Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Peds/OB > PEDS exam 4 > Flashcards

PEDS exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Ambylopia

A

lazy eye
poor visual development that leads to reduced visual acuity in one eye or blindness in one or both eyes if not corrected
-can be caused by strabismus, trauma, cataracts, ptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

strabismus

A

misalignment of eyes where eye either turn inward (estropia) or outward (exotropia)
causes diplopia and asymmetric corneal light reflex
patch or surgery to correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness
Sees distant clearly, not objects that are close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness
-close objects clearly, distant objects not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How far away is the child from the snellen or tumbling E chart for a vision test?

A

10 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How to conduct vision test on a child

A

10 ft away
-start at bottom first until they pass (4/6)
-then start at top and move down until they do not pass the line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vision test-misalignment

A

Cover test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Color vision test

A

Ishihara

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The three vision test

A

Cover test
Peripheral vision test
Color vision test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ambylopia- therapeutic management

A

-eye patch (over strong eye to encourage brain to use weaker one)
-corrective lenses(encourage)
-atropine eye drops (dilate strong eye to encourage more use of weak eye)
-surgery
-eye exams more frequent due to developing eye monitor for signs visual changes (HA, squinting, dizziness, constant removal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hearing loss types

A

conductive, sensorineural, mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hearing loss signs by age

A

infant-no startle to noises
young child- communicates needs through gestures
older child-often asks for statement to be repeated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Etiology of hearing loss types-conductive

A

transmission of sound through middle ear disrupted (i.e. frequent infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Etiology of hearing loss types-sensorineural

A

damage to hair cells in cochlea or along auditory pathway (i.e. ototoxic med, meningitis, CMV, rubella, excessive noise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Etiology of hearing loss types-mixed

A

attributed to both conductive and sensorineural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infantile glaucoma

A

autosomal recessive disorder
-vision loss result of retinal scarring and optic nerve damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Patho infantile glaucoma

A

obstruction of aqueous humor flow and high intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Assessment findings infantile glaucoma

A

infant keeping eyes closed most of time, frequent eye rubbing, spasmodic winking, corneal clouding, enlargement of eyeball, excessive tearing or conjunctivitis
-red reflex may appear gray or green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of infantile glaucoma

A

surgical intervention first line management in children
-pre-op=prepare parents 3-4 surgeries
-protection of surgical site postop=critical
-maintain eye patch and bedrest, provide distraction and activities
-elbow restraints for infants and toddlers
-teach parents how to administer eye medications
-no rough housing or horseplay for two weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Congenital cataracts patho

A

opacity of optic lens preventing light from entering eye- severe ambylopia if not treated
-leading cause of blindness and visual impairment in children
-best outcomes when removed before 3 mo age can be done as early as 2 weeks of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Congenital cataracts assessment findings

A
  • Bilateral can be associated with genetic defects or metabolic syndromes
    -cloudy cornea, absent red reflex in affected eye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Congenital cataracts management

A

implantable lens placed or fitted with contact lens
-postop eye patching normal eye after surgical eye healed to strengthen vision
-elbow restraints for infants
-teach fam to administer abx and steroid drops
-sunglasses needed when outside to protect against UV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nursing care of children with visual impairment

A

Promote optimal development, Independence, parent-child attachment
-refer to educational services
-promote corrective lense use
-encourage compliance with eye exams and screenings
Education: safety hazards, eye injury prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tips for interacting with visually impaired child

A

Childs name to gain attention and identify presence FIRST BEFORE touching child
-discuss upcoming activities, walk them through it
-use their body parts as reference points for location of items
-simple specific directions
-name and describe people/objects to make child more aware of what is happening
-encourage exploration of objects through touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Educational resources referral

A

Younger than 3=early intervention
Older than 3= individualized care plan (IEP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

acute otitis media

A

infection of middle ear structures bacterial (strep pneumoniae) or viral (RSV, influenza)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acute otitis media physical findings

A

rubbing/pulling on ear
Crying,irritability, fussiness, reports ear pain
Fever (low to 104)
TM dull, red, bulging, opaque
Purulent drainage may be visible behind eardrum or in canal if TM ruptured
Lymphadenopathy
Poor feeding
Difficulty sleeping, crying during night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

acute otitis media S/S

A

fever, ear pulling, irritability, poor feeding, lymphadenopathy; TM dull, red, bulging w/ dec or no movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

acute otitis media tx

A

amoxicillin/augmentin or azithromycin- PO or ceftriazone IM (1 dose)
-tylenol/ibuprofen to manage ear pain (otalgia) and fever
-benzocain drops for pain if TM intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Otitis media acute with effusion patho

A

collection of fluid in middle ear w/ NO infection r/t allergies or Ig adenoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Otitis media acute with effusion assessment findings

A

TM=dull. orange discoloration, air bubbles, dec movement
S/S= feeling of fullness, transient hearing loss possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Otitis media acute with effusion management

A

tx: resolves on own
i fpersist: >3 mo, refer to ENT and assess for hearing loss or speech delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tympanostomy management

A

Surgical procedure where ear tubes are placed in eardrum to treat middle ear issues, equalize pressure and minimize fluid collection; long-term relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Myringotomy management

A

small incision on TM and placement of PE tubes can be indicated for child who has multiple episodes of OM; short-term relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tympanosotmy discharge teaching

A

teach ear drop administration
Ear plugs recommended when swimming, if water enters ear, allow it to drain out
Notify provider if drainage noted with PE tubes
Tubes remain in place for several months usually fall out spontaneously (~8-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Proper ear drop administration

A

<3yrs=pinna down and back
>3yrs=pinna up and back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Types of skin lesions

A

Macule,papule, plaque/annular, vesicle, pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Macule

A

circular, flat discoloration <1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

papule

A

superficial, solid, elevated <0.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Plaque/annular

A

ring-like with central clearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Vesicle

A

circular collection of free fluid <1 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pustule

A

vesicle containing pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Skin injury types

A

abrasions, lacerations, bites, bruises, burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Abrasion

A

superficial rub or wearing off of skin due to friction mainly limited to epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Laceration

A

injury that penetrates skin and soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bites

A

human or animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Burns

A

major cause of accidental death in children <15 yrs old
-most common types= thermal, chemical, electrical
-hot water heater temp >140 can cause a 3rd degree burn in 15 sec
-younger children=deeper injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Risk factors for skin injury types

A

Poverty, prematurity (<1 yr), chronic illness, intellectual disability, parent with abuse history,alcohol/substance abuse, extreme stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Suspicious cues for skin injuries

A

injuries uncommon locations
-bruises in infants <9 months
-multiple injuries other than LEs
-frequent ED visits, delay in seeking care
-inconsistent stories
-unusual caregiver-child interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sun safety pt education and sunscreen

A

infants <6 months out of direct sunlight, minimal sunscreen use
-hats, sun shirts
-limit sun exposure between 10am-4pm
-broad spectrum (screens out UVA and UVB)
-fragrance and oxybenzone free
-SPF 15 or higher, zinc oxide products for nose cheeks ears shoulders
-apply 30 in prior to sun activity, reapply at least every two hours or every 60-80 min while in water (resistant or not)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Burn assessments

A

Primary and secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Primary burn assessment

A

airway- patent, maintainable,
Unmaintainable?
Assess for signs of airway injury or smoke inhalation
Resp effort, symmetry of breathing, breath sounds, pulse ox, ABG, carboxyhemoglobin
-skin color pulse strength, HR, perfusion status, edema, ECG if electrical burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Secondary burn assessments

A

burn depth
Body surface area
Other traumatic injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Burn staging

A

severity depends on child’s age, causative agent, body area involved and temp and duration of contact
-minor
-moderate
-major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Minor burns

A

<10% TBSA, treated outpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Moderate burns

A

10-20% of TBSA treated in hospital with expertise in burn care

57
Q

Major burns

A

> 20% TBSA requires medical services of burn center

58
Q

Priorities of care for burns

A

airway, manage complications, prevent hypothermia, wound care, prevent infection, managing pain, providing nutritional and psychological support, restore mobility

59
Q

Nursing actions for burns- Minor

A

minor: stop burning process, cover to prevent contamination, cleanse with mild soap and tepid water, apply antimicrobial ointment and apply non adherent dressing, pain management
Burn prevention education

60
Q

Nursing actions for burns-Major

A

airway: airway edema continues for up to two days after burn
Humidified 100% O2 as Rx
Emergency airway mngmt sooner than later, anticipate intubation (100% O2 via NRB or ambulance, intubation for infants)
Complications: inhalation injury (thermal or carbon monoxide), pulmonary problems

61
Q

Atopic dermatitis (eczema) physical cues

A

Extreme itching to allergen or environmental factors (temp change, sweating)
-dry, scaly pruritus, erythematous patches on flexural surfaces lesions (face, scalp, wrists or arms, antecubital, popliteal areas)
-indicators of secondary infection
-elevated IgE
-presence of wheezing (asthma common)

62
Q

Atopic dermatitis (eczema) Diagnostic cues

A

elevated IgE levels

63
Q

Atopic dermatitis (eczema) Management

A

topical corticosteroids and immune modulators-tacrolimus

64
Q

Atopic dermatitis (eczema) Pt education

A

-avoid hot water and bathe 2X/day in warm water
-Avoid soaps containing perfumes, dyes, or fragrances
-pat skin dry and leave moist while apply moisturizers multiple times daily
-100% cotton clothing and bed linens, avoiding synthetics and wool
-keep fingernails short
-antihistamines assist with itching

65
Q

Diaper dermatitis physical cues

A

inflammatory hypersensitive rxn by detergents, soaps, chemicals
+Non-candida- red, shiny

66
Q

Diaper dermatitis therapeutic management

A

Keep the skin dry, barrier creams- zinc oxide

67
Q

Acne

A
68
Q

Acne-Hx and physical cues

A

fam Hx

69
Q

Acne- med management

A
70
Q

Acne- pt education

A
71
Q

Hx cues of immunodeficiency

A
72
Q

Lab cues of immunodeficiency

A
73
Q

Immunoglobulin (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE) characteristics

A

igG-only one that crosses placental barrier, virus toxins and bacteria, through breast milk lack=severe immunodeficiency (baby produces to-1yr)
IgE-allergic rxns (eczema) and parasitic
IgM-bacterial infections , primary immune response(meningitis)
IgA-first line of defense against resp GI Gu patho, production-at 3 mo

74
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) patho

A

Lack IgA and IgM
Absent B and T cells, no immune function
“Bubble boy”-protection isolation

75
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) Assessment findings

A
76
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) Diagnostic findings

A
77
Q

HIV in children- physical findings

A
78
Q

HIV in children-Diagnostic labs

A

18 mo<= positive ELISA and Western Blot
>18mo= positive pCR and viral culture

79
Q

HIV in children- Priority of care

A

Management of condition
Nutrition, weight, height

80
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis-patho

A

systemic inflammation in synovial joints
Fever

81
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis-assessment findings

A

morning stifnesss
Fussy
Not wanting to get out of bed

82
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis- diagnostic findings

A
83
Q

Latex allergy

A
84
Q

Latex allergy-cross sensitivity

A
85
Q

Latex allergy- clinical manifestations

A
86
Q

Latex allergy- nursing care and interventions

A
87
Q

Allergic and anaphylaxis reactions

A
88
Q

Allergic and anaphylaxis reactions-physical cues

A
89
Q

Allergic and anaphylaxis reactions-management

A
90
Q

Rubeola

A

Aka measles

91
Q

Rubeola Patho

A

virus

92
Q

Rubeola(measles) assessment findings

A

Koplik spots-oral mucosa grains of sand
Rash at top and moves down body
Cough
Maculopapular rash
Malaise
Nasal inflammation, conjunctivitis
Complications=pneumnia and encephalitis

93
Q

Rubeola(measles) nursing care

A

vitamin A 6mo-2yr
Airborne precautions
Post-exposure vaccination after 72 hrs or immune globulin IgE within 6 days may reduce severity

94
Q

Pertussis-physical findings

A

swelling and irritation of airways
Paroxysmal coughing(10-30 times in a row)
Cyanosis
Protruding tongue
Red face
Tearing eyes, drooling, copious secretions

95
Q

Pertussis

A

”whooping cough”

96
Q

Pertussis therapeutic management

A

bacterial, azithromycin if <1 mo
TMP-SMZ=alternative to macro life’s
DTaP vaccine <7
High humidity environment
Droplet/standard precautions

97
Q

Treating fever in children-clinical manifestations

A

dehydration
Dec oral intake of fluids
Above

98
Q

Treating fever in children- nursing care and interventions

A

-Assess temp 30-60 min after antipyretic given
-Same temp device and site for measurement
-Assess fluid intake and encourage oral intake.
-Admin IVF per order
Acetaminophen(any age) and ibuprofen(>6mo)

99
Q

Lyme disease

A

Vector borne disease-tick bite

100
Q

Lyme disease-physical findings

A

malaise fever chills
Neck stiffness
Joint pain
Erythema migrans at tick bite
Itchy nodule, firm, urticaria or localized edema, progresses stages 1-3 to more systemic involvement

101
Q

Lyme disease- therapeutic management

A

Doxycycline if >8yrs, amoxicillin if <8yrs
Tx for 14-28 days

102
Q

Lyme disease- nursing management

A
103
Q

Pediculosis capitis

A

Head lice

104
Q

Pediculosis capitis- physical cues

A

excessive itching
Nits
Eggs
Small red bumps on scalp, white specks attached to hair shaft
Nits or lice seen behind ears or at nape of neck

105
Q

Pediculosis capitis-Management

A

follow head lice treatment directions exactly -Permethrin, neurotoxic
Comb every 2-3 days
Gowns, gloves-direct contact transmission-contact precautions
Soak combs and brushes in hot water, dry cleaning/sealing in plastic bags

106
Q

Types of precautions and indications for infections

A

Contact-transmitted when in close proximity w/pts and environment(head lice)
Droplet-large droplets by coughing, sneezing, talking(pertussis)
Airborne-infectious pathogens that remain suspended in air and can travel great distance-N95 (rubeola aka measles)

107
Q

Leukemia- ALL

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Over-production of immature leukoblast cells (WBC) with infiltration of organs and tissues

108
Q

Leukemia-ALL history/physical cues

A

low-grade fever
Signs of infection
Pallor
Bruising/petechiae/purpora
Leg pain
Joint pain
Enlarged liver/lymph nodes
HA
N/V
Abd pain

109
Q

Leukemia-ALL lab cues

A

neutropenia
Anemia - H&H low, RBCs low
Platelets low
Blood smear shows blasts
BMA=most definitive, diagnostic

110
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma patho

A

Cancer cells in lymph fluids and nodes
Uncontrolled proliferation
Presence of reed sternburg cells
Cytokines release

111
Q

Lymphoma history and physical cues

A

-Hx immnodificiency
Infections
-Epstein Barr virus
-Fam Hx lymphoma
-Unintentional weight loss
-Night sweats
-Fever
-Cough
-SOB
-Pruritus
Splenomegaly/hepatomegaly
-Painless , enlarged supraclavicular or cervical lymph nodes (sentinel nodes)

112
Q

Lymphoma lab cues

A

hodgkin’s=reed sternburg cells

113
Q

Brain tumors pre-op priorities of care

A

monitor for inc ICP
Steroids dec ICP swelling
Pre-op teaching and emotional support

114
Q

Brain tumors post-op priorities of care

A

-monitor for inc ICP
-Frequent VS w pupil and LOC checks
-Tx for hyperthermia w antipyretics
-Pain mngmt
-Position on unaffected side at level ordered
-JP drain monitor
-Keep head midline

115
Q

Wilm’s tumor (Nephroblastoma)

A

renal mass

116
Q

Wilm’s tumor (Nephroblastoma)- assessment cues

A

-Abdominal assymmetry
-Vomiting
-Weight loss
-Renal mass ultrasound
-Hematuria
-Firm non tender abdominal swelling and mass
-HTN

117
Q

Wilm’s tumor (Nephroblastoma) Lab cues

A

-Ultrasound
-CT or MRI
-CBC (anemia-kidneys produce erythropoetin)
-UA (may potive for WBCs or RBCs)
-24 hr urine neg for homovanillic acid(HVA) and vanillylmandelic acid(VMA)

118
Q

Bone marrow aspirate procedure

A

-Prone position
-Iliac crest=bone of choice
-Tibia in infant
-BM procedure tray/needle
-Topical anesthetic and conscious sedation (fentanyl/versed)
Explain procedure, comfort, infection prevention

119
Q

Bone marrow aspirate monitoring

A

LOC, pain
Hold pressure prevent bleeding monitor for bleeding and prevent infection and monitor

120
Q

Neutropenia precautions

A

avoid raw fruits and veggies
No flowers
Limit visitors
Private room
Hand hygiene
Avoid rectal temps and catheters and invasive procedures

121
Q

Common cancer tx-chemo and a/e

A

anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Infection/immunosuppressed (ANC<1,000=neutropenia)
N/V/anorexia

122
Q

Common cancer tx-radiation therapy

A

complication- skin irritation/burns/altered integrity
Teach: wash with mild soap and water
-Avoid lotions/powders/ointments
-Avoid sun or heat exposure
-Diphenhydramine or hydro cortisone for itching
-Antimicrobial cream to desquamation
-mositurize with aloe vera

123
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

Not enough RBC and Hbg and Hct
-Not enough oxygen carrying capacity

124
Q

Iron deficiency anemia- assessment

A

Irritability
HA
Unsteady gait, weakness, fatigue
Dizziness
SOB
Pallor in skin and MM and conjunctiva
Difficulty feeding
Pica
Spooning of Nails

125
Q

Iron deficiency anemia- diagnostic findings

A

low RBC, H&H, MCV, MCH, ferritin
Red cell distribution width high

126
Q

Iron deficiency anemia- management

A

-iron supplement for BF infant by 4-5 mo(behind teeth to avoid staining), cause constipation, give with OJ or acidic things , causes dark green stools
-Iron fortified formula
-BF mothers inc iron in diet
-Limit cows milk in children >1yr to 24/oz day
-Encourage iron rich foods

127
Q

Hemophilia

A

deficiency of factor VIII—> essential to activate factor X—>converts prothrombin to thrombin-without it-PLTs cannot make clots

128
Q

Hemophilia physical findings

A

Swollen or stiff joints (Hemarthrosis)
Multiple bruises
Hematuria
Bleeding gums
Bloody sputum or emesis
Black tarry stools
Chest or abd pain (internal bleeding)

129
Q

Hemophilia labs

A

PTT is only thing abnormal(factor 8 here)
PT and PLT are normal
H&H may be low if bleeding going

130
Q

Hemophilia management of bleeding episodes

A

Give factor 8- slow IV push
RICE
Desmopressin-mild, trigger endothelium of blood vessels to release factor 8

131
Q

Sickle cell

A

causes ischemia and infarction

132
Q

Sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis

A

exacerbation

133
Q

Sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis assessment findings

A
134
Q

Sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis- labs

A
135
Q

Sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis-management

A
136
Q

Lead poisoning risk factors

A
137
Q

Lead poisoning physical and lab cues

A
138
Q

Lead poisoning chelation therapy

A

Peds/OB (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions