Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3rd year/clinical > pediatric shelf > Flashcards

pediatric shelf Flashcards

1
Q

normal respiratory rate for infant less than 1 year

A

30-53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

normal respiratory rate for toddler (1-2 years)

A

22-37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

normal respiratory rate for preschool (3-5)

A

20-28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

normal respiratory rate for 6-11 years

A

18-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

normal respiratory rate for adolescent (12-15)

A

12-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

normal HR for neonate

A

100-205

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

normal HR for infant (1 mo- 1 year)

A

100-190

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

normal HR for toddler (1-2)

A

98-140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

normal HR for preschool (3-5)

A

80-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

normal HR for school age (6-11)

A

75-118

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

normal HR for adolescent (12-15)

A

60-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

normal blood pressure for birth (12h, less than 1000g)

A

39-59/16-36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

normal blood pressure for birth (12h, 3kg)

A

60-76/ 31-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

normal blood pressure for neonate (96h)

A

67-84/ 35-53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

normal blood pressure for infant (1-12mo)

A

72-104/ 37-56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal blood pressure for toddler (1-2year)

A

86-106/ 42-63

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

normal blood pressure for preschooler (3-5)

A

89-112/ 46-72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

normal blood pressure for school age (5-9)

A

97-115/ 57-76

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

normal blood pressure for preadolescent (10-11)

A

102-120/ 61-80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

normal blood pressure for adolescent (12-15)

A

110-131/ 64-83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what TORCHES infection is associated with chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what TORCHES infection is associated with cataracts, deafness, and PDA

A

rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what TORCHES infection is associated with hearing loss, seizures, petechial rash, blueberry muffin rash, periventricular calcifications (also hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice)

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what TORCHES infection is associated with recurrent infections and chronic diarrhea

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what TORCHES infection is associated with meningoencephalitis and vesicular lesions

A

HSV II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what TORCHES infection is associated with notched teeth, saddle nose, short maxilla, sober shins, CN VIII deafness, thrombocytopenia

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

classic tetrad associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A

lower extremity palpable purpura, LE arthralgia, abdominal pain/intussusception, renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the most common serious complication associated with mumps

A

aseptic meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the initial fluid of choice for initial resuscitation in severe hypovolemic hypernatremia

A

Isotonic solutions such as normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the clinical features of iron poisoning within 30 minutes to 4 days

A

Abdominal pain, vomiting (hematemesis), diarrhea (melena), hypotensive shock, metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the diagnostic findings associated with iron poisoning

A

Anion gap metabolic acidosis, radiopaque pills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most common presentation of WILMS tumor

A

Asymptomatic abdominal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the clinical features associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Preceding bloody diarrhea, fatigue/pallor, bruising/petechiae, oliguria/edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the risk factors for a neonatal displaced clavicular fracture

A

Fetal macrosomia, instrumental delivery, shoulder dystocia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does herpes simplex keratitis present

A

Pain, photophobia, decreased vision; vesiculo-ulcerative lesions are commonly present in the corneal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the clinical features of scarlet fever

A

Fever and pharyngitis, tonsillar erythema and exudates, strawberry tongue, tender anterior cervical nodes, sandpaper rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the term for transient hemiplegia following a seizure

A

Todd paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the major clinical features associated with acute rheumatic fever

A

JONES- Joints (migratory arthritis), Carditis, Nodules (subcutaneous), erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the characteristic murmur associated with mitral valve prolapse

A

Midsystolic clic with a late systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some complications associated with acute otitis media

A

Conductive hearing loss, mastoiditis, meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are two common causes of BILATERAL acute cervical adenitis in kids

A

Adenovirus, EBV/CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are some clinical findings specific for congenital infection with syphilis

A

Rhinorrhea, abnormal long-bone radiographs, desquamating or bullous rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the first line treatment for scabies

A

Topical 5% permethrin or oral ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the major characteristics of Kawasaki disease

A

Fever greater than 5 days duration, mucous membrane changes, extremity changes, nonexudative conjunctivitis, cervical LN greater than 1.5 cm, and a polymorphous rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is McCune-Albright syndrome characterized by

A

Peripheral precocious puberty, irregular cafe-au-lait macules, and fibrous dysplasia of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the first line treatment for tinea Corporis (ringworm)

A

Topical antifungals (clotrimazole, terbinafine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the characteristic finding with a vascular ring

A

Presents in infants with a biphasic strider that improves with neck extension

48
Q

How do medulloblastomas typically clinically present

A

Vomiting, headache and ataxia

49
Q

What is the primary medication for preeclampsia treatment

A

Magnesium sulfate

50
Q

How does necrotizing enterocolitis typically present

A

Abdominal distension, bloody stools and vital sign instability in premature infants

51
Q

What are some contraindications to receiving the rotavirus vaccine

A

Anaphylaxis to vaccine ingredients, Hx of intussusception, hx of uncorrected congenital malformation of the GI tract, SCID

52
Q

What treatment is recommended for strawberry hemangiomas that are complicated

A

Beta blockers

53
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteral reflux made by

A

Voiding cystourethrogram

54
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic renal insuffficiency/failure in kids

A

Posterior urethral valves

55
Q

What is the first and second step for evaluation of primary amenorrhea

A

First is to get pelvic US to determine the presence/absence of a uterus; second step is to obtain an FSH level (distinguishes between central and peripheral causes of amenorrhea)

56
Q

What is becks triad and what is it assocaited with

A

Progression to tamponade: distant heart sounds, distended jugular veins, and hypotension

57
Q

What is the first line treatment for whooping cough

A

Macrolides

58
Q

What is the classic clinical presentation associated with hereditary spherocytosis

A

Hemolytic anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly

59
Q

What are complications associated with Kawasaki disease

A

Coronary artery aneurysms; Myocardial infarction and ischemia

60
Q

What is seen on chest X-ray with transient tachypnea of the newborn

A

Bilateral perihilar linear streaking

61
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Fanconi anemia

A

Short stature, hypo/hyperpigmented macules, abnormal thumbs, GU malformations

62
Q

What are the lab findings associated with Fanconi anemia

A

Pancytopenia, positive chromosomal breakage testing

63
Q

What are the things included in CHARGE syndrome

A

Coloboma, heart defects, atresia choanae, retardation of growth/development, GU anomalies, and ear abnormalities/deafness

64
Q

How does perianal streptococcus present on examination

A

Bright, sharply demarcated erythema over perianal/perineal area

65
Q

What are the clinical features associated with BREASTFEEDING jaundice

A

Suboptimal breastfeeding, signs of dehydration

66
Q

What are the clinical features of BREAST MILK jaundice

A

Adequate breastfeeding, normal exam

67
Q

What is the treatment of breastfeeding jaundice in otherwise healthy, full-term newborns

A

Increase the frequency and duration of feeds

68
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Diamond-Blackman anemia

A

Craniofacial abnormalities, triphalangeal thumbs, increased risk of malignancy

69
Q

What are the lab findings with diamond-blackfan anemia

A

Macrocytic anemia, reticulocytopenia, normal platelets/WBC

70
Q

What is the characteristic murmur associated with VSD

A

Holosystolic at the left lower sternal border

71
Q

What are the classic manifestations of serum sickness

A

Fever, urticaria, and polyarthralgia with no mucosal involvement after admin of beta lactams or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

72
Q

What are some distinguishing features of homocystinuria when compared to Marfan syndrome

A

AR, intellectual disability, thrombosis, downward lens dislocation, megaloblastic anemia, fair complexion

73
Q

common antibiotics given for outpatient pneumonia

A

doxy, azithromycin, moxifloxacin

74
Q

common antibiotics given for neutropenic fever

A

4th generation cephalosporin (cefepime), carbapenems

75
Q

common antibiotics for cellulitis

A

cefazolin, bacterium, clindamycin, IV vanco

76
Q

what vaccines are given at 2 months and 4 months

A

Rota, DTap, HIB, PCV, IPV

77
Q

what vaccines are given at 6 months

A

Hep B number3; number 3 for Rota, DTap, HIB, PCV

78
Q

what vaccines are given at 12 months

A

PCV number 4; number 1 varicella and Hep A

79
Q

what vaccines are given at 15 months

A

Tap number 4, HIB number 4, IPV number 3, MMR number 1

80
Q

what vaccine is given at 18 months

A

Hep A number 2

81
Q

what vaccine is given at 4-5 years

A

Dtap number 5, IPV number 4, MMR number 2, varicella number 2

82
Q

when is Meningitis number 1 and 2 given

A

11-12 years and 16-18 years

83
Q

What are the most common sites of osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) associated with sickle cell disease

A

Humeral and femoral heads

84
Q

What diagnostic testing can confirm adenovirus infection

A

PCR testing

85
Q

What is the diagnosis associated with inspiratory stridor that worsens when supine and peaks at age 4-8 months

A

Laryngomalacia

86
Q

What is the clinical diagnosis associated with limited upward gaze, upper eyelid retraction (collier sign), and pupils that are non-reactive to light but reactive to accomodation

A

Parinaud syndrome (dorsal midbrain syndrome)

87
Q

What are the examination and X-ray findings associated with transposition of the great vessels

A

Singles S2 and possible VSD murmur; Egg on a string heart (narrow mediastinum)

88
Q

What are the exam and x-ray findings associated with tetralogy of fallot

A

Harsh pulmonic stenosis murmur and VSD murmur; boot shaped heart (right-sided ventricular hypertrophy)

89
Q

What are the exam and x-ray findings associated with tricuspid atresia

A

Single S2 and VSD murmur; minimal pulmonary blood flow

90
Q

What are the exam and x-ray findings associated with truncus arteriosus

A

Single S2, systolic ejection murmur (increased flow through truncal valve); increased pulmonary blood flow, edema

91
Q

What are the exam and x-ray findings associated with total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction

A

Severe cyanosis and respiratory distress; pulmonary edema, snowman sign (enlarged supracardiac veins and SVC)

92
Q

What is the procedure of choice for diagnosis and treatment of intussusception

A

Ultrasound guided air contract enema

93
Q

What are the diagnostic tests to confirm Chronic granulomatous disease

A

Dihydrorhodamine 123 test or nitro blue tetrazolium test

94
Q

What diagnosis should be expected in a cyanotic infant with left axis deviation and small or absent R waves in the precordial leads

A

Tricuspid valve atresia

95
Q

What may physical exam reveal as leg calve perthes disease progresses

A

Limited internal rotation and abduction of the hip

96
Q

What is the treatment for mild and moderate/severe croup

A

Mild treatment with humidified air plus/minus corticosteroids; for moderate/severe treat eight corticosteroids and nebulized epinephrine

97
Q

How does midgut volvulus typically present

A

In a neonate with bilious vomiting

98
Q

What are common laboratory findings with juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Elevated inflammatory markers, hyperferritinemia, hypergammaglobulinemia, thrombocytosis, anemia

99
Q

What is the most common cause of death in freidrich ataxia

A

Cardiac dysfunction related to cardiomyopathy

100
Q

What immunodeficiency should you think of when there is recurrent skin and mucosal bacterial infections and no pus as well as poor wound healing

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

101
Q

What is the treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

Methylene blue

102
Q

How does ASD typically present

A

Fixed, split S2 and/Or systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border

103
Q

What infections are common with CGD

A

Catalase positive pathogens (staphylococcus aureus, serratia, Burkholderia, aspergillus)

104
Q

What are some complications (risks) associated with infants that are small for gestational age

A

Hypoxia, perinatal asphyxia, meconium aspiratio, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemaia, polycythemia

105
Q

What is the treatment of choice for enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

A

Pyrantel pamoate or albendazole

106
Q

What is deficient in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Impaired cytoskeletal changes in leukocytes, platelets

107
Q

What is the most common complication associated with sickle cell trait

A

Hematuria

108
Q

What two comorbidities are common with Tourette syndrome

A

ADHD and OCD

109
Q

What are the lab findings with Reye’s syndrome

A

Elevated transaminases, coagulopathy (prolonged PT, INR, PTT) and hyperammonemia

110
Q

What are some common complications of prematurity

A

RDS, PDA, bronchopulmonary dysplasia, intraventricular hemorrhage, necrotizing entercolitis, retinopathy of prematurity

111
Q

What is the classic triad associated with biliary cysts

A

Pain, jaundice, and palpable mass

112
Q

What is the antidote for TCA or aspirin overdose

A

Sodium bicarbonate

113
Q

What is the treatment (first line) for Tourette syndrome

A

Behavioral therapy followed by antidopaminergic agents (tetrabenazine, antipsychotics) and alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonists

114
Q

What maneuver is likely to increase the intensity of a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Valsalva maneuver

115
Q

What are the lab findings with hereditary spherocytosis

A

Increased MCHC, spherocytosis on peripheral smear, negative Coombs test, increased osmotic fragility on acidified glycerol lysis test, abnormal eosin-5-maleimide binding test

3rd year/clinical (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions