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Embraer 145 oral flashcards > Bill Haller Systems > Flashcards

Bill Haller Systems Flashcards

1
Q

How many doors and hatches on this aircraft?

A

9 doors & hatches. Fuel and Fwd Elec bay not pressurized

1) Fwd elec bay
2) Under cockpit hatch
3) Main cabin door
4) Service door
5) Overwing Emerg Exits (2)
6) Cargo door
7) Rear Elec bay
8) Re-fuel door

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2
Q

What does EICAS message “Warning: Main Door Open” mean?

A

Door open or not locked either on the ground with #1 engine running or in-flight.

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3
Q

Where does IC-600 #1 present its information?

A

PFD1, MFD1 and EICAS

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4
Q

Where does IC-600 #2 present its information?

A

PFD2 and MFD2

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5
Q

What are the power sources for the EFIS?

A 
DC1 = PFD1 and MFD2
DC2 = MFD1 and PFD2 and TBCH
ESS1 = RMU1 and EICAS
ESS2 = RMU2 and ISIS
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6
Q

How do you initiate a IC-600 Pilot initiated BIT (built in test) on the EFIS?

A

Press the Radar -( TEST button on the glareshield panel for about 6 secs for first level test. More than 6 secs, test to many interface and messages with PASS until the last PASS comes up.

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7
Q

Visual warning lights supplied by AWU (aural warning unit)

A 
Master warning (RED) - triple chime
Master caution (Yellow) - single chime
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8
Q

What is Inhibition logic?

A

It prevents nuisance alarms and messages coming up during takeoff and landing.

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9
Q

When is takeoff inhibition valid?

A

V1 - 15 kts during takeoff
Radio altitude of 400 ft AGL
CAS < 60 kts
60 seconds if RA is not working

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10
Q

When is landing inhibition valid?

A

Radio altitude of 200’ AGL until:

1) WOW + 3 secs
2) After 60 secs if you go around

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11
Q

What is on the Hot Bus #1

A 
Fuel shutoff
Refueling
ELT
Squib A
Hydraulic shutoff
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12
Q

What is on the Hot Bus #2

A 
Fuel shutoff
Courtesy lights
Airstair/Main Door
Squib B
Hydraulic shutoff
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13
Q

What is the aircraft dimensions?

A

98 ft long
22 ft 2 in high
65 ft 9 in wingtip to wingtip

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14
Q

If PFD displays CAS MSG, what does that mean?

A

CAS (Crew Alerting System) compares EICAS messages on both the CA and FO MFD via reversion. If the message comes up, IC-600 1 & 2 disagree on the number of messages on the EICAS. Look in QRH in non-EICAS message troubleshooting section.

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15
Q

How many seconds does each “trend” vectors on the PFD indicate?

A

Airspeed - 10 seconds
Altitude - 6 seconds
Means in so many seconds you will be at the speed or altitude indicated at the end of the trend vector.

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16
Q

How many channels does the AWU have?

A

2 channels

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17
Q

What are the components of the SPS (Stall Protection System)?

A

1 SPS computer with two independent channels
2 AOA sensors
2 stick shakers
1 stick pusher

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18
Q

What happens to the AP if the stick shaker activates?

A

Automatically disconnects the AP.

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19
Q

In the event one of the AOA sensors gets stuck and the channel deactivates, what happens to the stick shaker?

A

Stick shaker will not activate

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20
Q

What happens if the AHRS data is lost and the AHRS fails?

A

The SPS computer can’t provide the PLI (Pitch Limit Indicator) and the channel will be inop inhibiting the stick pusher.

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21
Q

What other events or time will the stick pusher not work?

A

1) Speed >200 kts
2) Below 200 ft AGL
3) On the ground (except when doing a test)
4) If radio altimeter fails, a 10 secs countdown from takeoff inhibits stick pusher
5) Quick disconnect button pressed and held
6) Stall Protection guarded buttons Cutout 1 and Cutout 2 pressed
7) Less than 1/2 G load

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22
Q

What will the stall and windshear computer prevent?

A

1) Stall
2) Descent
3) Overspeed

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23
Q

Once the stick shaker is initiated, what signal does it send to the HSCU?

A

Inhibit nose up trim (Horizontal Stabilizer Control Unit)

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24
Q

What are the PLI (Pitch Limiting Indicator) ranges?

A 
Green = 5 to 10 degrees
Amber = 2 to 5 deg
Red = 0 to 2 deg
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25
Q

What is TOCWAS?

A

Takeoff configuration warning system

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26
Q

What does TOCWAS look for?

A

Flaps set, trim set, brakes released, spoilers closed. “Takeoff OK” aural message.

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27
Q

What make and model is the engine?

A

Rolls Royce AE3007A1

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28
Q

What’s the thrust rating for this engine?

A

7,426 lbs up to ISA + 30 deg C

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29
Q

What type of engine is this?

A

High 5:1 bypass ratio 2 spool axial flow Turbofan

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30
Q

What drives the AGB (Accessory Gear Box)?

A

Tower shaft from the N2 high pressure turbine shaft

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31
Q

What are the 3 main components of the Fuel system?

A

FPMU - Fuel Pump Metering Unit
FCOC - Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler
CVG - Compressor Variable Geometry

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32
Q

When the engine Start/Stop selector switch is turned to Stop, where does it turn off the fuel pump?

A

At the engine

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33
Q

What fuel pump does the FPMU shaft drive?

A

Both the centrifugal pump and the gear pump.

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34
Q

What does the FCOC do?

A

It cools the engine oil and warms the fuel.

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35
Q

When is oil bypassed from the FCOC?

A

When fuel is above 93 deg C or oil pressure is above 50 psi

36
Q

What are the 2 purpose of the CVG?

A

Maximize engine performance and reduce the likelihood of a compressor stall

37
Q

What does the CABV (Compressor Acceleration Bleed Valve) do?

A

Bleeds 9th stage air to assist in engine starting by relieving internal pressure in the compressor. Makes it easier to turn.

38
Q

In what stage of high pressure air in the compressor does the pressurization and airconditioning get from?

A

9th and 14th stage

39
Q

What stage of compressor does bleed air come from?

A

14th stage

40
Q

When is the 14th stage bleed valve open?

A

1) at low thrust
2) anti-icing is required
3) cross bleed starts

41
Q

What is the primary electrical supply for the igniters? What is the secondary?

A

PMA is primary

Generators are secondary

42
Q

At what percent of N2 can the igniters get power from PMA?

A

10%

43
Q

At what percent N2 can the FADEC get power from PMA?

A

50%

44
Q

Prior to 50% N2, where does the FADECs get its power?

A

Batteries

45
Q

What is the backup electrical source for the thrust levers and the thrust ratings buttons?

A

PMA

46
Q

What are the steps for a “crossbleed” start?

A

1) Operating engine bleed valve open
2) Starting engine bleed valve closed
3) Crossbleed - AUTO or OPEN
4) Operating engine >80% N2

47
Q

Cold WX start steps?

A

OAT <= 10 deg C and engine cold
Ignition - ON
Start/Stop - Start, then run

48
Q

If cold WX start fails?

A

Memory item
Abnormal Start checklist
Try 2nd start

49
Q

If 2nd start fails?

A

Memory items

Write it up

50
Q

What are the reasons to abort an engine start?

A

1) Fuel flow > 800 lbs/hr prior to light up
2) No light up 10 secs after fuel fuel start
3) ITT approaches start limit of 800 or more
4) N2 remains steady or decreases >30 secs
5) Unusual noise or vibration
6) Engine instrument indicates abnormal conditions
7) Visible burning out of the exhaust
8) Oil pressure < 34 psi after start has completed

51
Q

Where is ITT (Interturbine Temperature) measured from?

A

Thermocouple inside the 1st stage of the Low Pressure turbine stator vane

52
Q

What happens when you press the T/O thrust rating button on the pedestal?

A

Sets the ATTCS to T/O-1 mode

53
Q

When do you perform dry motoring?

A

At least 30 secs after any aborted engine start.

54
Q

What does dry motoring do?

A

Assures there is no unburned fuel in the combustion chamber and reduces the residual ITT before the next start attempt

55
Q

When you abort a start, what checklist do you use?

A

Abnormal Engine Start checklist, followed by the Dry Motoring checklist and proceed as indicated on the QRH

56
Q

How many locking mechanisms does the thrust reverser have?

A

3

57
Q

How are the t/r locking mechanisms commanded/actuated?

A

1st and 2nd are electrically/hydraulically

3rd electrically/mechanically

58
Q

How do the locks hold the t/r?

A

Locks hold the t/r in the stowed position. If the 1st lock fails, the 2nd lock takes over. If the 2nd lock fails then the 3rd lock takes over.

59
Q

When can thrust reversers be deployed?

A

Main wheels on the ground and the wheel speed >25 kts

Nose gear on the ground and thrust lever on idle.

60
Q

What separates the APU from the main aircraft?

A

Titanium firewall

61
Q

How is the APU cooled?

A

NACA vents ducts air on the left side, ducted through the starter generator and exhaust through the right side.

62
Q

Which wing tank does the APU gets its fuel?

A

Right wing fuel tank

63
Q

How do you place the APU in “ground safe” mode?

A 
Batteries - OFF
Emergency lights - OFF
APU bleed - OFF
APU generator - ON
Parking brake - Set
64
Q

If all 3 fuel pumps fail, how does the engine get its fuel supply?

A

Suction line sucks fuel from tank via the FPMU. Limited up to 25,000 feet only.

65
Q

If all 3 fuel pumps are working, what other pump supplies the engine?

A

Ejector pump

66
Q

What keeps the collector box immersed in fuel?

A

Ejector suction pump routes fuel from the collector box and back to collector box with a venturi

67
Q

What electrical bus do each of the fuel pump A B and C get its power from?

A

Pump A - onside Essential
Pump B - cross side Essential
Pump C - onside DC

68
Q

What is the only way to shut off the engine fuel shutoff valve?

A

Pulling the engine fire extinguisher T-handle down.

69
Q

What electric bus powers the pressurized refueling valve?

A

Hot bus 1

70
Q

What does the Lead-Acid battery power?

A

Backup power for the EDL and the Generator Control Unit (Generator contactor).

71
Q

Why do generators have 28V and batteries only have 24V?

A

To allow for charging the batteries.

72
Q

How many volts and amps does the GPU have?

A

28.5 volts/1600 amps

73
Q

When the GPU is connected, which electrical system does the EDL give priority to?

A

Gives GPU priority over any other electrical power supply. Neither generators nor batteries can operate in parallel to GPU.

74
Q

Can the batteries be charged by the GPU?

A

No

75
Q

What battery is used to start the APU?

A

Battery # 2. Battery 1 is isolated.

76
Q

Other than the Hot Bus 1, what does Battery 1 power?

A

Backup Essential Bus.

77
Q

What does the Backup Essential Bus power?

A

AHRS1, DAU 1 & 2, EICAS

78
Q

What powers AHRS2?

A

Backup Bus 2

79
Q

At what engine speed will the generators come online?

A

56.4% N2

80
Q

What’s EDL logic for generators in the air?

A

4 or 5 gens = 2 electrical networks and all services
3 gens = 1 electrical network and all services
1 or 2 gens = 1 electrical network and NO Shed busses
No gens = batteries supply Essential Busses

81
Q

Why do you get 40 mins in the air of electrical power, but only 12 mins on the ground?

A

In the air, only EICAS, RMUs and ISIS are powered. On the ground all other displays are powered.

82
Q

Why do you have to press the red guarded button for Essential power?

A

EDL should automatically switch the batteries to connect to Essential Bus. But just in case it does not, then pressing the red guarded button assures connection.

83
Q

How many proximity switches does the landing gears have?

A

5 = 2 on each main gear and 1 in nose gear

84
Q

What is the nose proximity switch used for?

A

Only for signal to nosewheel steering and thrust reverser that they can be used.

85
Q

What holds the main landing gear up? Down?

A

J hooks for up and over center springs for down

86
Q

What are the 3 types of landing gear warning and which warning can be cancelled?

A

1) Radio altitude <1200’, flap 0 or 9 and low TLA. If RA fails, warning comes out when TLA low and gears are not down and locked. Warning can be cancelled.
2) Radio altitude <1200’, flap 22 and low TLA. If RA is inop, warning comes out when TLA is low and gear not down and locked. Warning cannot be cancelled
3) Flaps @ 45. Warning cannot be cancelled.

87
Q

How do you cancel the LG warning?

A

LG WRN Cutout button on the center pedestal

Embraer 145 oral flashcards (5 decks)

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