does setting the trim to #8 do?
It sets the trim for V2 which is around 120 to 130 kts
53
What will automatically move trim?
When AP is engages or when Speed brake is activated
54
When does trim move slow or fast?
Aircraft High speed - slow trim movement | Aircraft Low speed - fast trim movement
55
What happens when you move the trim too high nose up?
Stick shaker
56
How does rudder move?
Mechanically moved and hydraulically assisted.
57
What gives the rudder an artificial feel?
Rudder Power Control Unit
58
How many motors does the flap system have?
2 motors
59
If one flap motor gets disabled, will the flaps still move?
Yes, but slower
60
When can speed brakes come out?
Low TLA and 0 - 9 flaps setting
61
How many baggage compartment smoke detectors does the aircraft have?
2
62
What does the smoke detectors do?
Detects fire and shuts off fan. Sends signal to EICAS
63
When does the low pressure warning for the oxygen tank come on and how many minutes of oxygen is left at that point?
400 psi and 12 mins of oxygen left
64
With normal oxygen tank pressure for the crew, how many minutes of oxygen does the crew have?
2 hours
65
For the XR, what is the engine AE3007A1-E thrust rating and at what operating temp?
8,810 lbs of thrust at ISA + 19 deg C